## CBSE Previous Year Solved  Papers  Class 12 Maths Outside Delhi 2011

Time allowed : 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum Marks: 100

General Instructions:

1.  All questions are compulsory.
2.  Please check that this question paper contains 26 questions.
3.  Questions 1-6 in Section A are very short-answer type questions carrying 1 mark each.
4.  Questions 7-19 in Section B are long-answer I type questions carrying 4 marks each.
5. Questions 20-26 in Section C are long-answer II type questions carrying 6 marks each.
6.  Please write down the serial number of the question before attempting it.

SECTION – A

SECTION – B

SECTION – C

### SET II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous Set.

SECTION – A

SECTION – B

SECTION – C

### SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

SECTION – A

SECTION – B

SECTION – C

## CBSE Previous Year Solved  Papers Class 12 Maths Delhi 2012

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                          Maximum Marks : 100
General Instructions:

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Please check that this question paper contains 26 questions.
3. Questions 1-6 in Section A are very short-answer type questions carrying 1 mark each.
4. Questions 7-19 in Section B are long-answer I type questions carrying 4 marks each.
5. Questions 20-26 in Section C are long-answer II type questions carrying 6 marks each.
6. Please write down the serial number of the question before attempting it.

### SET I

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous Sets.

SECTION – A

1. If a line has direction ratios 2, -1, – 2, then what are its direction cosines ?

SECTION – B

12. How many times must a man toss a fair coin, so that the probability of having at least one head is more than 80%? [4]

SECTION – C

23. Find the equation of the plane determined by the points A (3, -1,2), B (5,2,4) and C (-1, -1,6) and hence find the distance between the plane and the point P (6,5,9). [6]

24. Of the students in a college, it is known that 60% reside in hostel and 40% are day scholars (not residing in hostel). Previous year results report that 30% of all students who reside in hostel attain “A” grade and 20% of day scholars attain ‘A’ grade in their annual examination. At the end of the year, one student is chosen at random from the college and he has an ‘A’ grade, what is the probability that the student is a hostler ? [6]

25. A manufacturer produces nuts and bolts. It takes 1 hour of work on machine A and 3 hours on machine B to produce a package of nuts. It takes 3 hours on machine A and 1 hour on machine B to produce a package of bolts. He earns a profit of Rs 17.50 per package on nuts and Rs 7 per package of bolts. How many packages of each should be produced each day so as to maximize his profits if he operate his machines for at the most 12 I hours a day? Form the above as a linear programming problem and solve it graphically.

27. Using the method of integration, find the area of the region bounded by the lines 3x – 2y + 1 = 0. [6]

28. Show that the height of a closed right circular cylinder of given surface and maximum volume, is equal to the diameter of its base. [6]

29. Using matrices, solve the following system of linear equations:
x-y + 2z =7
3x + 4y – 5z = – 5
2x – y + 3z =12

### SET II

Note: Except for the following questions, All the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

SECTION – A

SECTION – B

SECTION -C

28. A girl throws a die. If she gets a 5 or 6, she tosses a coin three times and notes the number of heads. If she gets 1, 2,3 or 4, she tosses a coin two times and notes the number of heads obtained. If she obtained exactly two heads, what is the probability that she threw 1,2,3 or 4 with the die? [6]

29. Using the method of integration, find the area of the region bounded by the following lines 3x – y – 3 = 0, 2x + y -12 = 0, x – 2y -1 = 0.

SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, All the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

SECTION – A

SECTION – B

SECTION – C

28. Bag I contains 3 red and 4 black balls and Bag II contains 4 red and 5 black balls. Two balls are transferred at random from Bag I to Bag II and then a ball is drawn from Bag II. The ball so drawn is found to be red in colour. Find the probability that the transferred balls were both black. [6]

29. Using the method of integration, find the area of the region bounded by the following lines 5x – 2y -10 = 0, x + y – 9 = 0, 2x – 5y – 4 = 0. [6]

## CBSE Previous Year Solved  Papers  Class 12 Chemistry Delhi 2011

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1.  All questions are compulsory.
2.  Questions number 1 to 5 are very short-answer questions and carry 1 mark each.
3.  Questions number 6 to 10 are short-answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
4.  Questions number 11 to 22 are also short-answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
5.  Questions number 23 is a value based question and carry 4 marks.
6.  Questions number 24 to 26 are long-answer questions and carry 5 marks each.
7.  Use log tables, if necessary. Use of calculators is not allowed.

### SET I

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

Question.1.‘Crystalline solids are anisotropic in nature’. What does this statement mean?
Answer : It means that some of the physical properties of crystalline solids such as refractive index, electrical conductivity, thermal expansion, etc. show different values when measured along different directions in the same crystal.

Question.2.Express the relation between conductivity and molar conductivity of a solution held in a cell.
Answer : The molar conductivity of a solution is related to conductivity of that solution as :

Question.3.Define ‘Electrophoresis’.
Answer: Electrophoresis is the phenomenon of movement of colloidal particles under the applied electric field.

Question.4.What is the structure of XeF2 molecule? Draw it.

Question.5.Write the IUPAC name of the following compound : (CH3)3CCH2Br

Question.6.Draw the structure of 3-methylbutanal.

Question.7.Arrange the following compounds in an increasing order of their solubility in water:

Answer : Bio-degradable polymers are natural polymers that disintegrated themselves over a period of time by enzymatic hydrolysis, e.g. starch, cellulose, etc.

Question.9.The chemistry of corrosion of iron is essentially an electro-chemical phenomenon. Explain the reactions occurring during the corrosion of iron in the atmosphere.
Answer : According to electrochemical theory of rusting, the impure iron surface behaves like small electrochemical cell in the presence of water containing dissolved oxygen or carbon dioxide. In this cell pure iron acts as an anode and impure iron surface acts as cathode. Moisture having dissolved CO2 or O2  acts as an electrolyte. The reactions at cathode and anode are as follows :

Question.10. Determine the values of equilibrium constant (Kc) and ΔG° and for the following reaction :

Question.11. Distinguish between ‘rate expression’ and ‘rate constant’ of a reaction.
Answer : Rate constant is the rate of reaction when the concentration of each reactant is taken as unity.
Rate expression expresses the rate fef reaction in terms of molar concentrations of the reactants with each term raised to their power, which may or may not be same as the stoichiometric coefficient of that reactant in the balanced chemical equation.

Question.12. Give reason for :

1.  The N-O bond in NO2is shorter than the N-O bond in NO3
2. SF6 is kinetically an inert substance.

OR
State reasons for each of the following:

1. All the P-Cl bonds in PCl5 molecules are not equivalent.
2. Sulphur has greater tendency for catenation than oxygen.

1. The resonating structure of NO2shows that NO2 two bonds are sharing double bond while in NO3 three bonds are sharing a double bond. Thus, NO2 has shorter bond than that of NO2 .
Resonating structure of NO2 and NO3.
2. SF6 is kinetically inert due to high oxidizing power and electronegativity of fluorine atom which causes steric hindrance and it unable to react further with any other atom.

OR

1.  It is because all bonds are not in same plane. Three P-Cl equatorial bonds are in one plane whereas two axial bonds are in vertical plane which are longer than equatorial bonds.
2. Sulphur has a much greater tendency for catenation than oxygen because of its bigger size and low electronegativity due to which the S-S bond is stronger than 0-0 bond and there is more interelectronic repulsion in 0-0 than in S-S bond.

Question.13. Assign reasons for the following:

1. Copper (I) ion is not known in aqueous solution.
2.  Actinoids exhibit greater range of oxidation states than lanthanoids.

1.  In aqueous solution Cu+ undergoes disproportionation to form a more stable Cu2+ ion.
2Cu+(aq) → Cu2+(aq) + Cu(s)
The higher stability of Cu2+ ion is aqueous solution may be attributed to its greater negative  ΔhydH than that of Cu+ion. It compensates the second ionisation enthalpy of Cu involved in the formation of Cu2+ions.
2. Actinoids exhibit greater range of oxidation states than lanthanoids. This is because there is less energy difference between 5d and 6d orbitals belonging to actinoids than the energy difference between 4d and 5d orbitals in case of lanthanoids.

Question.14.Explain the following giving one example for each :

1. Reimer-Tieman reaction.
2. Friedel Craft’s acetylation of anisole.

1.  When phenol is treated with chloroform in presence of aqueous NaOH at 340 K followed by hydrolysis gives salicylaldehyde.
2.  When anisole is treated with acetylchloride in presence of anhydrous AlCl3, 2-methoxy acetophenone is formed.

Question.15. How would you obtain :
(i) Picric acid (2,4, 6-Trinitrophenol) from phenol.
(ii)2-Methylpropene from 2-methylpropanol?

Question.16. What is essentially the difference between a-form of glucose and p-form of glucose? Explain.
Answer : In a-form of glucose OH group lies at Cl towards right but in P-form of glucose it is towards left. This is because OH group at Cl in glucose is chiral.

Question.17. Describe what you understand by primary structure and secondary structure of proteins.
Answer : Primary structure of proteins refer to the*sequence in which amino acids are joined together by peptide linkage. The sequence of amino acids in primary structure is very specific. Any change in the sequence of amino acids creates a different protein with different biological activity.
Secondary structure of proteins refers to the conformation which arises due to the coiling of polypeptide chain due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding between carbonyl and —NH groups. Depending upon the size of -R group, there are two secondry structures of pfotein, i.e. a -Helix and p -Pleated sheet like structure.

Question.18. Mention two important uses of the following

1.  Bakelite
2. Nylon-6

Answer: Bakelite: It is used in the manufacture of electrical switches, protective coatings, barrels, etc.
Nylon-6 : It is used in making Fabrics, tyre cords, mountaineering ropes etc.

Question.19. Silver crystallizes in face-centered cubic unit cell. Each side of this unit cell has a length of 400 pm. Calculate the radius of the silver atom. (Assume the atoms just touch each other on the diagonal across the face of the unit cell. That is each face atom is touching the four comer atoms).

Question.20. Nitrogen pentoxide decomposes according to equation :

(i) Calculate the rate constant. Include units with your answer.
(ii)What will be the concentration of N2O5 after 100 minutes?
(iii)Calculate the initial rate of reaction.
Answer. (i) We Know that

Question.21. Explain how the phenomenon of adsorption finds application in each of the following processes :

1. Production of vacuum
2. Heterogeneous catalysis
3. Froth Floatation Process

OR
Define each of the following terms :

1.  Micelles
2. Peptization
3. Desorption

1. In vacuum flasks, activated charcoal is placed between the walls of the flask so that any gas which enters into annular space either due to glass imperfection or diffusion through glass is adsorbed and create a vacuum.
2. If the catalysts and reactants are present in different phase, the process of catalysis is called as heterogenous catalysis. For example, manufacture of NH3 from N3 and H2 by Haber’s process using iron as catalyst

In this process, the-reactants are in gaseous phase whereas catalyst is in solid phase. *
3. This method is used for removing gangue from sulphide ores. In this powdered ore is mixed with collectors (e.g. pine oil, fatty acids etc.) and froth stabilizers (e.g. cresols, aniline) which enhance non-wet ability of the mineral particles and froth stabilisation respectively. As a result of which ore comes with froth and gangue remain in the solution.

1. When soaps and detergents are added to water, a cluster of charged particle is formed by the aggregation of variety of molecules. Thus formed is called micelle.
2. The process of converting a fresh precipitate into colloidal particles by shaking it with the dispersion medium in the presence of a small amount of a suitable electrolyte is called peptization.
3. The process of removal of adsorbed substance from the surface of a solid or a liquid by heating or by reducing pressure is called desorption.

Question.22. Describe the principle behind each of the following
processes:

1.  Vapour phase refining of a metal.
2. Electrolytic refining of a metal
3. Recovery of silver after silver ore was leached with NaCN.

1. Vapour Phase refining: The impure metal is first converted to its unstable volatile compound which is evaporated and then decomposed by heating at higher temperature to give pure metal, leaving behind the impurities.
2. In this method impure metal is made anode and a thin sheet of pure metal is made cathode, and are put in a suitable electrolyte containing soluble salt of same metal. On passing current the more basic metal remains in the solution and the less basic one go to the anode and gets deposited as anode mud.
3. NaCN acts as a leaching agent or oxidizing agent, thus oxidize Ag to Ag which then combine with CN–  ions to form respective soluble complex.

