Category: CBSE

Get ready to embark on an enlightening expedition through the annals of human resource, where the echoes of human potential resonate with the spirit of inclusive development. Together, we’ll explore the profound insights of “Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Human Resource” and gain a deeper appreciation for the transformative power of human capital in shaping our world. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science .

Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Human Resource

Human Resource Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 6 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What does the population pyramid tells about dependents of a country?
Answer:
Population pyramid tells us how many dependents are there in a country. There are two dependents – young and elderly dependents.

Question 2.
What could be an interesting way of studying the population composition of a country?
Answer:
An interesting way of studying the population composition of a country is by looking at the population pyramid, also called an age-sex pyramid.

Question 3.
How crowded a country is, has little to do with its level of economic development. Give example to show its validity?
Answer:
For example, both Bangladesh and Japan are very densely populated but Japan is far more economically developed than Bangladesh. This is the perfect example for the above’s validity.

Question 4.
Define immigration.
Answer:
When a person enters a new country it is termed as immigration.

Question 5.
What does Emigrations mean?
Answer:
Emigration means when a person leaves a country.

Question 6.
What is the general trend of international migration?
Answer:
The general trend of international migration is from the less developed nations to the more developed nations in search of better employment opportunities.

Question 7.
Who are the Emigrants?
Answer:
The emigrants are the people who leave a country.

Question 8.
What is the meaning of population Density?
Answer:
Population density is the number of people living in a unit area of the earth’s surface.

Question 9.
Which is the ultimate resource?
Answer:
Human Resource.

Question 10.
Which of the two continents are there in which almost 3 quarters of world’s people live?
Answer:
Asia and Africa.

Question 11.
What does industrial area provide?
Answer:
It provides employment opportunities.

Question 12.
What is the most preferrable topography for humans?
Answer:
Plains

Question 13.
Which area of the world has sparse population when it comes to water availability?
Answer:
Deserts.

Question 14.
What led the people to settle in South Africa.
Answer:
Diamond mines of South Africa.

Question 15.
In which year the world’s population reached 3 billion?
Answer:
In 1959.

Question 16.
What was the world’s population in 1804?
Answer:
The world’s population reached one billion.

Question 17.
Why is the population growth slow in the countries like United Kingdom?
Answer:
Because of both low death and low birth rates.

Human Resource Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 6 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What is meant by the term population density and what is the average density of population in whole world and in India?
Answer:
Population density is the number of people living in a unit area of the earth’s surface. It is normally expressed as per sq km. The average density of population in the whole world is 51 persons per sq km. and the average density of population in India is 382 persons sq km. South Central Asia has the highest density of population.

Question 2.
How can we say that people’s are the nation’s greatest resources and human resource is the ultimate resource?
Answer:
People are the nation’s greatest resources as nature’s bounty becomes significant only when people find it useful. It is people with their demands and abilities that turn, them into resources. Hence, human resource is the ultimate resource. Healthy, educated and motivated people develop resources as per their requirements.

Question 3.
What do you know about Human Resource Development (HRD) ministry under the government of India?
Answer:
The Government of India has a ministry of Human Resource Development. The Ministry was created in 1985 with an aim to develop people’s skills. This just shows how important people are as a resource for the country.

Question 4.
What do you mean by the pattern of population distribution? How is world population distributed?
Answer:
The way in which people are spread across the earth’s surface is known as the pattern of population distribution. More than 90% of the world’s population lives in about 30 per cent of the land’s surface. The distribution of world population is extremely uneven.

Question 5.
Define the following:

1. Birthrate
2. Death rate
3. Migrations
4. Life expectancy

Answer:

1. Birth Rate: Births are usually measured using the birth rate, i.e. the number of live births per 1,000 people.
2. Death Rate: Deaths are usually measured using the death rate, i.e. the number of deaths per 1,000 people.
3. Migrations: It is the movement of people in and out of an area.
4. Life expectancy: It is the number of years that an average person can expect to live.

Human Resource Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 6 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
Define population change. How do the following factors affect the distribution of population?
(i) Topography
(ii) Climate
(iii) Soil
(iv) Water
(v) Minerals.
Answer:
The population change refers to change in the number of people during a specific time. The world population has not been stable.
This is how the following factors affect the distribution of population.

1. Topography: People always prefer to live on plains rather than mountains and plateaus because these areas are suitable for farming, manufacturing and service activities.
2. Climate: People usually avoid extreme climates that are very hot or very cold.
3. Soil: Fertile soils provide suitable land for agriculture. Fertile plains are densely populated around different parts of the world.
4. Water: People prefer to live in the areas where freshwater is easily available. The river valleys of the world are densely populated while deserts have spare population.
5. Minerals: Areas with mineral deposits are more populated.

Picture Based Questions Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Human Resource

Look at the picture given below and answer the following questions:

Question 1.

(i) When does the population increase?
(ii) When does the condition of steady population arise?
(iii) When does the population decrease?
Answer:
(i) When birth rate is more than death rate.
(ii) When birth rate and death rate both stay the same.
(iii) When death rate is more than birth date.

Map Skills Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Human Resource

Question 1.
Mark the Annual rates if natural increase in the following colours.
(i) High (2 – 2.9%) – with red colour.
(ii) 0 or decreases – with green colour.
Answer:

In this chapter, “Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Industries,” we’ll traverse through the vast domains of factories and production units, discovering the various types of industries and their role in economic development. From understanding the concept of industrialization to exploring the challenges and opportunities in the industrial sector, this narrative unveils the significance of industries in shaping modern societies. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science .

Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Industries

Industries Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 5 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What is the basic function of secondary activities or manufacturing?
Answer:
The basic function of secondary activities or manufacturing is to change raw materials into products of more value to people.

Question 2.
Of what is the paper made up from?
Answer:
The paper is made up from pulp.

Question 3.
Name the classification of industries on the basis of raw material used by them.
Answer:
The industries classified on the basis of raw materials used by them are:

1. Agro-based industries
2. Mineral-based industries
3. Marine based industries
4. Forest-based industries

Question 4.
By whom are the private sector industries owned and operated?
Answer:
Private-sector industries are owned and operated by individuals or a group of individuals.

Question 5.
What does an industrial system consist of?
Answer:
An industrial system consists of input, processes and outputs.

Question 6.
How does an industrial region emerge?
Answer:
Industrial region emerges when a number of industries are located close to each other and share the benefits of their closeness.

Question 7.
What is meant by industrial disaster?
Answer:
In industries, accidents/disasters mainly occur due to technical failure or irresponsible handling of hazardous material. This is known as industrial disaster.

Question 8.
Define Sunrise Industries.
Answer:
Emerging industries are also known as ‘Sunrise Industries’. These include Information technology, Wellness, Hospitality and Knowledge.

Question 9.
Define the process ‘smelting’.
Answer:
It is the process in which metals are extracted from their ores by heating beyond the melting point.

Question 10.
What is the full form of TISCO?
Answer:
TISCO: Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited.

Question 11.
On what basis are industries classified?
Answer:
Industries are classified on the basis of raw materials, size and ownership.

Question 12.
Under which category is production of automobile and heavy machinery is placed?
Answer:
Under large scale industry.

Question 13.
What may be the inputs in case of textile industry?
Answer:
In case of textile industry, the inputs may be cotton, human labour, factory and transport cost.

Question 14.
What was the official death total in 1989 in Bhopal tragedy?
Answer:
Official death total was 3,598 in 1989.

Question 15.
What is MIC?
Answer:
MIC is Methyl Isocynate gas responsible for gas tragedy of Bhopal.

Question 16.
Which is the major IT hub of India?
Answer:
Bengaluru.

Question 17.
Where was TISCO started in?
Answer:
It was started in Sakchi.

Question 18.
What is the date of Bhopal gas tragedy?
Answer:
On 3rd December 1984.

Question 19.
Which industries use produce from sea and oceans as raw materials?
Answer:
Marine based industries.

Question 20.
In which part of the world is silicon valley located?
Answer:
It is located next to the rocky mountains of North America.

Industries Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 5 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
Why was Sakchi chosen to set up the steel plant? Give reasons.
Answer:
Sakchi was chosen to set up the steel plant for several reasons because:

1. the place was only 32 km away from Kalimati station on the Bengal-Nagpur railway line.
2. It was close to the iron ore, coal and manganese deposits as well as to Kolkata, which provided a large market.
3. TISCO gets coal from Jharia coalfields, and iron ore, limestone, dolomite and manganese from Odisha and Chattisgarh.
4. The Kharkai and Subarnarekha rivers ensured sufficient water supply. Government initiatives provided adequate capital for its later development.

Question 2.
What was the ideal location for iron and steel industry before 1800 A.D and after 1950 how did the concept for ideal location of iron and steel industries change?
Answer:
Before 1800 A.D. iron and steel industry was located where raw materials, power supply and running water were easily available. Later, the ideal location for the industry was near coal fields and close to canals and railways.

After 1950, iron and steel industry began to be located on large areas of flat land near sea ports. This is because by this time steelworks had become very large and iron ore had to be imported from overseas.

Question 3.
How is the steel used by other industries as raw materials?
Answer:
Steel is used by other industries as raw material in many ways.

1. Steel is tough and it can be easily shaped, cut, or made into wire.
2. Special alloys of steel can be made by adding small amount of other metals such as aluminium, nickel and copper.
3. Alloys give steel unusual hardness, toughness or ability to resist rust.
4. Steel is often called the backbone of modern industry.

Question 4.
Define the concept of industrial system briefly.
Answer:
An industrial system consists of inputs, processes and outputs. The inputs are the raw materials, labour and cost of land, transport, power and other infrastructure. The processes include a wide range of activities that convert the raw material into finished products. The outputs are the end products and the income earned from it.

In case of textile industry the inputs may be cotton, human labour, factory and transport cost. The processes include ginning, spinning, weaving, dyeing and printing. The output is the shirt you wear.

Question 5.
What does the concept of information technology industry deals in and which are the major hubs of the IT industry?
Answer:
The information technology industry deals in the storage, processing and distribution of information. Today, this industry has become global. This is due to a series of technological, political and socio-eco¬nomic events.

The main factors guiding the location of these industries are resource availability, cost and infrastructure. The major hubs of the IT industry are the Silicon Valley, California and Bengaluru, India.

Industries Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 5 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
How is the classification of industries done on the basis of raw materials size and ownership? Explain.
Answer:
Industries are classified on the basis of raw materials, size and ownership:
1. Raw materials: Industries may be agro-based, mineral-based, marine-based and forest-based depending on the type of raw materials used by them.

• Agro-based industries: These industries use plant and animal-based products as their raw materials.
• Mineral-based industries: These industries use mineral ores as their raw materials, and the products of these industries feed other industries.
• Marine based industries: They use the products from the sea and oceans as raw materials.
• Forest-based industries: It utilises forest produce as raw materials.

2. Size: It refers to the amount of capital invested, number of people employed and the volume of production.
Based on size, industries can be classified into small scale and large scale industries.

• Small scale industry: Cottage or household industries are a type of small scale industry where the products are manufactured by hand, by the artisans. These industries use lesser amount of capital and technology as compared to large scale industry.
• Large scale industry: These are industries that produce large volumes of products. Investment of capital is higher and the technology used is superior in large scale industries.

3. Ownership: Industries can be classified into private sector, state-owned or public sector, joint sector and cooperative sector.

• Private-sector industries: These are owned and operated by individuals or a group of individuals.
• Public sector industries: These are owned and operated by the government.
• Joint sector industries: These are owned and operated by the state and individuals or a group of individuals.
• Cooperative sector industries: The are owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw materials, workers or both.

Picture Based Questions Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Industries

Look at the picture given below and answer the following questions:
Picture-1

(i) What does the above picture show?
(ii) Where was the iron and steel industry located before 1800 A.D.?
Answer:
(i) It shows the changing location of iron and steel industry.
(ii) Before 1800 A.D. iron and steel industry was located where raw materials, power supply and running water were easily available.

Picture-2

(i) Name the major railway station shown in the figure.
(ii) What does the picture show?
Answer:
(i) Tatanagar railway station.
(ii) It shows the location of iron and steel industry in Jamshedpur.

Map Skills Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Industries

Question 1.
On an outline Map of World show the major iron ore producing areas.
(i) Brazil
(ii) South Africa
(iii) Australia
(iv) Germany
(v) India
Answer:

Question 2.
On an outline Map of World show the important iron and steel producing centres.
(i) Jharkhand
(ii) Odisha
(iii) Chhattisgarh
(iv) West Bengal
Answer:

Join us as we traverse through the corridors of the world’s farmlands, exploring the captivating journey of agriculture. Let’s delve into the world of “Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Agriculture” and unravel the threads of sustenance, innovation, and the delicate balance between farming and nature. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science .

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Agriculture

Agriculture Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 4 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What is arable land?
Answer:
The land on which the crops are grown is called arable land.

Question 2.
Mention the important inputs of agriculture.
Answer:
Seeds, fertilizers, machinery and labour.

Question 3.
Name the operations involved in agriculture.
Answer:
Ploughing, sowing, irrigation, weeding and harvesting.

Question 4.
Mention the outputs of agriculture.
Answer:
Crops, wool, dairy and poultry products.

Question 5.
On what basis can agriculture be classified.
Answer:

• Geographical conditions,
• demand of produce,
• labour,
• level of technology.

Question 6.
Name two major types of farming.
Answer:

1. Subsistence farming
2. Commercial farming.

Question 7.
What is subsistence farming?
Answer:
Subsistence farming is practised to meet the needs of the farmer’s family.

Question 8.
Into which two types can subsistence farming be classified?
Answer:

1. Intensive subsistence,
2. Primitive subsistence farming.

Question 9.
Name the crops cultivated in intensive subsistence agriculture.
Answer:
Wheat, maize, pulses and oilseeds.

Question 10.
Into which two types can primitive subsistence agriculture be divided?
Answer:

1. Shifting cultivation,
2. nomadic herding.

Question 11.
In which parts of the world is shifting cultivation practised?
Answer:

• Amazon basin,
• Tropical Africa,
• Parts of South-East Asia,
• North-East India.

Question 12.
Which types of farming are included in commercial farming?
Answer:

• Commercial grain farming,
• Mixed farming,
• Plantation agriculture.

Question 13.
In the temperate grasslands of North America, why can only a single crop be grown?
Answer:
In the temperate grasslands of North America, only a single crop can be grown because severe winters- restrict the growing season.

Question 14.
Name two major plantations found in the tropical regions of the world.
Answer:

1. Rubber plantation in Malaysia
2. Coffee plantation in Brazil
3. Tea plantation in India and Sri Lanka.

Question 15.
Name two important food crops, fibre crops and beverage crops.
Answer:

1. Food crops – wheat,
2. rice Fibre crops – jute,
3. cotton Beverage crops – tea, coffee.

Question 16.
Name four leading producers of rice.
Answer:
China, India, Japan, Sri Lanka.

Question 17.
Name two places where two to three crops of rice are grown in a year.
Answer:

1. West Bengal,
2. Bangladesh.

Question 18.
During which season is wheat grown in India?
Answer:
Winters.

Question 19.
Name the leading producers of maize.
Answer:
North America, Brazil, China, Russia, Canada, India and Mexico.

Question 20.
In which countries is cotton grown as a major crop?
Answer:
China, USA, India, Pakistan, Brazil and Egypt.

Question 21.
Which countries produce best quality tea in the world?
Answer:
Kenya, India, China, Sri Lanka.

Question 22.
What are primary activities? Give examples.
Answer:
Primary activities include all those activities connected with extraction and production of natural resources. For example, agriculture, fishing, gathering etc.

Question 23.
What are secondary activities? Give examples.
Answer:
Secondary activities are concerned with the processing of natural resources. For example, manufacturing of steel, weaving of cloth etc.

Question 24.
What are tertiary activities? Give examples.
Answer:
Tertiary activities provide support to the primary and secondary sectors through services. For example, trade, banking, insurance etc.

Question 25.
In which parts of the world is nomadic herding practised?
Answer:
Nomadic herding is practised in the following regions –

• Semi-arid and arid regions of Sahara.
• Central Asia.
• Rajasthan and Jammu and Kashmir in India.

Question 26.
Write the main features of commercial farming?
Answer:
Main features of commercial farming are:

• Crops are grown and animals are reared for sale in the market.
• The area cultivated and the amount of capital used is large.
• Most of the work is done by machines.

Question 27.
What is mixed farming? In which parts of the world is it practised?
Answer:

• In the mixed farming, the land is used for growing food and fodder crops and rearing livestock.
• It is practised in Europe, Eastern USA, Argentina, Southeast Australia, New Zealand and South Africa.

Question 28.
Why do is development of a transport network essential for plantation farming?
Answer:
Development of a transport network is essential for plantation farming because the produce is processed on the farm itself or in nearby factories.

Question 29.
Mention the geographical requirements for the cultivation of rice.
Answer:

• It is mainly grown in tropical and sub-tropical regions.
• Rice needs high temperature, high humidity and rainfall.
• It grows well in alluvial clayey soil.

Question 30.
Write the geographical requirements for wheat cultivation.
Answer:

• Wheat requires moderate temperature and rainfall during growing season and bright sunshine at the time of harvest.
• It thrives best in well-drained loamy soil.