Question.23.Complete the following chemical equations :

Question.24. Write the name, stereochemistry and magnetic behaviour of the following:

Question.25. Answer the following:
(i) Haloalkanes easily dissolves in organic solvents, why?
(ii)What is known as a racemic mixture? Give an example.
(iii)Of the two bromoderivatives, C6H5CH(CH3)Br and C6H5CH( C6H5)Br, which one is more reactive in SNI substitution reaction and why?
(i) Haloalkanes dissolve in organic solvents because the new intermolecular attraction between haloalkanes and organic solvent molecules have the same strength as the one being broken in the separate haloalkanes and solvent molecules.
(ii) Racemic mixture is an equimolar mixture of two enantiomers and is hence optically inactive, e.g. (± butan-2-ol)

Question.26. (a) Explain why an alkylamine is more basic than ammonia?
(b) How would you convert:
(i) Aniline to nitrobenzene
(ii)Aniline to iodobenzene
(a) Alkyl groups are electron donating groups and increase the electron density on nitrogen in alkylamine making them more basic than ammonia.

Question.27. Describe the following giving one example for each :

1. Detergents
2. Food preservatives
3. Antacids

1. Detergents are soluble salts of sodium potassium sulphonic acids unlike soaps they are non-biodegradble but they can be conveniently used both with soft and hard water. e.g. Sodium alkylbenzene sulphonate.
2. Food preservatives are chemicals used to preserve food by preventing microbial growth e.g. Sodium benzoate, Table salt, etc.
3. The substances which are taken to neutralize the excess acid and maintaining the pH to an appropriate level in stomach are called antacids. There are two types of anatacids systemic antacids, e.g, NaHCO3 and non-systemic e.g. Milk of magnesia.

Question.28. (a) Differentiate between molality and molarity of a solution. How does a change in temperature influence their values?
(b) Calculate the freezing point of an aqueous solution containing 10.50 g of MgBr2  in 200 g of water. (Molar mass of MgBr2 = 184 g) (Kƒ for water = 1.86 K kgmol-1
OR
(a) Define the terms osmosis and osmotic pressure. Is the osmotic pressure of a solution a colligative property? Explain
(b) Calculate the boiling point of a solution prepared by adding 15.00 g of NaCl to 250.0 g of water. (Kb for water = 0.512 K kg mol-1, Molar mass of NaCl = 58.44 g)
(a) Molarity is the number of moles of solute dissolved in 1 litre of solution. It is temperature dependent.

Molality is the number of moles of solute dissolved per 1 kg of the solvent. It is temperature independent.

Molality is independent of temperature, whereas molarity is a function of temperature because volume depends on temperature and mass does not.
(b) Since MgBr2 is an isotonic compound. Hence undergoes complete dissociation

(a) Osmosis is the phenomenon of flow of solvent through a semi-permeable membrane from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration.
The osmotic pressure of a solution is the excess pressure that must be applied to the solution to prevent the passage of solvent molecule through a semi-permeable membrane into the solution.
Yes, osmotic pressure is a colligative property as it depends only on the amount of solute present in the solution.
(b) Initial moles after dissociation we know that,

Question.29. Give chemical tests to distinguish between:
(i) Propanal and propanone
(ii)Benzaldehyde and acetophenone (b) How would obtain :
(i) But-2-enal from ethane
(ii)Butanoic acid from butanol
(iii)Benzoic acid from ethylbenzene
OR
(a) Describe the following giving linked chemical equations
(i) Cannizzaro reaction
(ii)Decarboxylation
(b) Complete the following chemical equations :

Question.30. (a) Explain the foUowing:
(i) NF3 is an exothermic compound whereas NCl3 is not.
(ii)F2is most reactive of all the four common halogens,
(b) Complete the following chemical equations:

(a) Account for the following :
(i) The acidic strength decreases in the order HCl > H2S > PH3
(ii)Tendency to form pentahalides decreases down the group in group 15 of the periodic table.
(b) Complete the following chemical equations :

Answer : (a) (i) Due to smaller size of F as compared to Cl, the N-F bond is much stronger than N-Cl bond while bond dissociation energy of F2 is much lower than that of Cl2. Therefore, energy related during the formation of NF3 molecule is more than the energy needed to break N2 and F2 molecules into individual atoms. In other words, formation of NF3 is an exothermic reaction.
The energy released during the formation of NCl3 molecule is less than the energy needed to break N2 and Cl2 molecule into individual atoms. Thus, formation of NCl3 is an endothermic reaction.
(ii) Fluorine is most reactive of all the four common halogens because of is low bond dissociation energy due to which it readily dissociates into atoms and reacts with other substances readily

(a) (i) Because of decrease in electronegativity from chlorine to phosphorus, the dissociation enthalpy from HCl to H-P increases, and their tendency to release H+ ion decreases and thus acidic strength decreases.
(ii) This is due to inert pair effect. The stability of +5 oxidation state decreases down the group in group 15.

### SET II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining question have been asked in previous set.

Question.1. Which stoichiometric defect in crystals decreases the density of a solid?
Answer : Schottky defect.

Question.3. What is meant by shape-selective catalysis of reactions?
Answer: The reaction that depend for shape selective catalysts uses zeolites as catalyts for reaction on the shape and size of pores and of reactants and products.

Question.4. Draw the structure of XeF4 molecule

Question.9. Explain what is meant by

1.  a peptide linkage,

1.  Peptide linkage is present in proteins to bind together amino acids. The linkage involves the carboxyl group of one amino acid and amine group of another amino acids,
2. Glycosidic linkage is the (-C-O-C-) linkage present between two molecules of a monosaccharide to form a disaccharide.

Question.10. Name the bases present in RNA. Which one of these is not present in DNA.
Answer : Four bases present in RNA are adenine, guanine, Cytosine and Uracil.

Question.22. Explain the role of each the following in the extraction of metals from their ores :
(i) CO in the extraction of nickel.
(ii) Zinc in the extraction of silver.
(iii) Silica in the extraction of copper.

Question.24. For the complex [Fe(en)2Cl2], identify the following:

1. Oxidation number of iron.
2. Hybrid orbitals and shape of the complex
3. Magnetic behaviour of the complex
4. Number of its geometrical isomers.
5.  Whether there may be optical isomer also.
6. Name of the complex.

1. +3
2. Sp3d2,octahedral shape.
3. paramagnetic
4. 2 geometrical isomers, cis and trans.
5.  Only cis-isomers shows optical isomerisrrt
6. Dichloridobis (ethylenediamine) iron(III) chloride

Question.27. Explain the following terms with one suitable example for each:

1. A sweetening agent for diabetic patients
2. Enzymes
3. Analgesics

1.  Artificial sweeting agent are chemicals that sweeten food. However, unlike natural sweetners, they do not add calories to our body, not harmful to diabtic patients, e.g. Saccharin, aspartame.
2. Enzymes are biocatalysts which are structurally globular proteins. They are sensitive to substrate, pH and temperature changes, e.g. Trypsin
3. Analgesics are chemical substances which reduces pain
without causing impairment of consciousness, mental confusion, in coordination of paralysis or some other disturbance of nervous system, e.g. Aspirin, (non-narcotic analgesic) and morphine (narcotic analgesic)

Question.28. (a) State the following:

1.  Henry’s law about partial pressure of a gas in a mixture.
2. Raoult’s law in its general form in reference to solutions.

(b) A solution prepared by dissolving 8.95 mg of a gene fragment in 35.0 mL of water has an osmotic pressure of 0.335 torr at 25°C. Assuming the gene fragment is non-electrolyte, find its molar mass.
OR
(a) Difference between molarity and molality in a solution. WTiat is the effect of temperature change on molarity and molality in a solution?
(b) What would be the molar mass of a compound if 6.21 g of it dissolved in 24.0 g of chloroform form a solution that has a boiling point of 68.04°C. The boiling point of
pure chloroform is 61.7°C and the boiling point elevation constant, for chloroform is 3.63°C/m.

1. Henry’s law states that the partial pressure of gas in vapour phase is directly proportional to its mole fraction in the solution,
2.  Raoults law states that for a solution with volatile components, the partial vapour pressure of each component present in the solution is proportional to its mole fraction in the solution.

OR
(a) Molarity is defined as the number of moles of solute present in 1 litre of solution, while molality is defined as the number of moles of solute present in 1 kg of solvent. Molality does not have any effect of change in temperature because mass does not change with temperature, whereas molarity changes with temperature.

### SET III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining question have been asked in previous sets.

Question.4. Draw the structure of BrF3 molecule

Question.8. In nylon 6, 6 what does the designation ‘6,6’ mean?
Answer: 6,6-refers to the number of carbon atoms in each of its monomer, adipic acid and hexamethyldiamine

Question.9.What type of a battery is lead storage battery? Write the
anode and the cathode reactions and the overall reactions occurring in a lead storage battery.
Answer : The lead storage battery is a secondary cell which is rechargeable. During discharging, the electrode reaction occurs as follows :
At anode:

Question.10. The half-reactions of an electrochemical cell are given below:

Question.13. Assign reasons for each of the following:

1.  Transition metals generally form coloured compounds.
2. Manganese exhibits the highest oxidation state of +7 among the 3d series of transition elements.

1. Due to presence of unpaired electrons and d-d transition, the transition metals are generally coloured.
2.  Manganese (z = 25), has the maximum number of unpaired electrons. Thus, it shows oxidation states from +2 to +7 which is maximum in number as compared to other elements of transition series.

Question.18. Name the sub-groups into which polymers are classified on the basis of magnitude intermolecular forces.
Answer : Elastomers : They have weakest intermolecular forces of attraction.
Fibres : They have strong intermolecular forces of attraction among its molecules.
Thermoplastics Polymers : They are semifluid substances having low molecular weight.
Thermosetting polymers – They have intermolecular. forces intermediate between those of elastomers and fibres.

Question.19. The density of lead is 11.35 g cm-3 and the metal crystallizes with fee unit cell. Estimate the radius of lead atom. (At.mass of lead = 207 g mol-1 and NA = 6.02 x 1023 mol-1)

Question.26. Complete the following chemical equations :

Question.27. Answer the following questions :

1. Why do soaps not work in hard water ?
2. What are the main constituents of dettol?
3. How do antiseptics differ from disinfectants?

1. Hard water contains insoluble chloride of calcium and magnesium which form insoluble ppt. (scum) with soap and thus cannot be rinsed off easily.
2. The main constituents of dettol are chloroxylenol and a-terpine.
3. Antiseptics : These are chemical substances which either kill or prevent the growth of micro-organism but do not cause harm to the living tissues.
Disinfectants : These are chemical substances which kill the  microbes. They are toxic in nature and thus cause harm to the tissues of the skin

## CBSE Class 9 Science Practical Skills – Velocity of a Pulse in Slinky

AIM
To determine the velocity of a pulse propagated through a stretched string/slinky.

APPARATUS REQUIRED
A stopwatch, a slinky (helical spring/string) and a metre scale.

THEORY
A pulse is a single disturbance, suddenly created, moving through a medium from free end to other end (which may he free or fixed) for a while. The distance travelled by the pulse in a unit time is called pulse velocity. Therefore,

Pulse velocity (v) = $$\frac { Distance\quad travelled\quad by\quad a\quad pulse\quad (s) }{ Tie\quad taken\quad (t) }$$     or   v= $$\frac { s }{ t }$$ m/s

PROCEDURE

1. Tie one end of a spring/string with a rigid support and measure its length. Let it be s.
2. Hold the free end of the string/slinky and create a disturbance up and down vertically, in case of transverse wave [Figure 5.3] or vibrate in a back and forth manner in case of longitudinal wave [Figure 5.4],
3. A pulse will be formed and it will travel towards the fixed end.
4. Introduce a wave into the slinky by creating a large number of pulse at regular intervals.
5. Stall the stopwatch at the instant when you create the single disturbance to the first coil and stop the stopwatch when last pulse reaches the fixed support.
6. Record the time (t) taken by the pulse to travel along the slinky of length s.
7. Repeat your experiment for 4-5 times, note the time taken ‘t’ by varying the number of pulse and record your observations.

OBSERVATIONS

1. Length of slinky =…….. cm
= ……….m
2. Least count of stopwatch = ……….s

RESULT
The velocity of a pulse propagated through a stretched string/slinky = ………….  ms-1

PRECAUTIONS

1. One end of the string/slinky should be fixed properly with the rigid support.
2. The string/slinky should be massless, flexible and of proper length.
3. Special attention should be paid while recording the time because variations of time may vary the velocity of pulse to a higher level.
4. Interval between the successive pulse should be maintained.

INTERACTIVE SESSION

Examiner :
What is the aim of your experiment?
Examinee:
To determine the velocity of pulse propagated through a stretched string/slinky.

Examiner :
What is pulse?
Examinee:
It is a single disturbance moving through a medium from one end to another end.

Examiner :
What is the position of each turn of a slinky when it is stretched?
Examinee:
When a slinky is stretched, the individual turn of the slinky to be assumed in an equilibrium or rest position.