Question 31.
Mention the geographical conditions required for maize cultivation.
Answer:

• Maize requires moderate temperature.
• It also needs well-drained fertile soils.

Question 32.
Write the geographical conditions required for cotton.
Answer:

• Cotton requires high temperature, light rainfall, two hundred and ten frost-free days and bright sunshine.
• It grows best on black and alluvial soils.

Question 33.
Mention the geographical conditions required for coffee cultivation.
Answer:

• Coffee requires warm and wet climate and well-drained loamy soil.
• Hill slopes are more suitable for the growth of this crop.

Question 34.
What is agricultural development? Also, write its ultimate aim.
Answer:

• Agricultural development refers to the efforts made to increase farm production in order to meet the growing demand of increasing population.
• Its ultimate aim is to increase food security.

Question 35.
How can farm production be increased?
Or
How can the ultimate aim of agricultural development be increased?
Answer:
Farm production can be increased in the following ways –

• Increasing the cropped area.
• The number of crops grown.
• Improving irrigation facilities.
• Use of fertilizers and high yielding variety of seeds.

Question 36.
On the outline map of India show the following places. Coffee producing state.
Answer:
Coffee producing state

Question 37.
What is sericulture? Name the factors influencing agriculture?
Answer:
Commercial rearing of silkworms is called sericulture. Factors influencing agriculture are as follows :

• Favourable topography
• Soil
• Climate.

Question 38.
Write the main features of intensive subsistence agriculture.
Answer:

• The farmer cultivates a small plot of land using simple tools and more labour.
• Climate with large number of days with sunshine and fertile soil permit growing of more than one crop annually on the same field.
• Major crops grown are rice, wheat, maize, pulses etc.
• Intensive subsistence agriculture is practised in thickly populated areas of the monsoon regions of South, South-East and East Asia.

Question 39.
Write the main features of nomadic herding.
Answer:

• Herdsmen move from place to place with their animals in search of fodder and water.
• Herders have to move from one place to another due to climatic constraints and terrain.
• Sheep, camel, cattle, yak and goats are the most commonly reared.
• Animals provide milk, meat, wool, hides and other products to herders and their families.

Question 40.
Describe the regions where commercial grain farming is practised.
Answer:

• Commercial grain farming is practised in the temperate grasslands of North America, Europe and Asia.
• These regions are sparsely populated with large farms spreading over hundreds of hectares.
• Due to severe winters, only a single crop can be grown.

Question 41.
Write a short note on millets.
Answer:

• Millets are also known as coarse grains and can be grown on less fertile and sandy soils.
• It is a hardy crop that needs low rainfall and high to moderate temperature and adequate rainfall.
• Millets are grown in India, Nigeria, China and Niger.

Question 42.
Write the geographical condi¬tions required for the cultivation of tea.
Answer:

• Tea requires cool climate and well-distributed high rainfall throughout the year for the growth of its tender leaves.
• It needs well-drained loamy soils and gentle slopes.
• Large number of labour is required to pick the leaves.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. ………………………….. is not a tertiary activity.
(a) Trade
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Transport
(d) Banking.
Answer:
(b) Manufacturing

2. Tick the odd pair in the following.
(a) Pisciculture – breeding of fish.
(b) Viticulture – cultivation of grapes.
(c) Horticulture – rearing livestock.
(d) Sericulture – rearing of silkworms.
Answer:
(c) Horticulture – rearing livestock.

3. Organic manure and natural pesticides are used instead of chemicals in this type of farming. What is it called?
(a) Subsistence farming
(b) Shifting cultivation
(c) Mixed farming
(d) Organic farming.
Answer:
(d) Organic farming.

4. Which of the following crops needs high temperature, high humidity, fertile soil and good rainfall?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(b) Cotton
(d) Millets
Answer:
(a) Rice

5. Which of the following pairs is not correct?
(a) Tea – beverage
(b) Jute – Golden Fibre
(c) Wheat – corn
(d) Millets – coarse grains
Answer:
(c) Wheat – corn

Glossary:

→ Primary activities – They include activities connected with extraction and production of natural resources.

→ Secondary activities – These activities are concerned with the processing of natural resources.

→ Tertiary activities – These activities provide support to the primary and secondary sectors through services.

→ Sericulture – Commercial rearing of silkworms.

→ Viticulture – Cultivation of grapes.

→ Pisciculture – Breeding of fish in specially constructed tanks and ponds.

→ Horticulture – Growing vegetables, flowers and fruits for commercial use.

→ Agriculture – The science and art of cultivation on the soil, raising crops and rearing livestock.

→ Subsistence farming- This type of farming is practised to meet the needs of farmer’s family.

→ Nomadic herding – The herdsmen move from one place to another in search of fodder and water.

→ Commercial farming- The crops are grown and animals are reared for sale in the market.

→ Mixed farming – The land is used for growing food and fodder crops and rearing livestock.

→ Organic farming – The use of organic manure and natural pesticides instead of chemicals is known as organic farming.

→ Agricultural development – It refers to efforts made to increase farm production in order to meet the growing demand of increasing population.

Join us as we traverse through the corridors of Earth’s hidden treasures, exploring the captivating journey of mineral and power resources. Let’s delve into the world of “Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Mineral and Power Resources” and unravel the threads of economic prosperity, technological advancement, and the responsibility of responsible resource management. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science .

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Mineral and Power Resources

Mineral and Power Resources Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 3 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What is a mineral?
Answer:
A naturally occurring substance that has a definite chemical composition is a mineral.

Question 2.
What is meant by a rock?
Answer:
A rock is an aggregate of one or more minerals but without definite composition of constituent of mineral.

Question 3.
Define open-cast mining.
Answer:
Minerals that lie at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer; this is known as open- caste mining.

Question 4.
What does the term quarrying mean?
Answer:
Minerals that lie near the surface are simply dug out by the process known as quarrying.

Question 5.
Which country has no known mineral deposit in it?
Answer:
Switzerland has no known mineral deposit in it.

Question 6.
Name the two countries of Asia that have large iron ore deposits.
Answer:
China and India have large iron ore deposits.

Question 7.
How is salt obtained?
Answer:
Salt is obtained from seas, lakes and rocks.

Question 8.
Where are the oldest-rocks in world located in?
Answer:
The oldest rocks in the world are in western Australia.

Question 9.
Define Geothermal energy.
Answer:
Heat energy obtained from the earth is called geothermal energy.

Question 10.
What is Biogas?
Answer:
Organic waste such as dead plant and animal material and dung and kitchen waste can be converted into gaseous fuel called Biogas.

Question 11.
Name the greatest producer of Nuclear power.
Answer:
USA and Europe

Question 12.
Which type of energy is wind energy?
Answer:
Wind is an inexhaustible source of energy.

Question 13.
How are windmills used since times immemorial?
Answer:
Windmills have been used for grinding grain and lifting water since times immemorial.

Question 14.
Define Geothermal Energy.
Answer:
Heat energy obtained from Earth.

Question 15.
In which part of India there is a huge tidal mill farms?
Answer:
In the Gulf of Kachchh.

Question 16.
Where in India are the geothermal plants located?
Answer:
Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh and Puga Valley in Ladakh.

Question 17.
How is firewood widely used?
Answer:
It is widely used for cooking and heating.

Question 18.
What are the 2 main conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
Firewoods and fossil fuels.

Question 19.
Which is the most abundantly found fossil fuel?
Answer:
Coal is the most abundantly found fossil fuel.

Question 20.
What is thermal power?
Answer:
Electricity from coal is called thermal power.

Mineral and Power Resources Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 3 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What are the uses of minerals?
Answer:
Minerals are used in many industries. Minerals which are used for gems are usually hard. These are then set in various styles of jewellery. Copper is another metal used in everything from coins to pipes, silicon used in computer industry is obtained from quartz. Aluminium obtained from its ore bauxite is used in automobiles and aeroplanes, bottling industry, buildings and even in kitchen cookware.

Question 2.
How is the distribution of iron placed in India?
Answer:
India has deposits of high-grade iron ore. The mineral is found mainly in Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Goa, Maharashtra and Karnataka.

Question 3.
Name the major limestone producing states in India.
Answer:
Major limestone producing states in India are Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu.

Question 4.
What is coal and why is coal referred to as Buried Sunshine?
Answer:
Coal is the most abundantly found fossil fuel. It is used as a domestic fuel, in industries such as iron and steel, steam engines and to generate electricity. Electricity from coal is called Thermal Power.

The coal which we are using today was formed millions of years ago when giant ferns and swamps got buried under the layer of earth. Coal is therefore referred to as Buried Sunshine.