Examiner :
While giving the jerk to the free end of a spring, which physical quantity does move to the other end?
Examinee:
Energy moves from one end to other end.

Examiner :
Do the particles of medium also move from one end to the other end?
Examinee:
No, particles of the medium oscillate about their mean position. In the case of transverse wave, they vibrate up and down while in the case of longitudinal wave, they vibrate to and fro.

Examiner :
Suppose, vibration of the coils of a spring are in the same direction in which the pulse propagate.
Which type of pulse is generated?
Examinee:
Longitudinal pulse.

Examiner :
Name a common device available in the laboratory for the production of sound waves in air.
Examinee:
Tuning fork.

Examiner :
Name a device available in the laboratory for studying waves.
Examinee:

Examiner :
Which type of wave can be produced on a slinky?
Examinee:
Both, transverse wave as well as longitudinal wave.

Examiner :
Which type of wave is produced when a stone is dropped on the surface of water in a pond?
Examinee:
Transverse wave.

Examiner :
Examinee:
It is a long helical spring, usually made of steel, flexible and has a elasticity.

Examiner :
Are the waves travelling on a string/slinky mechanical waves?
Examinee:
Yes, the wave travelling on a slinky are mechanical waves.

Examiner :
What will happen when the incident pulse reaches the fixed end of the string/slinky?
Examinee:
Pulse returns to the left after bouncing off and is known as reflected pulse.

Examiner :
If a crest is incident towards a fixed end, the reflected pulse will be crest or trough?
Examinee:The pulse will reflect as a trough.

Examiner :
What is the speed of reflected pulse?
Examinee:
It is same as the speed of the incident pulse.

Examiner :
This means two pulses which travel in different directions will have the same speed.
Examinee:
Yes.

Examiner :
What is the wavelength of incident and reflected pulse?
Examinee:
Both have the same wavelength.

Examiner :
What is the relationship between the pulse velocity (v), wavelength (λ) and frequency (v)?
Examinee:
v = vλ .

NCERT LAB MANUAL QUESTIONS

Question 1:
What is the difference between a pulse and a wave?

Question 2:
State the nature of pulse generated in a stretched string. Is it transverse or longitudinal? Can a longitudinal pulse be generated in a string or a thread (an amateur’s telephone !)?
The nature of a pulse generated in a stretched string is transverse in nature. Yes, longitudinal pulse can also be generated in a string or a thread.

Question 3:
Why we prefer a longer string to perform the experiment?
The speed of the pulse generated in the stretched string/slinky is very high. So, it is difficult to measure the time taken by the pulse in a single journey along the known small length of string. Therefore, it is preferred to take a longer string to perform the experiment.

Question 4:
In this experiment, you must have noticed that while expressing the result for the speed of a pulse in a string, it is not suggested to take the average value of speeds determined with different lengths of the string. Why?
The speed of a pulse ( or a wave) through a stretched string is inversely proportional to the square root of the mass per unit length of the string. Therefore, the different values of speed of the pulse for different values of string length will be observed. Hence we cannot take the average value of speed determined with different lengths of string.

PRACTICAL BASED QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice Questions/VSA

Question 1:
The physical quantity that will remain unchanged after reflection of a sound wave is
(a) velocity
(b) wavelength
(c) frequency
(d) all of these

Question 2:
In air, at room temperature, the speed of sound is 345 m/s. If a tuning fork produces a pure tone
of 1 kHz, the wavelength of sound produced in air is:
(a) 345 m
(b) 0.345 m
(c) 3.45 m
(d) 34.5 m

Question 3:
On which of the following factor, the speed of propagation of pulse in a slinky does not depend?
(a) Dimensions of slinky
(b) Material of slinky
(c) Room temperature
(d) Length of slinky

Question 4:
When a pulse is sent through a slinky/string, the physical quantity that travels along its length is
(a) speed
(b) frequency
(c) wavelength
(d) energy

Question 5:
To find velocity of the pulse in a string, we need
(а) only a measuring scale
(b) only a stopwatch
(c) both measuring scale and stopwatch
(d) neither measuring scale nor stop watch

Question 6:
The distance between compression and rarefaction of a sound wave is 5 cm. Its wavelength is
(a) 5 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 2.5 cm
(d) 20 cm

Question 7:
The distance between mid-points of two consecutive compressions or rarefactions in a wmve is given by
(a) 2λ
(b) λ /2
(c) λ /4
(d) λ

Question 8:
If the pulse hits at the fixed end as shown in the diagram A, then immediately reflected pulse is

(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)

Question 9:
What is the velocity of pulse for the slinky indicated in the figure below?

Given that the pulse took 5 seconds to travel from A to B and then back to A.
(a) 5 m/s
(b) 4 m/s
(c) 10 m/s
(d) none.

Question 10:
A slinky, 5 m long, is tied to the hook in a wall and its other end is held tightly. It is then pulled as shown, and released suddenly.

The disturbance created on the slinky is
(a) Transverse wave
(b) Longitudinal wave
(c) Longitudinal pulse
(d) Transverse pulse

Question 11:
The wave pulse can be produced on a rope whose one end is fixed
(a) by giving a single jerk to the other end
(b) by giving more jerks to the other end
(c) by giving continuous jerks
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c)

Question 12:
Shyamal was calculating the velocity of wave using a slinky. He asked his teacher regarding the features of spring to be used. The teacher replied that the spring should be
(a) long, soft and flexible
(b) short, soft and flexible
(c) short, hard and flexible
(d) long, soft but not flexible

Question 13:
In the experiment for determining the velocity of a pulse propagating along the length of string, we prefer a long thick cotton string
(a) because pulse cannot be formed in a thin short string
(b) because cotton string is cheap and easily available
(c) so that pulse may move through it easily
(d) so that time taken by pulse to move from one end of string to other may be accurately determined

Question 14:
A pulse was created in a slinky/string of length 4 m by a group of four students. They observed that it returned after reflection at the point of creation 6 times in 10 seconds and calculated the
speed as follows:

The correct speed was calculated by the student
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Question 15:
A strong transverse horizontal pulse, created at one end of a string, is observed to complete five journeys along its length before fading out. The initial and final readings, on a stop-clock used in the experiment are as shown here. If the length of the string is L metre, the speed of the pulse through the string, is

Question 16:
A student fixes two ends of a rope to two rigid supports A and B placed at a distance of 7.5 m. He then gives a transverse horizontal jerk to create a pulse in the rope which moves from A
to B, B to A, again from A to B and B to A…….and so on. The moment he gives jerk to the rope, his friend immediately starts the stop watch. The pulse dies after completing three to and fro journeys from A to B and back. The pulse takes 1 minute and 15 seconds to complete its entire journey. The speed of the pulse moving on the rope is

(a) 0.6 ms-1
(b) 0.3 ms-1
(c) 0.2 ms-1
(d) 0.1 ms-1

Question 17:
While doing the experiment on measuring the velocity of a pulse through a stretched string, a student had to choose between using a

1. thick silk string and a thick cotton string
2. stop clock and a table clock

The combination of choice that he should prefer is
(a) silk string and stop clock
(b) silk string and table clock
(c) cotton string and stop clock
(d) cotton string and table clock

Multiple Choice Questions/VSA

1. (d)
2. (b)
3. (a)
4. (d)
5. (c)
6. (b)
7. (d)
8. (b)
9. (b)
10. (c)
11. (a)
12. (a)
13. (d)
14. (b)
15. (b)
16. (a)
17. (c)

## CBSE Previous Year Solved  Papers  Class 12 Maths Delhi 2011

Time allowed : 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum Marks: 100

General Instructions:

1.  All questions are compulsory.
2.  Please check that this question paper contains 26 questions.
3.  Questions 1-6 in Section A are very short-answer type questions carrying 1 mark each.
4.  Questions 7-19 in Section B are long-answer I type questions carrying 4 marks each.
5. Questions 20-26 in Section C are long-answer II type questions carrying 6 marks each.
6.  Please write down the serial number of the question before attempting it.

### SET I

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous Sets.

SECTION – A

1. State the reason for the relation R in the set {1,2,3} given by R = {(1,2), (2,1)} not to be transitive.

SECTION – B

11. Consider the binary operation * on the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} defined by a* b = min. {a, b). Write the operation table of the operation *.

16. Sand is pouring from a pipe at the rate of 12 cm3/s. The falling sand forms a cone on the ground in such a way that the height of the cone is always one-sixth of the radius of the base. How fast is the height of the sand cone increasing when the height is 4 cm ?
Solution: Let r be the radius, h be the height and V be the volume of the sand cone.

Find the points on the curve x2 + y2 2x-3 = 0at which the tangents are parallel to x-axis.
Solution: When the tangent is parallel to x-axis

22. Probabilities of solving a specific problem independently by A and B are 1/2 and 1/3 respectively. If both try to solve the problem independently, find the probability that
(i) the problem is solved
(ii) exactly one of them solves the problem.
Solution: Given,

SECTION – C

24. Show that of all the rectangles inscribed in a given fixed circle, the square has the maximum area.
Solution : Let length of rectangle be x and breadth of rectangle be y.

28. A factory makes tennis rackets*,and cricket bats. A tennis racket takes 1.5 hours of machine time and 3 hours of craftsman’s time in its making while a cricket bat takes 3 hours of machine time and 1 horn1 of craftsman’s time. In a day, the factory has the availability of not more than 42 hours of machine time and 24 hours of craftsman’s time. If the profit on aracket and on a bat is Rs 20 and Rs  10 respectively, find the number of tennis rackets and circket bats that the factory must manufacture to earn the maximum profit. Make it as an L.P.P. and solve graphically.
Solution: Let x be the number of tennis rackets and y that of cricket bats produced in one day in the factory.

29. Suppose 5% of men and 0.25% of women have grey hair. A grey haired person is selected at random. What is the probability of this person being male ? Assume  that there are equal number of males and females.

### SET II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous Sets.

SECTION – A

SECTION – B

15. Formthe differential equation of the family of parabolas having vertex at the origin and axis along positive y- axis

SECTION – C

23. Bag I contains 3 red and 4 black balls and Bag II contains 5 red and 6 black balls. One ball is drawn at random from one of the bags and is found to be red. Find the probability that it was drawn from Bag II.
Solution:

### SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous Sets.

SECTION – A

SECTION – B

SECTION – C

23. A man is known to speak truth 3 out of 4 times. He throws a die and reports that it is a six. Find the probability that it is actually a six.
Solution: Let E be the event that the man reports that six occurs in the throwing of a die and let S1 be the event that six occurs and S2 be the event that six does not occur,

## CBSE Solved Papers For Class 12 Computer Science (C++) Paper 7

SECTION A

Question 1.
(a) Write the type of C + + tokens (keywords and user defined identifiers) from the following :
(i) new
(ii) While
(iii) case
(iv) Num_2
(b) Anil typed the following C+ + code and during compilation he found three errors as follows :
(i) Function strlen should have prototype
(ii) Undefined symbol cout
(iii) Undefined symbol endl
On asking, his teacher told him to include necessary header files in the code. Write the names of the header files, which Anil needs to include, for successful compilation and execution of the following code :

void main()
{
char Txt [ ] = “Welcome”;
for (int C = 0; C Txt [C] = Txt [C]+l;
cout<<Txt<<endl;
}

(c) Rewrite the following C+ + code after removing any/all syntactical errors with each correction underlined.2 Note : Assume all required header files are already being included in the program.

void main ()
{
cout < < "Enter an Alphabet: "; cin>>CH;
switch(CH)
case ‘A cout < <"Ant"; Break;
case 'B' cout < <"Bear" ; Break;

(d) Find and write the output of the following C + + program code : Note : Assume all required header files are already included in the program. #define Diff (N1, N2) ((N1>N2) ?N1 – N2 : N2 – N1)

 void main ()
{
int A, B, NUM [ ] = (10, 23,14, 54, 32};
for (int CNT = 4 ; CNT > 0 ; CNT - -)
{
A=NUM[CNT] ;
B=NUM[CNT-1] ;
cout< }
}

(e) Find and write the output of the following C++ program code :
Note : Assume all required header files are already being included in the program.

void main ()
{
int *Point, Score [ ]={100, 95, 150, 75, 65, 120};
Point = Score;
for (int L = 0; L<6; L++)
{ if ((*Point)%10==0) *Point /= 2;
else
*Point- = 2;
if ((*Point)%5==0) *Point /= 5; Point++ ; }
for (int L =5; L> = 0; L- -)
cout<<Score[L]<<"*";
}

(f) Look at the following C++ code and find the possible output(s) from the options (i) to (iv) following it. Also, write the maximum values that can be assigned to each of the variables N and M.
Note:
Assume all the required header files are already being included in the code.
The function random(n) generates an integer between 0 and n -1,

void main ()
{
randomize();
int N=random(3), M=random (4);
int DOCK [3] [3] = {{1, 2, 3}, (2, 3, 4}, (3, 4, 5}};
for (int R=0; R<N; R++)
{
for (int C=0; C<M; C++)
cout< cout<<endl;
}
}
 (i) (ii) 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 3 4 5 (iii) (iv) 1 2 1 2 2 3 2 3 3 4

(a) (i) new – Keyword
(ii) While – User defined Identifier
(iii) case – Keyword
(iv) Num_2 – User defined Identifier
(b) string.h
iostream.h OR fstream.h OR iomanip.h

(c) void main()
{
cout<<"Enter an Alphabet:"; char CH: // Error 1 cin>>CH;
switch(CH)
{.............. // Error 2(i)
case ‘A’_ // Error 3(i)
cout<<"Ant"; break; //Error 4(i)
case ‘B’_ // Error 3(ii)
cout<<"Bear"; break; // Error 4(ii)
}.............. // Error 2(ii)
}

(d) 22#40#9#13#
(e) 12*63*73*15*93*10*
(f) Correct Options: (ii) and (iii)
Maximum value of N = 2
Maximum value M=3

Question 2.
(a) Differentiate between protected and private members of a class in context of Object Oriented Programming. Also give a suitable example illustrating accessibility/non-accessibility of each using a class and an object in C+ +
(b) Observe the following C+ + code and answer the questions (i) and (ii).
Note : Assume all necessary files are included.

class TEST
{
long TCode;
char TTitle [20];
float Score;
public:
TEST () //Member Function 1
{
TCode=100;strcpy(TTitle, "FIRST Test") ;Score=0;
}
TEST (TEST &T) //Member Function 2
{
TCode=E. TCode+1;
strcpy (TTitle, T . TTitle);
Score=T . Score;
}
};
void main ()
{
............ //Statement 1
............ //Statement 1
}

(i) Which Object Oriented Programming feature is illustrated by the Member Function 1 and the Member
Function 2 together in the class TEST ?
(ii) Write Statement 1 and Statement 2 to execute Member Function 1 and Member Function 2 respectively.
(c) Write the definition of a class BOX in C + + with the following description:
Private Members
– BoxNumber // data member of integer type
– Side // data member of float type
– Area // data member of float type
– ExecArea () // Member function to calculate and assign
// Area as Side * Side
Public Members
– GetBox () //A function to allow user to enter values of
// BoxNumber and Side. Also, this
// function should call ExecArea() to calculate
// Area
– ShowBoxO // A function to display BoxNumber, Side
// and Area
(d) Answer the questions (i) to (iv) based on the following :

class First
{
int X1;
protected:
float X2;
public :
First () ;
void Enter1 (); void Displayl ();
};
class Second : private First
{
intY1;
protected:
float Y2;
public:
Second ();
void Enter 2 ();
void Display ();
};
class Third : public Second
{
int Z1;
public:
Third ();
void Enter3 ();
void Display ();
};
void main ()
{
Third T; //Statement 1
............; //Statement 2
}

(i) Which type of Inheritance out of the following is illustrated in the above example ?
Single Level Inheritance, Multilevel Inheritance, Multiple Inheritance
(ii) Write the names of all the member functions, which are directly accessible by the object T of class Third as declared in main() function.
(iii) Write Statement 2 to call function Display () of class Second from the object T of class Third.
(iv) What will be the order of execution of the constructors, when the object T of class Third is declared inside main() ?

(a)

 Private Protected Implicit Visibility Mode Not accessible to member functions of derived class Explicit Visibility Mode Accessible to member function of derived class
Example:
class A
{
int X;
protected: ,
int Y;
public:
void Z();
};

OR
Any other correct example demonstrating difference between private and protected members of a class
(ii) TEST T1; //Statement 1
TESTT2(T1); //Statement 2
OR
TEST T2=T1; //Statement 2

(c) class BOX
{
int BoxNumber;
float Side;
float Area;
void ExecArea(){ Area=Side*Side;}
public:
void GetBox();
void ShowBox();
};
void BOX::GetBox()
{
cin>>BoxNumber>>Side;
ExecArea();
}
void BOX::ShowBox()
{ cout<<BoxNumber<<" "<<Side<<" "<<Area<<endl;
}

(d) (i) Multilevel Inheritance.
(ii) Enter2(), Display() of class Second
Enter3(), Display() of class Third
OR
Enter2()
Second: :Display()
Enter3()
Display()
OR Third::Display()

NOTE:
• Marks not to be awarded for partially correct answer
• Ignore the mention of Constructors
(iii) T.Second::Display();
(iv) First, Second, Third

Question 3.
(a) Write the definition of a function AddUp(int Arr[], int N) in C+ +, in which all even positions (i.e., 0,2,4,…) of the array should be added with the content of the element in the next position and odd positions (i.e., 1,3,5,…) elements should be incremented by 10.
Example : if the array Arr contains

 23 30 45 10 15 25

Then The Array should become

 53 40 55 20 40 35

Note:
• The function should only alter the content in the same array.
• The function should not copy the altered content in another array.
• The function should not display the altered content of the array.
• Assuming, the Number of elements in the array are Even.
(b) Write a definition for a function SUMMIDCOL(int MATRIX [ ] [10], int N,int M) in C+ +, which finds the sum of the middle column’s elements of the MATRIX (Assuming N represents number of rows and M represents number of columns, which is an odd integer).
Example : If the content of array MATRIX having N as 5 and M as 3 is as follows:

 1 2 1 2 1 4 3 4 5 4 5 3 5 3 2

The function should calculate the sum and display the following :
Sum of Middle Column : 15
(c) ARR[15][20] is a two-dimensional array, which is stored in the memory along the row with each of its
elements occupying 4 bytes. Find the address of the element ARR[5] [15], if the element ARR[10] [5] is stored at the memory location 35000.
(d) Write the definition of a member function PUSHGIFT ( ) for a class STACK in C++, to add a GIFT in a dynamically allocated stack of GIFTs considering the following code is already written as a part of the
program:

struct GIFT
{
int GCODE; //Gift Code
char GDESC[20] ; //Gift Description
};
class STACK
{
public :
STACK () { TOP=NULL ;}
void PUSHGIFT () ;
void POPGIFT () ;
-STACK () ;
};

(e) Convert the following Infix expression to its equivalent Postfix expression, showing the stack contents for each step of conversion :
X-(Y + Z)/U*V

(a) void AddUp(int Arr[], int N)
{
for(int i=0; i<N; i++)
{
if(i%2==0) :
Arr[i]=Arr[i]+Arr[i+l];
else
Arr[i]=Arr[i]+10;
}
}

OR
Any other correct C++code for the required function definition.

(b) void SUMMIDCOL(int MATRiX[][10],intN, int M)
int mid-M/2; :
int sum=0;
for(int i=0; i<N; i++)
{
sum=sum+MATRIX[i][mid];
cout<<” Sum of Middle Column”<<sum; }

OR Any other correct C++ code for the required function definition.
(c) ROW MAJOR:
Loc(ARR[I][J]) =BaseAddress + W [(I – LBR)*C + J – LBC)]
(where W=size of each element = 4 bytes, R=Number of Rows=15, C=Number of Columns=20) Assuming LBR = LBC =0
LOC(ARR[10][5])
35000 = BaseAddress + W(I*C + J)
35000 = BaseAddress + 4(10*20 + 5)
35000 = BaseAddress + 4(205)
35000 = BaseAddress + 820
BaseAddress = 35000 – 820
= 34180
LOC(ARR[5][15])= BaseAddress + W(PC + J)
= 34180 + 4(5*20 + 15)
= 34180 +4(100 + 15)
= 34180 +4×115
= 34180 + 460
= 34640
OR
Loc(ARR[I][J]) = Ref. Address + W ((I- LR)*C + (J – LC))
(where W=size of each element = 4 bytes, R=Number of Rows =15, C=Number of Columns=20 Reference Address= Address of given cell ARR[10][5]=35000
LR = Row value of given cell = 10
LC = Column value of given cell = 5)
LOC(ARR[5)(15]) = LOC(ARR[10][5]) + 4((5-10)*20 + (15-5))
LOC(ARR[5](15])=35000 + 4(-100 + 10) ;
= 35000 + 4[-90]
= 35000-360
= 34640

(d) void STACK::PUSHGIFT()
cin>>T->GCODE;
gets(T->GDESC);
T->Link = TOP; .
TOP = T;
}

(e)

 ELEMENT Stack POSTFIX X X – – X ( -( X Y -( XY + -(+ XYZ Z -(+ XYZ ) – XYZ+ / -/ XYZ+ U -/ XYZ+U * —* XYZ+U/ V —* XYZ+U/V XYZ+U/V*-

OR
X-(Y+Z)/U*V = (X-(((Y+Z)/U)*V))

 ELEMENT Stack POSTFIX ( X X – – ( ( ( Y XY + -+ Z XYZ ) – XYZ+ / -/ U XYZ+U

Postfix=XYZ+U/V*
Any other method for converting the given infix expression to its equivalent postfix expression showing stack contents.

Question 4.
(a) Polina Raj has used a text editing software to type some text in an article. After saving the article as MYNOTES. TXT, she realised that she has wrongly typed alphabet K in place of alphabet C everywhere in the article. Write a function definition for PURETEXT() in C + + that would display the corrected version of the entire article of the file MYNOTES. TXT with all the alphabets “K” to be displayed as an alphabet “C” on screen. 3 Note : Assuming that MYNOTES. TXT does not contain any C alphabet otherwise.
Example:
If Polina has stored the following content in the file MYNOTES. TXT :
I OWN A KUTE LITTLE KAR.
I KARE FOR IT AS MY KHILD.
The function PURETEXT () should display the following content
I OWN A CUTE LITTLE CAR.
I CARE FOR IT AS MY CHILD.
(b) Write a definition for function COUNTPICS() in C + + to read each object of a binary file PHOTOS.DAT, find and display the total number of PHOTOS of type PORTRAIT. Assume that the file PHOTOS.DAT is created with the help of objects of class PHOTOS, which is defined below :

class PHOTOS
{
int PCODE;
char PTYPE[20];//Photo Type as "PORTRAIT”,’’NATURE”
public :
void ENTER ()
{
cin>>PCODE;gets (PTYPE) ;
}
void SHOWCASE ()
{
cout<<PCODE<<“: “ >>PTYPE<<endl;
}
char *GETPTYPE () {return PTYPE;}
};

(c) Find the output of the following C++ code considering that the binary file CLIENTS.DAT exists on the hard disk with a data of 200 clients :

class CLIENTS
{
int CCode;char CName [20];
public :
void REGISTER () ; void DISPLAY () ;
};
void main ()
{
f stream File;
File, open (“CLIENTS. DAT ”, ios : : binary | ios : : in) ;
CLIENTS C;
File . seekg (6*sizeof (C)) ;
File, read ((char*) &C, sizeof(C));
cout<<”Client Number: “<<File.tellg() /sizeof(C) + 1;
File . seekg (0 , ios :: end) ;
cout<<” of “< File . close () ;
}

(c) Client Number 8 of 200

SECTION C

Question 5.
(a) Observe the following table MEMBER carefully and write the name of the RDBMS operation out of (i) SELECTION (ii) PROJECTION (iii) UNION (iv) CARTESIAN PRODUCT, which has been used to produce the output as shown in RESULT. Also, find the Degree and Cardinality of the RESULT :
MEMBER

 NO MNAME STREAM M001 JAYA SCIENCE M002 ADITYA HUMANITIES M003 HANSRAJ SCIENCE M004 SHIVAK COMMERCE

RESULT

 NO MNAME STREAM M002 ADITYA HUMANITIES

(b) Write SQL queries for (i) to (iv) and find outputs for SQL queries (v) to (viii), which are based on the tables.6
DVD

 DCODE DTITLE DTYPE F101 Henry Martin Folk C102 Dhrupad Classical C101 The Planets Classical F102 Universal Soldier Folk R102 A day in life Rock

MEMBER

 MID NAME DCODE ISSUEDATE 101 AGAM SINGH R102 2017-11-30 103 ARTH JOSEPH F102 2016-12-13 102 NISHAHANS C101 2017-07-24

(i) To display all details from the table MEMBER in descending order of ISSUEDATE.
(ii) To display the DCODE and DTITLE of all Folk Type DVDs from the table DVD.
(iii) To display the DTYPE and number of DVDs in each DTYPE from the table DVD.
(iv) To display all NAME and ISSUEDATE of those members from the table MEMBER who have DVDs issued (i.e., ISSUEDATE) in the year 2017.
(v) SELECT MIN (ISSUEDATE) FROM MEMBER; .
(vi) SELECT DISTINCT DTYPE FROM DVD;
(vii) SELECT D. DCODE, NAME, DTITLE : ,
FROM DVD D, MEMBER M WHERE D.DCODE=M.DCODE;
(viii) SELECT DTITLE FROM DVD
WHERE DTYPE NOT IN (“Folk”, “Classical”);