Question 5.
Define Tidal Energy and where was the first tidal energy station built?
Answer:
Energy generated from tides is called tidal energy. Tidal energy can be harnessed by building dams at narrow openings of the sea. During high tide the energy of the tides is used to turn the turbine installed in the dam to produce electricity. Russia, France and Gulf of Kachchh in India have huge tidal mill farms. The Ist tidal energy station was built in France.

Question 6.
How is petroleum found and what is petroleum and its derivatives known as and why?
Answer:
Petroleum is found between the layers of rocks and is derived from oil fields located in off shore and coastal areas. Then this is sent to refinery which processes the crude oil and produces a variety of products. Petroleum and its derivatives are called Black gold because they are valuable.

Mineral and Power Resources Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 3 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
Define mineral in brief and explain how they are formed without any human interference.
Answer:
A naturally occurring substance that has a definite chemical composition is a mineral. Minerals are not evenly distributed over space. They are concentrated in a particular area or rock formations. Some minerals are found in areas which are not easily accessible such as the Arctic ocean bed and Antarctica.

Minerals are formed in different types of geological environments, under varying conditions. They are created by natural processes without any human interference. They can be identified on the basis of their physical properties such as colour, density, hardness and chemical property such as solubility.

Question 2.
What is meant by Nuclear power? Explain the process how it is obtained. Also name the places of India where the nuclear power stations are located.
Answer:
Nuclear power is obtained from energy stored in the nuclei of atoms of naturally occurring radio active elements like uranium and thorium. These fuels undergo nuclear fission in nuclear reactors and emit power. The greatest producers of nuclear power are U.S.A and Europe. In India Rajasthan and Jharkhand have large deposits of Uranium.

Thorium is found in large quantities in the Monozite sands of Kerala. The nuclear power stations in India are located in Kalapakkam in Tamil Nadu, Tarapur in Maharashtra, Ranapratap Sagar near Kota in Rajasthan, Narora in U.P, and Kaiga in Karnataka.

Picture Based Questions Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resources

Look at the picture given below and answer the following questions:

Question:
1. What is shown in the figure?
2. Define drilling.
Answer:
1. This picture shows shore drilling of oil.
2. Deep wells bored to take petroleum and natural gas out is called drilling.

Map Skills Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resources

Question 1.
On an outline Map of the World mark the following:
(i) Countries of Asia with large iron deposits.
(ii) The countries in Europe that are leading producer of iron-ore in the world.
Answer:
(i) China and India
(ii) Russia, Swedan, Ukraine, France.

Question 2.
On an outline Map of India mark the following.
(i) Iron distribution in the states of India
(ii) Major Bauxite producing states.
Answer:
(i) Madhya Pradesh, Goa, Maharashtra and Karnataka.
(ii) Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhatisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra.

Join us as we traverse through the corridors of Earth’s natural wonders, exploring the captivating journey of land, soil, water, natural vegetation, and wildlife resources. Let’s delve into the world of “Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources” and unravel the threads of interconnectedness, conservation, and the harmony between humans and nature. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science .

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources

Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 2 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What is the full form of CITES?
Answer:
CITES is the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora.

Question 2.
Define National Park?
Answer:
National Park is a natural area designated for the protection of ecological integrity of one or more ecosystem for the present and the future generation.

Question 3.
Name the classification of forests depending on when they shed their leaves?
Answer:
Forests are broadly classified as evergreen and deciduous depending on when they shed their leaves.

Question 4.
Primarily on what factors does the growth of vegetation depends upon?
Answer:
The growth of vegetation depends primary on temperature and moisture.

Question 5.
Why is river Yamuna getting polluted?
Answer:
River Yamuna is getting polluted due to sewage, industrial effluents and garbage released into it.

Question 6.
What quantity of water does a dripping tap waste in a year?
Answer:
A dripping tap water 1200 litres of water in a year.

Question 7.
What are the two major threats to soil as a resource?
Answer:
Soil erosion and depletion are the major threats to soil as a resource.

Question 8.
How much time period is required for the formation of just one centimetre of soil?
Answer:
It takes hundreds of years to make just one centimetre of soil.

Question 9.
Which natural resource covers only about 30% of the total area of the earth’s surface?
Answer:
Land

Question 10.
What is the main reason behind the uneven distribution of population in different parts of the world?
Answer:
It is mainly due to varied characteristics of land and climate.

Question 11.
On what basis land is classified into private land and community land?
Answer:
On the basis of ownership.

Question 12.
What has led to large scale destruction of forest cover and arable land?
Answer:
Growing population and their ever growing demand have led to a large scale destruction of forest cover and arable land.

Question 13.
Why is Hazard Mapping done?
Answer:
Hazard mapping is done to locate areas prone to landslide.

Question 14.
What determines the type of soil?
Answer:
Landform determines the type of soil.

Question 15.
In which year does the consumption of water for human use was 3850 cai/year?
Answer:
In 1975.

Question 16.
Why is Earth appropriately called water planet?
Answer:
Because 3/4th of the earth’s surface is covered with water.

Question 17.
What percent of fresh water is present on Earth?
Answer:
Only about 2.7%.

Question 18.
What is the major problem faced by the world today?
Answer:
Access to clean and adequate water sources is a major problem faced by the world today.

Question 19.
On what does the growth of vegetation depends primarily?
Answer:
The growth of vegetation depends primarily on temperature and moisture.

Question 20.
Give some examples of species protected under CITES.
Answer:
Bears, dolphins, cacti, corals, orchids and aloes, etc.

Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 2 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What is soil and how is soil made fertile?
Answer:
The thin layer of grainy substance covering the surface of the earth is called soil. It is closely linked to land. Landforms determine the type of soil. Soil is made up of organic matter, minerals and weathered rocks found on the earth. This happens through the process of weathering. The right mix of minerals and organic matter make the soil fertile.

Question 2.
What does the weathering mean and how does the weathering help soil?
Answer:
Weathering is the breaking up and decay of exposed rocks by temperature changes, frost action, plants, animals and human activity and soil is made up of organic matter, minerals and weathered rocks found on the earth. This happens through the process of weathering.

Question 3.
How does the major factors of soil formation play an important role?
Answer:
The major factors of soil formation are the nature of the parent rock and climatic factors and

1. Parent Rock: Determines colour, texture, chemical properties minerals, content, permeability.
2. Climate: Temperature, rainfall influence rate of weathering and humus.
3. Relief: Altitude and slope, determine accumulation of soil.
4. Flora, Fauna and Microorganism: Affect the rate of humus formation.
5. Time: Determines thickness of soil profile.

Question 4.
What are some broad mitigation techniques of landslide?
Answer:
Some broad mitigation techniques of landslide are as follows:

1. Hazard mapping for locating lanslides prone area, so that building settlements can be avoided.
2. Construction of retention wall to stop land from slipping.
3. Increase in the vegetation cover to arrest landslide.
4. The surface drainage control works to control the movement of landslide along with rain water and spring flows.

Question 5.
How is the land classified on the basis of ownership? What is the concept of common property resources?
Answer:
Land can be classified on the basis of ownership as private and community land. Private land is owned by the individuals whereas, community land is owned by the community for common uses like collection of fodder, fruits, nuts or medicinal herbs. These community lands are called common property resources.

Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 2 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
What is a land and what is the concept of Land use?
Answer:
Land is among the most important natural resources. It covers only about thirty per cent of the total area of the earths’s surface and all parts of this small percentage are not habitable.

Land Life
Land is used for different purposes such as agriculture, forestry, mining, building houses, roads and setting up of industries. This is commonly termed as Land use. The use of land is determined by the physical factors such as topography, soil, climate, minerals and availability of water. Human factors such as population and technology are also important determinants of land use pattern.

Question 2.
Describe Landslide and Mitigation mechanism in brief.
Answer:
Landslides are simply defined as the mass movement of rock debris or earth down a slope. They often take place in conjunction with earthquakes, floods and volcanoes. A prolonged spell of rainfall can cause heavy landslide that can block the flow of river for quite some time.

The formation of river blocks can cause havoc to the settlements downstream on its bursting. In the hilly terrain landslides have been a major and widely spread natural disaster that often strike life and property and occupy a position of major concern.

Mitigation mechanism is the advancement in scientific techniques which has empowered us to understand what factors cause landslides and how to manage them.

Picture Based Questions Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources

Look at the picture given below and answer the following questions:

1. What does the picture show.
2. Under which category is Tsunami placed?
Answer:
1. The picture shows the loss of rainforest in Great Nicobar after Tsunami.
2. Natural factors accelerating the process of extinction of resources.

Map Skills Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources

Question 1.
On an outline map of India mark the following:
(i) Kaziranga National Park
(ii) Himachal Pradesh
(iii) Great Nicobar
Answer:

Question 2.
On an outline Map of the world mark the regions of the world where there is scarcity of water.
Answer:

In this chapter, “Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resources,” we’ll traverse through the abundant reserves of nature, discovering the invaluable gifts bestowed upon us. From the riches beneath the earth’s surface to the boundless expanse of the atmosphere, from the life-sustaining water bodies to the fertile lands, this narrative unveils the wealth of resources that shape our existence. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science .