(a) (I) SELECTION DEGREE=3 CARDINALITY=1
(b) (i) SELECT * FROM MEMBER ORDER BY ISSUEDATE DESC;
(ii) SELECT DCODE,DTITLE FROM DVD WHERE DTYPE=’Folk’;
(iii) SELECT COUNT(*),DTYPE FROM DVD GROUP BY DTYPE;
(iv) SELECT NAME, ISSUEDATE FROM MEMBER WHERE
ISSUEDATE>=’2017-01-0T AND ISSUEDATE<=’2017-12-31;
OR
SELECT NAME, ISSUEDATE FROM MEMBER WHERE
ISSUEDATE BETWEEN ‘2017-01-01’ AND ‘2017-12-31’;
OR
SELECT NAME, ISSUEDATE FROM MEMBER WHERE ISSUEDATE LIKE ‘2017%’;
(v) MIN (ISSUEDATE)
2016-12-13
(vi) DISTINCT DTYPE
Folk
Classical
Rock
(vii)
DCODE NAME DTITLE
F102 ARIH JOSEPH Universal soldier
C101 NISHAHANS The planets
(viii) DTITLE
A day in life

Question 6.
(a) State DeMorgan’s Laws of Boolean Algebra and verify them using truth table.
(b) Draw the Logic Circuit of the following Boolean Expression using only NOR Gate :
(A+B) . (C+D)
(c) Derive a Canonical POS expression for a Boolean function G, represented by the following truth table

 X Y z G (X, Y, Z) 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 1

(d) Reduce the following Boolean Expression to its simplest form using K-Map :
E (U, V, Z, W) = X (2,3,6,8,9,10,11,12,13)

(a) (i) (A.B)’=A>+BI (ii) (A+B)’=A’.B’
Truth Table Verification:
(i)

 A B A.B (A.B)’ A’ B’ A’+B’ 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0

(ii)

 A B A+B (A+B)’ A’ B’ A.B’ 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0

(b)

(c) G(X,Y,Z)= (X+Y+Z).( X+Y+Z’).( X+Y’+Z’).(X’+Y’+Z)
OR
G(X,Y,Z)= TT (0,13,6)
(d)

E(u,yz,w)=uz’+v’z+u’zw’

Question 7.
(a) Differentiate between communication using Optical Fiber and Ethernet Cable in context of wired medium of communication technologies.
(b) Janish Khanna used a pen drive to copy files from his friend’s laptop to his office computer. Soon his
computer started abnormal functioning. Sometimes it would restart by itself and sometimes it would stop different applications running on it. Which of the following options out of (i) to (iv), would have caused the malfunctioning of the computer ? Justify the reason for your chosen option :
(i) Computer Virus
(ii) Spam Mail
(iii) Computer Bacteria
(iv) Trojan Horse
(c) Ms. Raveena Sen is an IT expert and a freelancer. She recently used her skills to access the Admin password for the network server of Super Dooper Technology Ltd. and provided confidential data of the organization to its CEO, informing him about the vulnerability of their network security. Out of the following options (i) to (iv), which one most appropriately defines Ms. Sen? 2
Justify the reason for your chosen option :
(i) Hacker
(ii) Cracker
(iii) Operator
(d) Hi Standard Tech Training Ltd. is a Mumbai based organization which is expanding its office set-up to Chennai. At Chennai office compound, they are planning to have 3 different blocks for Admin, Training and Accounts related activities. Each block has a number of computers, which are required to be connected in a network for communication, data and resource sharing.
As a network consultant, you have to suggest the best network related solutions for them for issues/problems raised by them in (i) to (iv), as per the distances between various blocks/locations and other given parameters.

Shortest distances between various blocks/locations :

 Admin Block to Accounts Block 300 Metres Accounts Block to Training Block 150 Metres Admin Block to Training Block 200 Metres MUMBAI Head Office to CHENNAI Office 1300 Km

Number of computers installed at various blocks are as follows :

 Training Block 150 AccountsBlock 30 Admin Block 40

(i) Suggest the most appropriate block/location to house the SERVER in the CHENNAI office (out of the 3blocks) to get the best and effective connectivity. Justify your answer.
(ii) Suggest the best wired medium and draw the cable layout (Block to Block) to efficiently connect various blocks within the CHENNAI office compound.
(iii) Suggest a device/software and its placement that would provide data security for the entire network of the CHENNAI office.
(iv) Suggest a device and the protocol that shall be needed to provide wireless Internet access to all smartphone/laptop users in the CHENNAI office.

(a) Optical Fibre:
Very Fast
Expensive
Immune to electromagnetic interference
Ethernet Cable:
Slower as compared to Optical Fiber
Less Expensive as compared to Optical Fiber
prone to electromagnetic interference
(b) (i) Computer Virus
OR
(iv) Trojan Horse
Justification:
Pen drive containing Computer Virus / Trojan Horse was used before the abnormal functioning started, which might have corrupted the system files.
Computer Virus/ Trojan Horse affects the system files and start abnormal functioning in the computer
(c) (i) Hacker
A Hacker is a person who breaks into the network of an organization without any malicious intent.
(d) (i) Training Block – Because it has maximum number of computers.
(ii) Best wired medium: Optical Fibre OR CAT5 OR CAT6 OR CAT7 OR CAT8 OR Ethernet Cable

(iii) Firewall – Placed with the server at the Training Block
OR
Any other valid device/software name
(iv) Device Name: WiFi Router OR WiMax OR RF Router OR Wireless Modem OR RF Transmitter
Protocol: WAP OR 802.16 OR TCP/IP OR VOIP OR MACP OR 802.11

## CBSE Class 9 Maths Lab Manual – Algebraic Identity (a – b)2 = a2 – 2ab + b2

Objective
To verify the identity (a – b)2 = (a2 – 2ab + b2) by paper cutting and pasting.

Prerequisite Knowledge

1. Area of a square = (side)2.
2. Area of a rectangle = l x b.

Materials Required
A white sheet of paper, glazed papers, a pair of scissors, geometry box, gluestick.

Procedure
Take two distinct values of a and b, say a=7 units and b = 3 units.

1. Draw a square I of side a (say 7 units) on the white sheet of paper, fill with red colour and name it as AHEI, fig. (i).
2. Find the value of a – b, i.e., 7 – 3 = 4 units.
3. Now, draw two rectangles II and III each having length (a – b), i.e., 7 – 3 = 4 units and breadth b = units, on a pink glazed paper,fig. (ii) .
4. Draw a square IV of side b = 3 units on a different glazed paper, say, blue, fig. (iii).

5. Now, cut rectangles II and III and square IV from glazed papers and paste them on white sheet of paper. Arrange all these pieces inside the square AHIE as shown in fig. (iv).

Observation
After pasting three strips, a red portion is left for measurement, i.e., (a – b) by (a – b) which is a square AH’E’I’.
Area of square AH’E’I’ = (a – b) (a – b) = (a – b)2 = 4 x 4 = 42 = 16 sq. units
Area of square AHEI = a2 = (7)2 = 49 sq. units
Or we can say that,
Area of square AH’E’I’ = Area of square AHEI – (Area of three pieces II, III and IV).
Now, area of two rectangles II and III = 2 x b(a – b) = 2 x 3 x 4 = 24 sq. units
Area of square IV = b2=(3)2 = 9 sq.units
Area of square AH’E’I’= a2 – [2ab – 2b2 + b2]
⇒ (a – b)2= a2 – 2ab + b2
= 49 – 2 x 7 x 3 + 9
= 49 – 42 + 9
= 16 sq. units

Result
Algebraic Identity (a – b)2 = a2 – 2ab + b2 is verified.

Learning Outcome
In this way, we can verify the identity (a – b)2 = a2 – 2ab + b2 geometrically.

Activity Time
By taking any other values of a and b, we can prove this identity.

Viva Voce

Question 1.
factorize: x2 – 2√2 x+2.
(x – √2)2

Question 2.
Is (x + $$\frac { 1 }{ x }$$)2 a trinomial or binomial ?
It is a trinomial.

Question 3.
What do you mean by a binomial ?
A polynomial having two terms is called a binomial

Question 4.
Factorize: x2 – 6x + 9.
(x – 3)2

Question 5.
Factorize: x2 – 10x + 25.
(x – 5)2

Question 6.
Write the product of (x – 3) (x – 3).
x2 + 9 – 6x.

Question 7.
Write the degree of polynomial 3x2 + 9x + 5.
2.

Question 8.
Whar is the coefficient of b2 in (4a – b)2 ?
(4a – b)2 = 16a2 + b2 – 8ab
∴ Coefficient of b2 is 1.

Question 9.
Write general quadratic polynomial.
ax2 + bx+ c, where a ≠ 0

Question 10.
Is 3x – $$\frac { 1 }{ x }$$ a polynomial ?
No.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Find the value of 9992 by using algebraic identity (a – b)2 = a2 + b2 – 2ab:
(i) 998001
(ii) 999999
(iii) 100001
(iv) none of these

Question 2.
Which identity will be used to find the value of 492 ?
(i) (x – y)2
(ii) x2 – y2
(iii) x3 – y3
(iv) none of these

Question 3.
Simplify (x – 3y)by using identity (a -b)2:
(i) x2 + 9y2 – 6xy
(ii) x – 3y
(iii) x2 + 9y2
(iv) none of these

Question 4.
For the algebraic expression, 9x2 – 6x + 1, write the dimensions of a square:
(i) (3x + 1)(3x – 1)
(ii) (3x – 1)(3x – 1)
(iiii) (3x + 1) (x)
(iv) none of these

Question 5.
Find the factors of x2 – 6xy + 9y2:
(i) (x + 3y)2
(ii) (3 – x)2
(iii) (x – 3y)2
(iv) none of these

Question 6.
What will be the area of a square of side (a – b)?
(i) (a – b)
(ii) (a – b)2
(iii) a2 – b2
(iv) none of these

Question 7.
If (a – b)2 = 16, a2 = 25 and 2ab = 10, then what wall be the values of a and b ?
(i) a = 5, b = 1
(ii) a = 2, b = 2
(iiii) a = 3, b = 4
(iv) none of these

Question 8.
Find the factors of 144 – 24y + y2:
(i) (12 + y)(12 – y)
(ii) (y – 12)(12 – y)
(iii) (12 – y)(12 – y)
(iv) none of these

Question 9.
Write the value of (x – 3y)2 + (x + 3y)2:
(i) x2+18y2
(ii) x2 + 3y2
(iii) 2x2+18y2
(iv) none of these

Question 10.
If we subtract b2 from (a – b)2, what will be the result?
(i) a2 – 2ab
(ii) a2 + 2ab
(iii) b2
(iv) none of these

1. (i)
2. (i)
3. (i)
4. (ii)
5. (iii)
6. (ii)
7. (i)
8. (iii)
9. (iii)
10. (i)

## CBSE Previous Year Solved  Papers Class 12 Maths Outside Delhi 2012

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                          Maximum Marks : 100
General Instructions:

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Please check that this question paper contains 26 questions.
3. Questions 1-6 in Section A are very short-answer type questions carrying 1 mark each.
4. Questions 7-19 in Section B are long-answer I type questions carrying 4 marks each.
5. Questions 20-26 in Section C are long-answer II type questions carrying 6 marks each.
6. Please write down the serial number of the question before attempting it.

### SET I

SECTION – A

SECTION – B

16. A ladder 5 m long is leaning against a wall. The bottom of the ladder is pulled along the ground, away from the wall, at the rate of 2 cm/s. How fast is its height on the wall decreasing when the foot of the ladder is 4 m away from the wall? [4]
Solution: Let AC = 5 m be the ladder and y be the height of the wall at which the ladder touches. Also, let the foot of the ladder be at C whose distance from the wall is x m It is given that

18. Form the differential equation of the family of circles in the second quadrant and touching the coordinate axes.[4]
Solution: The equation of circle in second quadrant which touches the coordinate axis is

21. Find the coordinates of the point where the line through the points A = (3,4,1) and B = (5,1,6) crosses the XY- plane. [4]

22. Two cards are drawn simultaneously (without replacement) from a well-shuffled pack of 52 cards. Find the mean and variance of the number of red cards. [4]

SECTION – C

24. Prove that the radius of the right circular cylinder of greatest curved surface area which can be inscribed in a given cone is half of that of the cone. [6]

28. Suppose a girl throws a die. If she gets a 5 or 6, she tosses a coin 3 times and notes the number of heads. If she gets 1, 2, 3 or 4 she tosses a coin once and notes whether a head or tail is obtained. If she obtained exactly one head, what is the probability that she threw 1,2,3 or 4 with the die ? [6]

29. A dietician wishes to mix two types of foods in such a way that the vitamin contents of the mixture contains at least 8 units of vitamin A and 10 units of vitamin C. Food I contains 2 unit/kg of vitamin A and 1 unit /kg of vitamin C while Food II contains 1 unit/kg of vitamin A and 2 unit/kg of vitamin 1 unit/kg of vitamin C. It costs Rs 5 per kg to purchase food I and Rs 7 per kg to purchase Food II. Determine the minimum cost of such a mixture. Formulate the above as a LPP and solve it graphically.[6]

### SET II

Note: Except for the following questions, All the remaining questions have been asked in previous Set.