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resources

Resources Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 1 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
Define localized resources.
Answer:
The resources which are found only at certain places are localized resources.

Question 2.
What is meant by natural resources?
Answer:
Resources that are drawn from nature and used without much modifications are called natural resources.

Question 3.
Give some examples of abiotic resources.
Answer:
Soil, rocks, minerals, etc. are few examples of abiotic resources.

Question 4.
How are the resources generally classified?
Answer:
Resources are generally classified into different groups depending upon their level of development and use; origin; stock and distribution.

Question 5.
What do you understand by the term sustainable development?
Answer:
It means balancing the need to use resources and also conserve them for the future purpose.

Question 6.
Define Patent.
Answer:
Patent means the exclusive right over any idea or invention.

Question 7.
What is the shortest meaning of ‘value’?
Answer:
Value means worth

Question 8.
Give an example of localized resources.
Answer:
An example is iron ore.

Question 9.
What acts as an important factor changing a substance into resources?
Answer:
Technology acts as an important factor.

Question 10.
Define resource conservation.
Answer:
It is defined as using resources carefully and giving them time to get renewed.

Question 11.
Define Technology.
Answer:
It is the application of latest knowledge and skill in doing or making things.

Question 12.
Which of the resources category has a limited stock?
Answer:
Non-renewable resource of energy has a limited stock.

Question 13.
Define the term utility.
Answer:
The state of being useful, profitable or beneficial is termed as utility.

Question 14.
What is meant by Stock of Resources?
Answer:
It is the amount of resources available for us.

Question 15.
Name the two groups of resource whose classification is done based on development and its use.
Answer:

1. Actual resources
2. Potential resources

Question 16.
Give examples of some human-made resources.
Answer:
Building, roads, bridges, machinery and vehicles, etc….,

Resources Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 1 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
Describe the term Patent and Technology.
Answer:
The term patent and technology is described as:

1. Patent is meant by the exclusive right over any idea or invention.
2. Technology is the application of latest knowledge and skill in doing or making things.

Question 2.
What are the renewable resources and how can their stock of certain resource get affected?
Answer:
Renewable resources are those which get renewed Or replenished quickly. Some of these are unlimited and are not affected by human activities, such as solar and wind energy. Yet careless use of certain renewable resources like water, soil and forest can affect their stock.

Question 3.
What are the Human Made Resources?
Answer:
Natural substances become resources only when their original form has been changed. Iron ore was not a resource until people learnt to extract iron from it. People use natural resources to make buildings, bridges, roads, machinery and vehicles, that are known as human made resources, even the technology is defined as a human made resource.

Question 4.
What do you know about Human Resource?
Answer:
Human resource refers to the number (quantity) and abilities (mental and physical) of the people. Though, there are differing views regarding treatment of humans as a resource, one cannot deny the fact that it is the skill of human that helps in transferring the physical material into a valuable resource.

Question 5.
Define what is meant by the Actual Resources?
Answer:
Actual resources are the resources whose quantity and quality are known and these resources are being used in the present. The rich deposits of coal in Ruhr region of Germany and petroleum in West Asia, the dark soils of the Deccan plateau in Maharashtra are all actual resources.

Resources Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 1 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
Describe the following terms in short.
(i) Actual resources
(ii) Non-renewable resources
(iii) Ubiquitous resources
(iv) Natural resources
Answer:

• Actual resources: These are those resources whose quantity is known. These resources are being used in the present.
• Non-renewable resources: These are those resources which have a limited stock. Ohce the stock are exhausted it may take thousands of years to be renewed and replenished.
• Ubiquitous resources: Resources that are found everywhere are Ubiquitous resources.
• Natural resources: Resources that are drawn from nature and used without much modification are called Natural resources.

Question 2.
Define the following.
(i) Human-made resources
(ii) Human resources
(iii) Sustainable development
Answer:
(i) Human-made resources: Natural substances converted into resources by changing their original form. For example, iron ore was not a resource until people learnt to extract iron from it. People use natural resources to make buildings, bridges, roads, machinery and vehicles, which are known as human-made resources. Technology is also a human-made resource.

(ii) Human resources: People can make the best use of nature to create more resources when they have the knowledge, skill and technology to do so. That is why human beings are a special resource. People are human resources.

(iii) Sustainable development: It means careful utilisation of resources so that besides meeting the requirements of the present, it also takes care of future generations.

Picture Based Questions Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Resources

Look at the picture given below and answer the following questions:

1. Under which resource category the above pic has been categorized?
2. How do wind fans generate energy?
Answer:
1. Under the category of Potential Resources.
2. Wind fans generate energy using wind cycles.

Join us as we traverse through the corridors of time, exploring the captivating journey of India’s post-independence era, filled with hopes, aspirations, and the resolve to build a better tomorrow. Let’s delve into the world of “Class 8 History Chapter 12 Extra Questions and Answers India After Independence” and unravel the threads of resilience, progress, and the indomitable spirit of a nation rising to fulfill its potential. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science .

Class 8 History Chapter 12 Extra Questions and Answers India After Independence

India After Independence Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 12 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What was the clear challenge for the newly independent nation India?
Answer:
The clear challenge of the new nation was to lift it masses out of poverty.

Question 2.
Mention the years during which Constitution was framed.
Answer:
The Constitution was framed between December 1946 and November 1949.

Question 3.
Name the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
Dr B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

Question 4.
For what purpose Potti Sriramulu died of fasting?
Answer:
He died of fasting for a separate state for Telugu speakers.

Question 5.
What had became the symbol of development in Independent India?
Answer:
Bridges and dams became the symbol of development in Independent India.

Question 6.
With which country’s help was the Bhilai Steel Plant set up?
Answer:
With the help of Soviet Union in 1959, Bhilai Steel Plant was set up.

Question 7.
Name one of the world’s largest slum from Mumbai.
Answer:
Dharavi in Mumbai is one of the world’s largest slum.

Question 8.
When did India celebrate its 60th Independence day?
Answer:
On 15th August 2007, India celebrated in sixty years of independence.

Question 9.
In which year was the Punjab divided?
Answer:
In the year 1966, Punjab was divided.

Question 10.
How was Dr B.R. Ambedkar respectfully referred?
Answer:
Dr B.R. Ambedkar was respectfully referred to as Babasaheb.

Question 11.
What was the major debate in the Constituent Assembly concerned to?
Answer:
Major debate in the constituent Assembly concerned to language.

Question 12.
When was the planning commission setup by the government?
Answer:
Planning commission was set up in 1950 by the government.

Question 13.
What was the main focus of Ilnd 5 year plan?
Answer:
IInd 5 year plan strongly focussed on the development of heavy industries.

Question 14.
Mention some features the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Free press, independent judiciary, unity in diversity.

Question 15.
What is Franchise.
Answer:
The Right to is called Franchise. .

Question 16.
What is meant by the term Refugee?
Answer:
Refugee is the one who had been forced to leave his/her country/home due to any specific condition on reason.

Question 17.
Define union list.
Answer:
Union list is the discussion about the subjects such as taxes, defence and foreign affairs, basically the responsibility of the centre is discussed.

Question 18.
What subjects does concurrent lists deals with?
Answer:
Subjects such at forest and Agriculture.

India After Independence Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 12 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What was the promise made to major linguistics groups by Indian National Congress back in 1920’s ?
Answer:
The promises made by the Indian National Congress in 1920’s to the major linguistic groups were that once the country won independence, each major linguistic group would have its own province.

Question 2.
Describe about Dr B. R. Ambedkar in short.
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (1891 – 1956) was respectfully referred to as Babasaheb, he belonged to a Marathi speaking dalit ‘Mahar’ community family. He was a lawyer and economist, he was best known as a revered leader of the dalits and the father of the Indian Constitution.

Question 3.
What were features of the Constitution of India?
Answer:
The features of the constitution were:
Ist: The adoption of the Universal Adult Franchise, means that all Indians above the age of 21 would be allowed to vote in state and national elections.

IInd: The Constitution guaranteed equality before the law to all citizens, regardless of their castes or religious affiliation.

IIIrd: The Constitution offers special privileges for the poorer and the most disadvantaged Indian. The practice of untouchability was abolished.

Question 4.
What was the topic of discussion for the Constituent Assembly for many days? Also define what is meant by state lift?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly spent many days discussing the powers of the central government verses the power of the state governments.
State list: comprised of the subjects rise education and health that would be taken care of principally by the states.