SECTION – A

SECTION – B

22. Find the coordinates of the point where the line through the point (3, – 4, – 5) and (2, – 3,1) crosses the plane 2x + y + z = 7. [4]

SECTION – C

29. Find the length and the foot of the perpendicular from the point P (7,14,5) to the plane 2x + 4y – z = 2. Also find the image of point P in the plane. [6]

### SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, All the remaining questions have been asked in previous Sets.

SECTION — A

SECTION – B

20. Find the coordinates of the point where the line through the points (3, -4,-5) and (2, – 3,1) crosses the plane 3x + 2y + z +14 = 0. [4]

SECTION – C

29. Using matrices, solve the following system of equations; 3x + 4y + 7z = 4; 2x – y + 3z = – 3; x + 2y – 3z = 8 [6]

## Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 15

[Time Allowed : 3 hrs.]                                                                                              [Maximum Marks] : 100

General Instruction:

1. All Questions are compulsory.
2. Question numbers 1-5 are of 1 mark each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 20 words each.
3. Question numbers 6-10 are of 2 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 40 words each.
4. Question numbers 11-16 are of 4 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
5. Question numbers 17-21 are of 5 marks each. The answers to this question should not exceed 150 words.
6. Question numbers 22-27 are of 6 marks each. The answers to this question should not exceed 150 words.

Question.1. Why do we need international organizations like the UNO ?
Answer. We need International Organizations like the UNC to prevent international conflicts to maintain international peace and security and to cooperate in solving international economic, social, cultural and humanitarian problems.

Question.2. Mention any two member nations of SAARC.
Answer. SAARC was established in 1985. There are seven countries in the South Asian region which combine to form SAARC— India, Pakistan, Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Maldives.

Question.3. What does security relate to ?
Answer. Security relates to freedom from threats, whether external or internal. It is an essence for the existence of human life.

Question.4. Why did the senior Congress leaders support Indira Gandhi as Prime Minister of India in 1966 ?
Answer. The senior Congress leaders supported Indira Gandhi feeling that her administrative and political inexperience would compel her to be dependent on them.

Question.5. What was the most important recommendation of the States Reorganisation Commission ?
Answer. The creation of states could be on the basis of languages spoken by the people. The language of the majority people was taken into consideration.

Question.6. Why did the United States of America launch a war against Iraq ?
Answer. Operation Iraqi Freedom ty/as the code name given by the US when it launched invasion of Iraq on 19th March, 2003. More than forty countries joined in the US-led ‘Coalition of the Willing’ after the UN refused to give its mandate to the invasion.
Aims and Objectives:
(i) The main purpose of the invasion was to prevent Iraq from developing weapons of Mass Destruction [WMD].
(ii) But this was an eyewash, because no evidence of WMD has been unearthed in Iraq, so it is being speculated all over the world that the invasion was motivated by other objectives such as, controlling Iraqi oil fields and installing a regime friendly to the US.

Question.7. Mention any two components of India’s security strategy.
Answer. (i) India tried to strengthen its military capabilities because it has been involved in conflicts with its neighbours and has fulfledged wars with Pakistan in 1947-48,1965,1971 and 1999 and with China in 1962.
(ii) Since it is surrounded by nuclear armed countries in the south Asian region, India’s decision to conduct Nuclear tests in 1998 was justified in terms of safeguarding national security.

Question.8. What is Reorganisation of States ? When did it take place ?
Answer. Reorganisation of States means redrawing boundaries of a state with the integration of princely states into the Indian Union. After the partition, many princely states like Kashmir, Hyderabad, Junagarh, Mysore, Wlanipur, etc. refused to join the Indian Union.
(i) The process of nation building was a difficult task and the Government appointed a State Reorganisation Commission in 1953. Its main aim was to draw internal boundaries.
(ii) On the basis of the report of this commission, States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956. As a result 14 states and 6 union territories were created, from among the princely states.

Question.9. What strategies were used by Narmada Bachao Aandolan to put forward its demands ?
Answer. Narmada Bachao Aandolan used every available democratic strategy to put forward its demands such as:
(i) Appeals to judiciary
(ii) Mobilization of support at the international level
(iii) Public rallies to support the movement
(iv) Satyagraha to convince people

Question.10. Explain the term separatism with reference to Kashmir.
Answer. Separatism means demanding separate/independent status from the parent body.
In Kashmir, separatist politics began in 1989 and is nowhere near an end. The Kashmir problem can be seen from the following three angles:
(i) Those who want a separate Kashmiri nation.
(ii) Those who want to merge with Pakistan.
(iii) Those who want greater autonomy for the people of the state within the Indian Union.

Question.11. Describe any two cultural consequences of globalization.
Answer. As far as cultural consequences are concerned, it would be a mistake to assume that cultural consequences of globalization are only negative. Actually culture is not static. All cultures accept outside influences all the time. Some external influences are negative because they reduce our choices.
But sometimes external influences simply enlarge our choices and sometimes they modify our culture without overwhelming the traditional norms. For example, a burger is no substitute for a masala dosa and therefore does not pose any real challenge. In the same way blue jeans can go well with a homespun khadi kurta. Here the outcome of outside influences is a new combination, that is unique. Globalization broadens our cultural outlook and promotes cultural homogenisation.
The cultural globalization leads to a fear that this process poses a threat to cultures in the world. The rise of a uniform culture is not the emergence of globalization or a global culture. What we have in the name of a global culture is the imposition of western culture on the rest of the world.
(i) The culture of the politically and economically dominant society leaves its imprint on a less powerful society and the world begins to look more like a dominant power wishes it to be.
(ii) This is dangerous not only for the poor countries but for the whole of humanity for it leads to the shrinking of the rich cultural heritage of the entire global.

Question.12. What does US hegemony mean in today’s world? Mention any two constraints that operate on the US hegemony.
Answer. The USA is the sole superpower since the disintegration of the Soviet Union in 1991.
(i) American military dominance today is both absolute and relative. In absolute terms, the US today has military capabilities that can target any point on the planet accurately.
(ii) The US hegemony is also reflected in the role played by it in providing global public goods.
Constraints on American Power:
(i) The institutional architecture of the American state itself, i.e., they follow a system of division of powers between the three organs of the government.
(ii) The open nature of American society and political culture, i.e., their mass media, may promote or impose a particular issue on domestic public opinion but never opposed regarding the purposes and methods of government in American political culture.
(iii) The most important constraint is that there is only one organisation i.e. NATO, in the international system that can moderate the exercise of American power today.

Question.13. How does political leadership of a nation affect its foreign policy ? Explain this with the help of examples from India’s foreign policy.
Answer. Foreign policy of any country is always dictated by ideas of national interest. So, to some extent, the change in political leadership of a nation affects its foreign policy as well. To prove it we can take India’s example.
In India the period starting from 1977 saw the emergence of Non-Congress governments, i.e. The Janata Party. The Janata Party government, which came to power in 1977, announced that it would follow genuine non-alignment. This implied that the pro-Soviet tilt in the foreign policy will be corrected. Since then, all governments (Congress or Non-Congress) have taken initiatives for restoring better relations with China and entering into close ties with the US.
(i) Moreover, in post-1990 period, the ruling parties have often been criticized for their
pro-US tilt. At the sametime, in the period after 1990, Russia, though it continues to be an important friend of India, has lost its global pre-eminence. Therefore, India’s foreign policy has shifted to become more pro-US.
(ii) Besides, the contemporary international situation is more influenced by economic interests than by military interests. This has also made an impact on India’s foreign policy choices. At the same time, Indo-Pakistan relations have witnessed many developments during this period.

Question.14. What is meant by ‘Global Commons’? Suggest two steps for the protection of Global Commons.
Answer. There are some areas or regions of the world which are located outside the sovereign jurisdiction of any one state. They need a common governance by the international
community. These are known as ‘Global Commons’ or ‘res communis humanitatis’. Global Commons include the earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica, the ocean floor, outer space and Arctic polar regions.
Two steps to protect Global Commons:
(i) Commercial exploitation should not be allowed.
(ii) Activities in these areas are restricted to scientific research.
(iii) The advanced countries should find environment friendly technologies to prevent environmental degradation.
(iv) NGOs and international organisations should come forward to work actively and to create awareness among the people.

Question.15. How far is it correct to say that coalition government in India has helped in arriving at some consensus ?
Answer. It is correct to say that coalition government in India has helped in arriving at some consensus. In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts, a consensus appears to have emerged among most parties.on many crucial issues. This consensus consists Of four elements.
(i) Agreement on new’economic policies: While many groups are opposed to the new economic policies, most parties believe that these policies would lead the country to prosperity and a status of economic power in the world.
(ii) Acceptance of the political and social claims of the backward castes: Political parties have recognised that the social and political claims of the backward castes need to be accepted. As a result all political parties now support reservation of seats for the backward classes in education and employment. Political parties are also willing to ensure that the OBCs get adequate share of power.
(iii) Acceptance of the role of state level parties in governance of the country : The
distinction between the state level and the national level parties is fast becoming less important.
(i v) Emphasis on pragmatic considerations rather than ideological positions and political alliances without ideological agreement: Coalition politics has shifted the focus of political parties from ideological differences to power politics.

Question.16. What does the term Syndicate mean in the context of the Congress Party of the sixties ? What role did the syndicate play in the Congress party ?
Answer. Syndicate was the informal name given to a group of Congress leaders within the Congress who were in control of the party’s organisation.
(i) It was led by K. Kamraj, former Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu and the then President of
the Congress Party. It included powerful state leaders like S.K. Patil, S. Nijalingappa, N. Sanjeeva Reddy and Atulaya Ghosh. –
(ii) In the sixties, the syndicate played a decisive role in the installation of both Lai Bahadur Shastri and Indira Gandhi as the Prime Ministers.
(iii) This group had a decisive say in Indira Gandhi’s first Council of Ministers and also in policy formulation and its implementation.
(iv) But after the Congress split, the leaders of the syndicate and those owing allegiance to them stayed with the Congress (0) and a group led by Indira Gandhi formed Congress (R).

Question.17. Read the following passage and answer the questions below:
“Patel, the organisational man of the Congress, wanted to purge the Congress of other political groups and sought to make of it a cohesive and disciplined political party. He … sought to take the Congress away from its all-embracing character and turn it into a close-knit party of disciplined cadres. Being a ‘realist’ he looked more for discipline than for comprehension. While Gandhi took too romantic a view of “carrying on the movement,” Patel’s idea of transforming the Congress into strictly political party with a single ideology and tight discipline showed an equal lack of understanding of the eclectic role that the Congress, as a government, was to be called upon to perform in the decades to follow.”
(a) Why does the author think that Congress should not have been a cohesive and disciplined party ?
(b) Give some examples of the eclectic role of the Congress party in the early years.
(c) Why does the author say that Gandhi’s view about Congress future was romantic ?
Answer. (a) The author thinks that Congress should not have been a cohesive and disciplined party
because he wanted to take the Congress away from its all embracing character and turn it into a close-knit party of disciplined cadres.
(b) There are some examples of the “Electic role” of the Congress party in the early years.
(i) The Congress party provided a ‘Platform’ for numerous groups, interests and even political parties to take part in the national movement.
(ii) The Congress party also presented a “Rainbow-like social coalition” broadly representing India’s diversity in terms of class and castes, religions and languages and various interests.
(c) . The author says that Gandhiji’s view about Congress future was romantic because
Gandhiji believed in the inclusive character of the National Movement led by the Congress, which in turn enabled it to attract different sections, groups and interests.
And all these made the Congress a “broad based social and ideological coalition”.

Question.18. “If Bharatiya Jana Sangh or the Communist party of India had formed the government after the first election, in which respects would the policies of the government have been different. Specify three differences each for both the parties.
Answer. If Bharatiya Jana Sangh or the Communist Party of India had formed the government after the first election, the policies of government may have been different in following ways:
(i) For Bharatiya Jarfa Sangh the policies were based on
(a) One country, one culture and one nation replacing secular concept.
(b) India would have reunited with Pakistan under the concept of Akhand Bharat.
(c) No cultural and educational rights as the Bharatiya Jan Sangh opposed the granting of concessions to religious and cultural minorities.
(ii) • For Communist Party the government policy directed towards the system of proportional representation.
• Control on the electronic mass media by an autonomous body or corporation.
• Government would follow the communist ideology on broad policy matters.

Question.19. Here are two opinions—
Bismay : “The merger with the Indian State was an extension of democracy to the people of the Princely States.”
Inderpreet : “I am not so sure, there was force being used. Democracy comes by creating consensus.”
What is your own opinion in the light of accession of Princely States and the responses of the people in these parts ?
Answer. In our opinion the accession of princely states and merger with Indian Union was an extension of democracy to the people of the princely states because people of the princely states never enjoyed political rights and struggled for democratic set-up.
To some extent central government used force to extend democracy.

Question.20. Look at the Cartoon given above and answer the following question:

A cartoonist’s reading of Charan Singh’s attempt to build a United Front of non-communist parties in 1974.
(i) What is meant by “Keep Right, no left turn” ?
(ii) Mention the full form of the follgwing;
(a) BKD.
(b) SSP
(c) BKS
Answer. (i) ‘Keep Right, no Left Turn’ signifies that the United Front party by Charan Singh is ‘ formed on the basis of non-communist ideology and expected to follow rightist only. The term ‘Right’ refers to ‘non-communists’ and ‘Left’ refer to “Communist Party”.
(ii) (a) BKD— Bhartiya Kranti Dal
(b) SSP— Samyukta Socialist Party .
(c) BKS— Bihar Kranti Sabha

Question.21. In the given political map of India identify the Princely states and write about any two states how they integrated with India.

Answer. The Princely states at the time of Independence were :
1. Jammu and Kashmir 2. Rajputana
3. Gwalior 4. Gujarat
5. States of Western India 6. Baroda
7. Hyderabad 8. Mysore
9. Khasi states 10. Manipur
11. Tripura 12. Cooch Behar.
It was the largest princely state which covers today parts of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
The ruler carried the title ‘Nizam’ who wanted an independent status for Hyderabad. In the meantime, a popular movement was launched against Nizam’s rule. It was joined by Peasants in Telengana, women, the communists and the Hyderabad Congress.
The Nizam responded by sending a para-military force (Razakars) to terrorise the people. They brutally attacked the people, murdered, raped, looted and targetted the non-Muslims. To tackle the situation the central government sent the army in September 1948 and after a few days the Nizam surrendered and finally Hydrabad integrated with India.
Manipur:
A few days before Independence, the Maharaja of Manipur (Bodachandra Singh) signed an agreement called “Instrument of*Accession” with the Indian government. It ensured that the internal autonomy of Manipur would be maintained.
In June 1948 an election was held and Manipur became the first constitutional monarchy. The state Congress wanted to merge with India but other political parties opposed. Later the Govt, of India succeeded and the Maharaja signed “Merger Agreement” in 1949. This caused a lot of problems and resentment in Manipur.

Question.22. “The Cold War produced an arms race as well as arms control.” What were the reasons for both these developments ?
Or
Write an essay for or against the following proposition, “With the disintegration of the Second World, India should change its foreign policy and focus more on Friendship with the US rather than with traditional friends like Russia.”
Answer. The Cold War was an outcome of the emergence of the US and the USSR as two superpowers who were rival to each other. They were keen on expanding their spheres of influence in different parts of the world. Hence, the world was sharply divided between the two alliance systems.
Arms Race and use of Military Power: In some cases, the superpowers used their military power to bring countries into their respective alliances. Thus, their mutual rivalry and suspicions led them to arm themselves to the teeth and to constantly prepare for war. Huge stocks of arms were considered necessary to prevent wars from taking place. This is also known as ‘arms race.’ .
Cold War led to several shooting wars like Korean crisis, Berlin crisis, Congo crisis, etc. All these made the superpowers realise that war by all means should be avoided because in the event of a nuclear war both sides will be so badly harmed that it will be impossible to declare one side as the winner.
Arms control: The US and the USSR decided to collaborate In limiting or eliminating certain kindsof nuclear and non-nuclear weapons. A stable balance of weapons, they decided, could be maintained through “arms control”, s The two sides signed three significant agreements within a decade.

1. Limited Test Ban Treaty
2.  Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
3.  The Anti-Ballistic Missile Treaty
Thereafter, the superpowers held several rounds of talks on arms limitation and signed several treaties to limit their arms.
All these show that the Cold War produced an arms race as well as arms control.

Or
No, India should not change its foreign policy and focus more on friendship with the US, but, India should maintain a healthy relationship with Russia because Indo-Russian relations are embedded in a history of trust and common interests and are matched by popular perceptions.

1.  Common view on the multipolar world order: Russia and India share a vision of multipolar world order. For both these countries a multipolar world order is the co-existence of several powers in the international system, collective security, greater
regionalism, negotiated settlements of international conflicts, an independent foreign policy for all countries and decision making through bodies like the UN that should be strengthened, democratised and empowered.
2. India’s stand towards Russia : India gets meaningful benefits for having healthy relations with Russia on the issues like Kashmir, energy supplies, sharing information on international terrorism, access to central Asia and balancing its relation with China.
3.  Russia’s stand towards India: Like India, Russia stands to benefit from this relationship because India is the second largest arms market for Russia.
(a) Besides, Indian military gets most of its hardware from Russia. Since India is an oil importing nation, Russia is important to India and has repeatedly come to the assistance of India during its oil crisis.
(b) In order to meet the demands of energy, India is trying to increase it energy imports from Russia and the republics of Kazakhistan and Turkmenistan. This has also broadened the scope for partnership and investment in oilfields.
(c) India has also strengthened its relation with Russia for its nuclear energy plans and space industry. India gets the cryogenic rocket from Russia whenever needed.
Thus, we may safely conclude that India has maintained good relations with all the post-communist countries but the strongest relations are still those between Russia and India.

Question.23. Critically evaluate the impact of the changing role of the state in the developing countries in the light of Globalization.
Or
“Pursuing economic development without causing further damage to the global environment is a major challenge before the States.” Suggest any three measures to overcome this problem.
Answer. The changing role of the state has its mixed impact in the light of globalization which can be analysed in the following manner.
• At its simple level, globalization results in an erosion of state capacity, that is, the ability of governments to do what they do.
• All over the world, thg old welfare state is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions such as the maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens. In another way it withdraws from many of its earlier welfare functions directed at economic and sociakwell-being.
• In place of the welfare state, it is the market that becomes the prime determinant of economic and social priorities.
• The entry and the increased role of multinational companies all over the world leads to
a reduction in the capacity of governments to take decisions on their own. ‘
But at the same time globalization does not always reduce state capacity. The primacy of the state continues to be an unchallenged basis of political community.
• The old jealousies and rivalries between countries have not ceased to matter in world politics.
Above all, to some extent, developing countries have received a boost as a consequence of globalization and have become more powerful than they were earlier as an outcome of the new technology.
Or
Pursuing economic development without damaging global environment: In recent times the concept of sustainable development is widely spoken of. It means that the development should be at a faster rate without affecting the environment and also of keeping in view the needs of future generations. It i§ to be kept in mind that pursuit of economic development should not affect the global environment. Some of these measures can be as follows:

1.  Use of non-conventional resources such as water, wind, solar and natural gas could help to have clean environment. All public vehicles should use such fuels and the private individuals should also try to use clean fuels.
2. Conventional sources like coal and petroleum are limited and cause damage to environment in the form of air pollution. This can be checked by changing to renewable resources, e.g. CNG has reduced the level of pollution in Delhi.
3.  We should use environmentally sound technology which would help both development as well as to have clean environment, e.g. the new construction of buildings should be accompanied by natural parks and rainwater harvesting system.
4.  The harmful gases (greenhouse emissions) should be reduced because these increase the temperature which leads to global warming. It is believed that the developed nations should take the responsibility of increasing greenhouse gases (due to their large scale industrial activities).
5. Afforestation should be increased because it helps to grow more trees at all possible levels. The forest policy should cover this as main motive which would help both economic and environmental aspects.
6.  The government laws should be very strict in handling environment issues, e.g. there should be a ban on forest clearing and any activity which is related to deforestation. There should be a well planned system for the location of industries and the industrial waste should be disposed off in a safe process/method.

Question.24. How was the ‘one party dominant system’ in India different from similar systems elsewhere? Did the dominance of one party mean that India was not really a democracy? Give reasons to support your answer.
Or
What was the green revolution? Which areas did it affect the most? Mention two positive and two negative consequences of the green revolution.
Answer. (a) ‘One party dominant system’ means that a single party enjoys monopoly of power over a long period of time and exclusion of other parties to reach power. In mexico PRI dominated the political system. The elections were after rigged and manipulated by the really party. But in India elections were based on fair competition among political parties.
(b) No. The dominance of one party did not mean that India was not really a democracy. Even though Congress was a dominant party for more than two decades, the Indian political system is still democratic because of the following reasons:

1. Open nature of the Indian political system, i.e., existence of multi-party system.
2.  At the time of independence, there was no strong political party except the Congress.
3.  The role of Congress during our freedom struggle could be remembered and people cast votes as their tribute to the Congress leaders.
4.  The regional parties gained importance at national level and multi-party system had come into the picture in 1989.
5. The advancement in the electoral system (electronic voting machine,’ common platform for political agenda) strengthened the democratic pattern.
6.  Active participation of women and improvement in Panchayat Raj system and its success make Indian political system democratic.

Or
The term ‘green revolution’ refers to the new methods adopted by the government in agriculture in order to increase foodgrain production during 1960s.
The modern method includes the use of high yielding variety of seeds, use of fertilizers and pesticides, better irrigation methods, use of modern tools, highly subsidized prices, etc.
Positive aspects of green revolution :

1.  The region, where it was introduced like Punjab, Haryana and Western U.P., became prosperous.
2.  The middle class peasants benefitted from the fruit of green revolution.
3. Modern technology was used by peasants in maximum areas of cultivation.
4. It led to easy availability of latest technology, good equipment, loans, other facilities like Crop Insurance Scheme, etc.
5. The food grain production increased manifold and food security was ensured.
6.  Many new varieties of food grains, adaptable to our climatic conditions, increased the net sown area’.

Negative aspects of green revolution :

1.  It increased polarisation between classes and regions. Some regions of North and Northwestern India like Punjab and Haryana became prosperous while rest of India remained backward.
2. For small farmers it is still a dream because it requires large areas and investment for cultivation.
3.  Some of the traditional varieties of food grains lost their importance.
4.  There was a sharp contrast between the rich and the poor farmers.
5.  The left wing organisations used the poor peasants as their vote banks.
6. The illiterate peasants could not understand the system behind the green revolution.

Question.25. Describe briefly the composition and any four functions of the Planning Commission of India.
Or
“Indian policy makers made a mistake by emphasising the role of state in the economy. India could have developed much better if private sector was allowed a free play right from the beginning.” Give arguments for or against this proposition.
Answer. The Planning Commission of India was set up in 1950 by a cabinet resolution and not by a law of parliament. It is an extra-constitutional body. It does not have statutory or constitutional status.

1.  It is supposed to be ‘advisory’ in nature but in reality it is very powerful and is called the ‘Economic Cabinet of the Country’.
2.  The Planning Commission has an advisory role and its recommendations become effective after the approval of the Union Cabinet.
3.  The Planning Commission prepares a document that has a plan for the income and expenditure of the government for the five years plans.
4.  The Planning Commission prepares the plan in such a way that each citizen has a right to an adequate means of livelihood.
5.  also ensures that the operations of the economic system do not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

Or
No, the above mentioned statement is not fully true and proved the mistake of our policy makers, because the role of state in the Indian economy was very much required to regulate our economy immediately after independence. Later on, when our economy got stabilised and regulated, the Indian policy makers introduced New Economic Policy as well in 1991 to liberalise our economy.
In the beginning India did not follow any of the two known paths— it did not accept the capitalist model of development in which development was left entirely to the private sector, nor did it follow the socialist model in which private property was abolished and all the production was controlled by the state.
But the elements from both these models were taken together in India which came to be known as “Mixed Economy”.
This concept of Mixed Economy was open to criticism both from the left and the right.
Arguments against the state control:

1. Critics argued that planners refused to provide the private sector with enough space and stimulus to grow.
2.  According to them, the enlarged public sector created enough hurdles for private capital, in the way of installing systems of licenses and permits for investment.
3.  The state controlled more things than were necessary and this led to inefficiency and corruption.