Question 5.
What were the problems of development added to the problems of unity at Independence? Answer:
After independence also vast majority of Indians lived in villages. Farmers and peasants depended on the monsoon for their survival. So did the non-farm sector of rural economy and if the crops failed due to any reason the barbers, carpenters, weavers and other services groups were not paid.

In cities, factory workers lived in crowded slums with little access to education or health care. New nation got challenge for lifting its masses out of poverty by increasing productivity of agriculture and job creation.

India After Independence Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 12 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
What had happened after the creation of Andhra Pradesh and what was the report submitted by states reorganization committee says?
Answer:
After the creation of Andhra Pradesh other linguistic communities also demanded their own separate states. A state Reorganisation Commission was set up, which submitted its report in 1956, recommending the redrawing of district and provincial boundaries to form compact provinces of Assamese, Bengali, Oriya, Tamil, Malayalam, Kannada and Telugu speakers respectively.

The large Hindi-speaking region of North India was broken up into several states. A little later, in 1960, the bilingual state of Bombay was divided into sperate states of Marathi and Gujarati speakers.

In 1966, the state of Punjab was also divided into Punjab and Haryana, the former for the Punjabi speakers (who were also mostly Sikhs), the latter for the rest (who not spoke Punjabis but versions of Haryanvi and Hindi).

Question 2.
Although Many Indians contributed to the framing of Constitution perhaps it is said that most important role was played by Dr BR Ambedkar. Explain how?
Answer:
Many Indians contributed to the framing of the Constitution. But perhaps the most important role was played by B.R. Ambedkar, who was chairman of the drafting committee, and under whose supervision the document was finalized.

In his final speech to the constituent assembly, Dr Ambedkar pointed out that political democracy had to be accompanied by economic and social democracy. Giving the right to vote not automatically lead to the removal of other inequalities such as between rich and poor, or between upper and lower castes.

Picture Based Questions Class 8 History Chapter 12 India After Independence

Look at the pictures given below and answer the Questions:

Picture-1

Question:
1. What does the picture show?
2. What does the resolution outline?
Answer:
1. The pictures show Jawaharlal Nehru introducing the resolution of the Constitution.
2. The resolution outlined the objectives of the Constitution.

Picture-2

Question:
1. What does the picture shows?
2. By whom was Mahatma Gandhi assassinated?
Answer:
1. The picture shows the Mahatma Gandhi’s ashes being immersed in Allahabad, February 1948.
2. Gandhi was assassinated by a fanatic, Nathuram Godse.

Picture-3

Question:
1. Where is the Gandhi Sagar Bandh built?
2. When was it completed?
Answer:
1. It is built on the Chambal river in Madhya Pradesh.
2. It was completed in 1960.

Map-Based Questions Class 8 History Chapter 12 India After Independence

Look at the map given below and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Locate the following princely states.
(i) Jammu and Kashmir
(ii) Rajasthan, Gujarat
(iii) Hyderabad
(iv) Manipur
Answer:

Question 2.
Locate the following Indian states
(i) Andhra Pradesh
(ii) Uttar Pradesh
(iii) Bihar
(iv) Bengal
(v) Maharashtra
Answer:

Join us as we traverse through the corridors of time, exploring the captivating journey of the national movement that transformed the destiny of a nation. Let’s delve into the world of “Class 8 History Chapter 11 Extra Questions and Answers The Making of the National Movement 1870s – 1947” and unravel the threads of bravery, sacrifice, and the triumph of India’s struggle for independence. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science .

Class 8 History Chapter 11 Extra Questions and Answers The Making of the National Movement 1870s – 1947

The Making of the National Movement 1870s – 1947 Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 11 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What were the crucial questions asked by the people about India?
Answer:
The crucial questions were: What is this country of India and whom is it meant for?

Question 2.
What is the literal meaning of “Sarvajanik”?
Answer:
The literal meaning of Sarvajanik is “of or for all the people” i.e. Sarva = all + Janik = of the people.

Question 3.
Define the term Sovereign.
Answer:
The capacity to act independently without outside interference.

Question 4.
What was the role played by AO. Hume?
Answer:
A retired British official A.O. Hume played an important role by bringing Indians from the various regions together.

Question 5.
Which movement demanded for Indianisation of the movement?
Answer:
It was part of movement against racism.

Question 6.
What were the means of spreading awareness adopted by the Moderates?
Answer:
The Moderates published newspapers wrote articles for spreading awareness.

Question 7.
Mention the slogan raised by Tilak.
Answer:
Tilak raised the slogan “Freedom is my birthright and I shall have it!”

Question 8.
How was the first year spent by Mahatma Gandhi in India?
Answer:
His first year in India was spent travelling throughout the country, understanding the people, their needs and situations.

Question 9.
What was mainly discussed in the Naoroji’s book Poverty and un-British Rule in Indial
Answer:
In this book, he offered a scathing criticism of the economic impact of British rule.

Question 10.
In which year congress split took place?
Answer:
In 1907.

Question 11.
When did Gandhiji arrived from where?
Answer:
He arrived in 1915 from South Africa.

Question 12.
When was the Khilafat issue got introduced in front of the world?
Answer:
In 1920 Khilafat issue got in front of the world.

Question 13.
Which state of India witnessed Akali Agitation of Sikhs?
Answer:
Punjab.

Question 14.
How did Gandhiji spent his 1st year in India?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi spent 1st year in India by traveling throughout the country.

Question 15.
Which dates is observed as a day of non-violent opposition to the Rowlatt Act?
Answer:
6 April 1919.

Question 16.
How many delegates from all over India met at Bombay in 1885?
Answer:
72 delegates.

Question 17.
What is meant by the concept of Poorna Swaraj?
Answer:
It means complete independence.

Question 18.
What does RSS stands for?
Answer:
It stands for Rashtriya Swayam Sevak Sangh.

Question 19.
What was the demand of ‘Assam tea garden labours?
Answer:
The demand was for the increase in the wages.

Question 20.
What does CPI stands for?
Answer:
CPI stands for Communist Party of India.

The Making of the National Movement 1870s – 1947 Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 11 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
Describe the event of Gandhiji’s arrival to India from South Africa.
Answer:
Gandhiji, at the age of 46, arrived in India in 1915 from South Africa. He led Indians in South Africa in non-violent marches against racist restrictions. He was already a respected leader known internationally. His South African campaign brought him in contact with various types of Indians.

Question 2.
How did the First World War alter the economic and political situation in India?
Answer:
The First world War led to a huge rise in the defence expenditure of the Government of India. The Government in turn increased taxes on individual incomes and business profits. Increased military expenditure and the demands for war supplies led to a sharp rise in prices that created difficulties for the common people. On other side business groups reaped fabulous profits from the war.

The war created demand for industrial goods and there was seen a decline of imports from other countries into India so Indian industries expanded during the war. These industries began demanding greater opportunities for development. All this shows the way economic and political situation altered in India with the event of the First World War.

Question 3.
Mention the events by which people linked Non-Cooperation movement to local grievances.
Answer:
In Kheda, Gujarat, patidar peasants organized non-violent campaigns against the high land revenue demand of the British. In coastal Andhra and interior Tamil Nadu, liquor shops were picketed. In Guntur, tribals and some peasants staged a number of ‘forest satyagrahas’. In Sind, Muslims traders and peasants enthusiastically took part in khilafat call. In Bengal too, there was seen a great communal unity.

Question 4.
What had happened in Chauri Chaura that Gandhiji called off his Non-Cooperation movement?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi was against violence. He abruptly called off the Non-Cooperation movement in February. 1922 when a crowd of peasants set fire to a police station in Chauri Chaura. 22 policemen were killed. The peasants were provoked because the police had fired on their peaceful demonstration.

Question 5.
Name the important political associations formed after 1850 especially those who came into being in the 1870’ 80’s and who led them?
Answer:
Most of the political associations were led by the English-educated professionals such as lawyers. The important associations were Poona Sarvajanik Sabha, the Bombay Presidency Association, the Indian National Congress.

Question 6.
Define the terms sovereign, Publicists and Repeal.
Answer:

1. Sovereign: The capacity to act independently without outside interference.
2. Publicist: Someone who publicizes an idea by circulating information, writing reports, speaking at meetings.
3. Repeal: to undo law to officially end the validity without outside interference.

The Making of the National Movement 1870s – 1947 Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 11 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
How did the Non-cooperation Movement gain momentum through 1921-22? Explain.
Answer:
The Non-Cooperation Movement gained momentum through 1921 – 22. Thousands of students left the schools and colleges that were controlled by the government. Many lawyers such as Motilal Nehru, C.R. Das, C.Rajagopalachari and Asaf Ali gave up their practices. British titles that were awarded to several of the Indians were surrendered.