Arguments in favour of the state control:

1. There were critics who thought that the state did not do enough. It intervened only in those areas where the private sector was not prepared to go. Thus the state helped the private sector to make profit.
2. Also, instead of helping the poor, the state intervention ended up creating a new middle class that enjoyed the privileges of high salaries without much accountablity.
Thus, we can safely say the roll of state in Indian Economy was beneficial in the early years both for the public as well as the private sector. And this led India towards development.

Question.26. Explain the presidential Election of 1969 and its significance in Indian Politics.
Or
Explain the relationship between economic development and environment.
Answer. The Presidential election of 1969 was very much significant in Indian politics.

1.  It revealed the factional rivalry between the syndicate and Indira Gandhi.
2.  Actually after the death of then President Dr. Zakir Hussain, despite Mrs. Gandhi’s reservations, the ‘syndicate’ managed to nominate her longtime opponent N. Sanjeeva Reddy (then Speaker of the Lok Sabha) for the ensuing Presidential elections.
3.  In retaliation Mrs. Indira Gandhi encouraged the then Vice President V.V. Giri to file his nomination as an independent candidate.
4. In support of her cause she announced several big and popular policy measures like nationalisation of fourteen leading private banks and the abolition of the Privy Purse.
5.  Those two issues brought differences between Morarji Desai and the then Prime Minister Mrs. Indira Gandhi. Ultimately Morarji Desai left the government.
6.  Regarding election the then Congress President, S. Nijalingappa issued a ‘whip’ asking all the Congress MPs and MLAs to vote in favour of N.Sanjeeva Reddy.
7.  On the other hand, Prime Minister openly called for ‘a conscience vote’ and election of 1969 ultimately resulted in the victory of V.V. Giri, the independent candidate and the defeat of Sanjeeva Reddy.
8.  Finally the defeat of the official Congress candidate formalised the split in the party like old Congress led by Mrs. Indira Gandhi.

Or
In recent times the concept of sustainable development is widely spoken about. It means that the development should be at a faster rate without affecting the environment and also keeping in view the needs of future generations. It is to be kept in mind that pursuit of economic development should not affect global environment.
Some of these measures can be as follows:

1.  Use of non-conventional resources such as water, wind, solar and natural gas could help to have clean environment. All public vehicles should use such fuels and the private individuals should also try to use clean fuels.
2. Conventional sources like coal and petroleum are limited and cause damage to environment in the form of air pollution. These can be replaced by changing to renewable resources, e.g. CNG has reduced the level of pollution in Delhi.
3.  We should use environmentally sound technology which would help both development as well as to have clean environment, e.g., the new construction of buildings should be accompanied by natural parks and rainwater harvesting system.
4. The harmful gases (Greenhouse Emissions) should be reduced because these increase the temperature which leads to global warming. It is believed that the developed nations should take the responsibility of increasing greenhouse gases (due to their large scale industrial activities).
5.  Afforestation should be increased because it helps to grow more trees at all possible levels. The forest policy should cover this as the main motive which would help both in economic and environmental aspects.
6.  The government laws4should be very strict in handling environment issues, e.g., there
should be a ban on forest clearing and any activity which is related to deforestation. There should be a well planned system and the industrial waste should be disposed off in a judicious manner.

Question.27. Analyse any three lessons that were learnt from the Emergency declared in India on 25th June, 1975.
Or
Explain any three major outcomes of Lok Sabha elections of 1977.
Answer. Emergency was imposed on 25th June, 1975 for the first time in India by Indira Gandhi.
There were different views on emergency. Some supported the Congress and said that it was necessary to control the internal disturbances and mentioned the unity of nation. Some criticised the emergency as being against the basic concept of democracy.

1. Even after such criticism, it is to be noticed that normal democratic functioning was resumed within a short period of time. Therefore, one lesson of emergency is that it is extremely difficult to do away with democracy in India.
2.  The second lesson, we derived from emergency, is that it brought out some differences and questions regarding the emergency provision in the Constitution that has been rectified since then. For example: When emergency was declared it did not get the approval of the cabinet and now the Constitution clearly states that ‘internal’ Emergency can be proclaimed only on the grounds of ‘armed rebellion’ and it is necessary that the advice to the President to proclaim emergency must be given in writing by the Council of Ministers.
3. The third lesson was that the emergency made everyone more aware of the value of civil liberties. The courts too, have taken an active role after the emergency in protecting the civil liberties of the individuals.

Or
Major outcomes of the 1977 Lok Sabha elections:
After 18 months of emergency, elections were held in March 1977. For the first time the Congress lost the election and could manage to win only 154 seats in the Lok Sabha. Its share of popular votes fell to less chan 35%. The Janata Party and its allies won 330 out of 542 seats. The Congress lost from every constituency in Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Delhi and Haryana. It was a very high blow to the Congress. It could win only one seat each in Rajasthan and Madhaya Pradesh. Indira Gandhi was defeated from Rai Bareli, as was her son Sanjay Gandhi from Amethi. *
The Janata Party was formed out of a combination of parties. The leadership of Jayaprakash Narayan was accepted. Under the leadership of Jagjivan Ram, some Congress leaders formed the Congress for Democracy which later merged with the Janata Party. The Janata Party called this election as a referendum on emergency.
It was the time for the opposition party to realise that if non-Congress votes were not divided, they could form the government and enjoy the power. Thus, it indicated the tough time ahead for the Congress.

## CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Foreign – 2014

Time Allowed: 3 Hours                                                                                          Maximum Marks: 100
General Instructions:

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Question Numbers 1 to 10 are of one mark each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 20 words each.
3.  Question Numbers 11 to 20 are of two marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 40 words each.
4. Question Numbers 21 to 30 are of four marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
5. Question Numbers 31 to 35 are of six marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 150 words each.
6. Question Number 35 is based on the map. Write the answer in your Answer-Book.

### SET -I

Question.1.What does ASEAN stand for? 1
Question.2.Mention any two features of the Constitution of Bangladesh.1
Question.3.Name an international Non-government organisation (NGO) that campaigns for the protection of Human Rights. 1
Question.4.Which is the greatest danger to a country as per the traditional notion of security? 1
Question.5.Name any two Princely States that resisted their merger with the Indian Union. 1
Question.6.In which year was the Election Commission of India set up and who was the first Chief Election Commissioner? 1
Question.7.In 1966, who contested against Indira Gandhi for the post of Prime Minister from among the Congress MPs? 1
Question.8.In January 1974, students of Gujarat started an agitation against which two major problems? 1
Question.9.Highlight the main objective of ‘Chipko Movement’. 1
Question.10.Who were the signatories of the Punjab Accord of 1985? 1
Question.11.Which two power-blocs emerged after the Second World War? Name any one country each that sided the two power-blocs. 1+1=2
Question.12.Which two factors compelled Gorbachev to initiate reforms in the USSR? 2×1=2
Question.13.What is meant by the ‘Vision-2020’ of ASEAN? 2
Question.14.“The United Nation was not created to take humanity to heaven, but to save it from hell.” Who made this statement and what post was he/she holding? 1+1=2
Question.15.Mention any two arms control treaties signed by the United States of America and the Soviet Union. 2×1=2
Question.16.State any two features of the ideology of the Swatantra Party. 2×1=2
Question.17.Highlight the two areas on which the First Five Year Plan was focussed. 2×1=2
Question.18. Mention any two Directive Principles of State Policy for the promotion of international peace and security. 2×1=2
Question.19. Which two main issues were addressed by the Dalit Panthers? 2×1=2
Question.20. State any two major political happenings of 1984 in India. 2×1=2
Question.21. When and where was the first Non-aligned Summit held? Explain any three factors which promoted this summit. 1+3=4
Question.22. Study the cartoon given below and answer the questions that follow: 1+1+2=4

(i) Why has the cycle been used to depcit China?
(ii) What do the two wheels of the cycle depict?
(iii) What message does the cartoon convey about the Chinese economy?
Question.23. Explain the hegemony of the US as a hard power.4
Question.24. Describe any four issues of conflict between-India and China. 4
Question.25. Explain the criteria proposed for the new permanent and non-permanent members of the Security Council to reform the United Nations. 4×1=4
Question.26. Describe any four steps taken by India to improve the environment. 4×1=4
Question.27. What is ‘Green Revolution’? Highlight any two of its effects: 2+2=4
Question.28. Explain any four important features of India’s Nuclear Policy. 4
Question.29. Assess any two major steps taken by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi before the General Elections of 1971 for alleviation of poverty. 2+2=4
Question.30. In the given political outline map of India, four places have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify them on the basis of information given below and write their correct names in yoyr answer-book with their respective serial numbers and the alphabet concerned : 4×1=4
(i) The State associated with the Golden Temple.
(ii) The State where Dalit Panthers organisation was active.
(iii) The name of this state comprises of the names of its two regions.
(iv) The State where the first democratic elections to its Assembly were held in 1974.

Question.31. “The shock therapy administered in the 1990s did not lead the people into the promised utopia of mass consumption.” Justify the statement with any three suitable arguments. 3×2=6
Or
“The Cold War produced an arm race as well as arms control”. Justify the statement with any three suitable arguments. 3×2=6
Question.32. Explain any three environmental concerns in global politics. 3×2=6
Or
Explain any three economic consequences of globalisation. 3×2=6
Question.33. Why was Congress considered as a social and ideological coalition in pre-independence days? Explain. 6
Or
Explain any three consequences of partition in India. 3×2=6
Question.34. Describe any three reasons which led to imposition of emergency in 1975. 6
Or
Describe the various aspects.of Presidential election of 1969. 6
Question.35. Study the passage given below and answer the questions that follow : 6
Thus, with the elections of 1989, a long phase of coalition politics began in India. Since then, there have been nine governments at the Centre, all of which have either been coalition governments or minority governments supported by other parties, which did not join the government. In this new phase, any government could be formed only with the participation or support of many regional parties. This applied to the National Front in 1989, the United Front in 1996 and 1997, the NDA in 1997, BJP-led coalition in 1998, NDA in 1999 and the UPA in 2004.
(i) What is meant by coalition politics?
(ii) Name any two regional political parties which were a part of coalition government at one stage or the other.
(iii) Write the full form NDA.
(iv) What does a minority government mean? Explain.
Or
Study the passage given below and answer the questions that follow : 6
Movements are not only about collective assertions or only about rallies and protests. They involve a gradual process of coming together of people with similar problems, similar demand and similar expectations. But then movements are also about making people aware of their rights and the expectations that they can have from democratic institutions. Social movements in India have been involved in these educative tasks for a long time and have thus contributed to expansion of democracy rather than causing disruptions.
(i) What is the importance of popular movements in democracy?
(ii) How do the popular movements help the government?
(iii) Which organisation formed the National Council for People’s Right to Information?
(iv) What factors make the people come together in a particular movement?

### SET – II

Question.1. What does the circle of tile gold stars in the European Union flag stand for? 1
Question.3. State the main function of the World Bank. 1
Question.6. How many Princely States existed at the time of Independence of India? 1
Question.8. What was the slogan of Indira Gandhi during the elections of 1971? 1
Question.11. What is meant by Cold War? 2
Question.13. How does the European Union influence the U.N. Security Council? 2
Question.17. What is meant by ‘hegemony’? 2
Question.19. Mention any two demands of the Chipko Movement. 2×1=2
Question.23. Explain any two constraints on the American power. 2×2=4
Question.26. “Globalisation is a multidimensional concept.” Justify the statement. 4
Question.29. Explain any four reasons for the restoration of Congress after the elections of 1971.
Question.31. Assess any three consequences of Shock Therapy. 3×2=6
Or
Evaluate the role of India during the Cold War on the basis of its any three policies. 3×2=6

### SET – III

Question.1. Which two terms of the US President, are popularly known as the ‘Clinton Years’. 1
Question.3. What is the full form of I.A.E.A? When was it established? 1
Question.6. What change was brought in the ballot paper after the first two General Elections in India? 1
Question.8. What is meant by Naxalite Movement? 1
Question.11. At the time of Cuban Klissile Crisis, Cuba was allied to which superpower and why? 1+1=2
Question.13.Explain any two points of special relations between India and Nepal. 2×1=2
Question.17. What assurance did the Maharaja of Manipur want before signing the Instrument of Accession? What pressurised the Maharaja to hold elections in June, 1948? 1+1=2
Question.26. Define ‘indigenous populations’ and highlight any two problems of such people. 2+2=4
Question.29.Explain any two reasons which led to mid-term elections in 1980. 2×2=4
Question.34. Analyse any three causes of disintegration of the USSR. 3×2=6
Or
Assess any three consequences of Cold War. 3×2=6