Legislatures were boycotted. People lit public bonfires of foreign cloth. The import of foreign cloth fell drastically between 1920 and 1922. But all this was seen as merely the tip of the iceberg. The large parts of the country were on the brink of a formidable revolt.

Question 2.
What was the process adopted by revolutionary nationalists such as Bhagat Singh and his comrades for fighting colonial rule and the rich exploiting classes?
Answer:
Revolutionary nationalists such as Bhagat Singh and his comrades wanted to fight colonial rule and the rich exploitating classes through a revolution of workers and peasants. This purpose was served with the foundation of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) in 1928 at Ferozeshah Kotla in Delhi. Members of the HSRA assassinated Saunders, a police officer who had led a lathi-charge that caused the death of Lala Lajpat Rai.

Along with his fellow B.K. Dutt, Bhagat Singh threw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly on 8th April 1929. The aim was not to kill but “to make the deaf hear”, and to remind the foreign government of its callous exploitation. Bhagat Singh was tried and executed at the age of 23.

Question 3.
Explain the Rowlatt Satyagraha in brief.
Answer:
In 1919, Gandhiji gave call for a satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act that the British had just passed.

1. The Act curbed fundamental rights such as freedom of expression and strengthened police powers.
2. Mahatma Gandhi, Mohammad Ali Jinnah and others felt that the government had no right to restrict people’s basic freedoms. The Act was criticized as ‘Devilish’ and tyrannical.
3. Gandhiji asked the Indian people to observe 6th April 1919 as a day of “humiliation and prayer” and hartal (strike).
4. Satyagraha Sabhas were set up to launch the movement.
5. Rowlatt Satyagraha turned out to be the first all India struggle against the British. It was largely restricted to the cities.
6. In April 1919 there were a number of demonstrations and hartals in the country and the government used brutal measures to suppress them.
7. The Jallianwala Bagh atrocities, inflicted by General Dyer in Amritsar on Baisakhi Day (13th April) were a part of repression.
8. On learning about the massacre, R.N. Tagore expressed pain and anger of the country by renouncing his knighthood.
9. During Rowlatt Satyagraha, the participants tried to ensure that Hindus and Muslims were united to fight against British rule. This was also the call of Mahatma Gandhi who always saw India as a land of all the people who lived in the country.
10. Gandhiji was keen that Hindus and Muslims support each other in any just cause.

Picture Based Questions Class 8 History Chapter 11 The Making of the National Movement 1870s – 1947

Look at the pictures given below and answer the questions.

Picture-1

1. Name the Book written by Dada Bhai.
2. What was described in the Book?
Answer:
1. ‘Poverty and unbritish rule of India’.
2. The book offered a scathing criticism of the economic impact of British rule.

Picture-2

1. What does the picture shows.
2. What was the purpose behind the establishment of Natal Congress?
Answer:
1. It shows the founders of the Natal Congress, Durban, South Africa, 1895.
2. In 1895, along with other Indians, Mahatma Gandhi established the Natal Congress to fight against racial discrimination.

Picture – 3

1. Name the British officer who ordered open fire on gathering of people?
2. What does the above-mentioned figure shows?
Answer:
1. General Dyer.
2. The above figure shows the walled compound in which general Dyer opened fire on the gathering of people.

Map Skills Class 8 History Chapter 11 The Making of the National Movement 1870s – 1947

Look at the map given below and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Show the following states:
(i) State in which Jallianwala Bagh incident took place?
(ii) Where did ‘forest Satyagrahas’ took place?
(iii) Name the state where Swadeshi Movement was strongest in action.
Answer:

(i) Punjab
(ii) Guntur district – Andhra Pradesh
(iii) Bengal

Get ready to embark on an enriching expedition through the annals of visual arts, where creativity knows no bounds and the canvas of imagination stretches beyond borders. Together, we’ll explore the profound insights of “Class 8 History Chapter 10 Extra Questions and Answers The Changing World of Visual Arts” and gain a deeper appreciation for the timeless beauty of human expression. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science .

Class 8 History Chapter 10 Extra Questions and Answers The Changing World of Visual Arts

The Changing World of Visual Arts Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 10 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What was the main focus of European artists about the British?
Answer:
The main focus of European artists about the British was to show the superiority of the British.

Question 2.
What is meant by portraits?
Answer:
The life size images that look lifelike and real.

Question 3.
Define the term convention.
Answer:
Convention is an accepted norm or style.

Question 4.
Who painted the potrait of Nawab Muhammad Ali Khan of Arcot?
Answer:
It was painted by George Willison.

Question 5.
When did Tipu Sultan of Mysore finally get defeated?
Answer:
He was finally defeated in 1799.

Question 6.
What does the imperial history paintings sought to create?
Answer:
It sought to create a public memory of imperial triumphs.

Question 7.
What do you understand by the term Mural?
Answer:
Mural is a wall painting done by the local artists.

Question 8.
What was the aftermath of establishment of the British power?
Answer:
With the establishment of the British power many of the local courts lost their influence and wealth.

Question 9.
By whom was the Damayanthi was painted?
Answer:
By Raja Ravi Varma.

Question 10.
Who was the nephew of Rabindranath Tagore?
Answer:
Abanindranath Tagore.

Question 11.
What is Mural?
Answer:
Mural is a wall painting.

Question 12.
Where is Clive street located?
Answer:
It is located in Calcutta.

Question 13.
From where does Mohammad Ali Khan belongs to?
Answer:
He belongs to Arcot.

Question 14.
Where does Tipu Sultan ruled?
Answer:
In Mysore.

Question 15.
By whom was the storming of seringpatnam painted?
Answer:
By Rober Kerr Porter.

Question 16.
Who was Samuel Bourne.
Answer:
He was a photographer.

Question 17.
When was Tipu Sultan defeated?
Answer:
He was defeated in 1799.

Question 18.
What is meant by life study?
Answer:
It is the study of human figure from living models where pose for the artists.

The Changing World of Visual Arts Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 10 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What did the British want from images made by the local painters?
Answer:
The British wanted the images through which they could understand India, remember their life in India, and depict India to the western world.

Question 2.
Define the term perspective and how it was used by the local miniature artists at Murshidabad. Answer:
Perspective: The way that objects appear smaller when they are further away and the way parallel lines appear to meet each other at a point in the distance. Local miniature artists use perspective by using light and shades to make the figures look life like and real.

Question 3.
How were the cultural traditions resisted by Tipu Sultan?
Answer:
Tipu not only fought British on the battlefield but also resisted the cultural tradition by continuing to encourage the local traditions, he had his walls of the palace at Seringapatam covered with mural paintings done by local artists.

Question 4.
Briefly explain about the incidence after the Battle of Plassey.
Answer:
The British defeated Sirajuddaulah in the famous battle of Plassey and after his defeat Mir Jafar was installed as the nawab of Murshidabad. It was the victory won through the conspiracy and traitor Mir Jafar was awarded the title of Nawab.

Question 5.
Differentiate between colonial portraits and existing Indian style of painting.
Answer:
The existing Indian culture has the style and tradition of painting portraits in miniature.
But colonial portraits were life-size images that looked lifelike and real.

The Changing World of Visual Arts Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 10 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
What happened during the Battle of Plassey? How was the defeat of Sirajuddaulah shown in history painting produced hy Francis Hayman?
Answer:
The Battle of Plassey saw the defeat of Sirajuddaulah by the British. After the defeat of Sirajuddaulah in the Battle of Plassey the British installed Mir Jafar as the Nawab of Murshidabad. It was a victory won through conspiracy, and the traitor Mir Jafar was awarded the title of Nawab.

In the painting oy Francis Hayman in 1762 which was placed on public display in the Vauxhall Gardens in London, this act of aggression and conquest is not depicted. The picture shows Lord Clive being welcomed by Mir Jafar and his troops after the Battle of Plassey.

Question 2.
Who was Raja Ravi Varma? How did Ravi Varma’s mythological painting become the rage among Indian princes and art collectors?
Answer:
Raja Ravi Varma was one of the 1st artists who tried to create a style that was both modern and national. Ravi Varma belonged to the family of the Maharajas of Travancore in Kerala, and he was addressed as Raja. He mastered the western art of oil painting and realistic life study, but painted themes from Indian mythology.

He dramatised on canvas, scene after scene from the Ramayana and the Mahabharta, drawing on the theatrical performance of mythological stories that he witnessed during his tour of the Bombay Presidency.

From 1880’s Ravi Varma’s mythological paintings became the rage among Indian princes and art collectors, who filled their palace galleries with his works.

Picture Based Questions Class 8 History Chapter 10 The Changing World of Visual Arts

Look at the picture given below and answer the following questions:

1. Who was the painter of the following painting?

2. What does the pictures describes?

3. whom does the portrait belongs to.

Answer:

1. Raja Ravi Varma.
2. It describes about the Clive street in Calcutta draw by Thomas and William Daniell, 1786.
3. Muhammad Ali Khan of Arcot.

Step into the realms of social transformation and women’s emancipation as we embark on an enlightening journey through Class 8 History Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Women, Caste and Reform. Titled “Women, Caste, and Reform,” this chapter delves into the fascinating and tumultuous history of women’s rights and caste-based reforms in India. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science .

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Women, Caste and Reform

Women, Caste and Reform Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 9 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What was Brahmo Sabha known as later?
Answer:
The later known name of Brahmo Sabha was the Brahmo Samaj.

Question 2.
Why were the people such as Rammohan Roy described as reformers?
Answer:
They were described as reformers because they felt that the best way to ensure such changes was by persuading people to give up old practices and adopt a new way of life.

Question 3.
Name the practice against which Rammohan Roy campaigned.
Answer:
He began campaigning against the practice of Sati.

Question 4.
Who amongst the reformers was the most famous and used ancient texts to suggest that widows could remarry?
Answer:
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar used the ancient texts to suggest that widows could remarry.

Question 5.
Who founded Arya Samaj?
Answer:
Swami Dayanand Saraswati founded Arya Samaj.

Question 6.
What was criticized in the book, Stripurushtulna written by Tarabai Shinde?
Answer:
The book criticized the social differences between men and women.

Question 7.
What did the nationalist’s leaders promise to women?
Answer:
Nationalist leaders promised that there would be full suffrage for all men and women after independence.

Question 8.
For which purpose was the Paramhans Mandali founded in 1840?
Answer:
It was founded to work for the abolition of caste.

Question 9.
Where did the number of Mahar people found jobs?
Answer:
A number of Mahar people found jobs in the Mahar Regiment.

Question 10.
Who wrote the book named Gulamgirit
Answer:
Jyotirao Phule wrote the book named Gulamgiri.

Question 11.
What does the social reformers felt?
Answer:
They felt some changes are essential in society and unjust practices needed to be sorted out.

Question 12.
Define ‘Sati’.
Answer:
Widows who used to burn themselves in the funeral of their husbands were known as Sati.

Question 13.
Who was Raja Ram Roy?
Answer:
He was a great social reformer.

Question 14.
Who was the founder of Brahmo Samaj?
Answer:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy.

Question 15.
In which year Brahmo Samaj was founded?
Answer:
In 1830.

Question 16.
Name the founder of Ramakrishnan Mission.
Answer:
Swami Vivekananda.

Question 17.
When was the Prarthana samaj established?
Answer:
In 1867.

Question 18.
At what place Veda Samsy was established?
Answer:
It was established in Madras. (Chennai).

Question 19.
Where does the Madigas belongs to?
Answer:
Madigas belongs to Andhra Pradesh.

Question 20.
What was John Allen?
Answer:
John Allen was the coolie ship.

Question 21.
What work was performed by Madigas?
Answer:
Madiga were experts at cleaning hides, tanning them for use, and sewing sandals.

Question 22.
Who was Pandita Rama Bai?
Answer:
Pandita Rama Bai was a great scholar of Sanskrit.

Women, Caste and Reform Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 9 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What was the childhood experience of Dr Ambedkar because of his belonging to the Mahar Community?
Answer:
Dr Ambedkar was bom into a Mahar family. As a child he experienced what caste prejudice meant in everyday life. In school he was forced to sit outside the classroom on the ground. He was not even allowed to drink water from taps that upper-caste children used.

Question 2.
What was the argument of E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker about the untouchables?
Answer:
E.V. Ramaswamy argued that untouchables were the upholders of an original Tamil and Dravidian culture which had been subjugated by BrahmAnswer: He felt that all religious authorities saw social divisions and inequality as God-given. Untouchables had to free themselves from all religions in order to achieve social equality.

Question 3.
What was the objective of associations founded by the upper caste Hinduism?
Answer:
The objectives of these associations were to uphold caste distinctions as a cornerstone of Hinduism and how things were sanctified by scriptures.

Question 4.
What was claimed by Phule about the time period before the Aryan rule?
Answer:
Phule claimed that before the Aryan rule there existed a golden age when warrior peasants tilled the land and ruled the Maratha countryside in just and fairways. He proposed that Shudras and Ati Shudras should unite to challenge caste discrimination.

Question 5.
How did Muslim women play a notable role in promoting education among women?
Answer:
Muslim women like the Begums of Bhopal played a notable role in promoting education among women. They founded primary school for girls at Aligarh. Another remarkable woman named Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain started schools for Muslim girls in Patna and Calcutta. She also argued that religious leaders of every faith accorded an inferior place to women.

Women, Caste and Reform Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 9 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
Explain the Singh Sabha Movement in brief.
Answer:
The Singh Sabha Movement is a reform organization of the Sikhs, the First Singh Sabhas were founded at Amritsar in 1873 and at Lahore in 1879. The Sabhas aimed to rid Sikhism of superstitions, caste distinctions and practices seen by them as non-Sikh. They promoted education among the Sikhs, often combining modern instruction with Sikh teachings.

Question 2.
How challenging was the life for Dr B.R. Ambedkar during his childhood when he experienced caste prejudice in everyday life? How did he challenge the problems faced by low caste people?
Answer:
Ambedkar was born into a Mahar family. As a child he experienced what caste prejudice meant in everyday life. In school he was forced to sit outside the classroom on the ground and was not allowed to drink water from taps that upper caste children used.

After finishing school, he got a fellowship to go to the U.S. for higher studies. On his return to India in 1919, he wrote extensively about upper caste power in contemporary society.

In 1927 Ambedkar started a temple entry movement. The movement of temple entry was participated by Mahar caste followers. Brahman priests were outraged when the Dalits used water from the temple tank. Ambedkar led 3 such movements for temple entry between 1927 and 1935. His aim was to make everyone see the power of caste prejudices within the society.

Picture Based Questions Class 8 History Chapter 9 Women, Caste and Reform

Look at the picture given below and answer the following questions:
1.

(i) Name the following and was drawn by whom?
(ii) Who were not allowed to enter the temples?
Answer:
(i) The gateway to the Madurai temple, drawn by Thomas Daniell.
(ii) untouchables.

2.

(i) What has been shown in the picture?
(ii) When was it established?
(iii) by whom it was established?
Answer:
(i) The Khalsa College Amritsar.
(ii) In 1892.
(iii) Leaders of the Singh Sabha movement

In this chapter, “Class 8 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation,” we’ll explore how the British colonial rulers used education as a means to propagate their ideologies and exert control over the native population. From the establishment of colonial educational institutions to the deep-rooted impact of Western education on traditional knowledge systems, this narrative unravels the complexities of cultural assimilation and resistance. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science .

Class 8 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation

Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 8 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
Define the term linguist.
Answer:
Linguist is someone who knows and studies several languages.

Question 2.
What was main aim behind establishing Hindu College in Benaras in 1791?
Answer:
Hindu College was established to encourage the study of ancient Sanskrit texts that would be useful for the administration of the country.

Question 3.
What is meant by an Orientalist?
Answer:
Orientalists were those who were having scholarly knowledge of the language and culture of Asia.

Question 4.
How did Thomas Babington Macaulay see India?
Answer:
He saw India as an uncivilized country that needed to be civilized.

Question 5.
Why was the English Education Act introduced and in which year?
Answer:
Following Macaulay’s minute, the English Education Act of 1835 was introduced.

Question 6.
Who toured the districts of Bengal and Bihar in 1830’s?
Answer:
In 1830’s William Adam, a Scottish missionary toured the districts of Bengal and Bihar.

Question 7.
When did the Company decide about improving the system of vernacular education?
Answer:
After 1854, the Company decided to improve the system of vernacular education.

Question 8.
Name the institution established by Rabindranath Tagore.
Answer:
‘Santiniketan’ was established by Rabindranath Tagore in 1901.

Question 9.
Who was William John.
Answer:
William Jones was appointed as Junior Judge at the supreme court of company.

Question 10.
Which languages were learnt by William Jones?
Answer:
Greek, Latin, French and English.

Question 11.
By whom was the Asiatic society of Bengal was setup?
Answer:
By William Jones.

Question 12.
From whom did William Johns learnt Sanskrit language?
Answer:
The Pandits.

Question 13.
In which year was Madarsa setup in Calcutta?
Answer:
In 1781.

Question 14.
When was the Hindu college Benaras was established?
Answer:
In 1791.

Question 15.
Who emphasized on teaching of English language in manner of civilizing, changing the taste values and cultures of the Indians?
Answer:
Lord Macaulay.

Question 16.
When was the English Education act introduced?
Answer:
In 1835.

Question 17.
Who was William Carey.
Answer:
William Carey was a Scottish missionary.

Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 8 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
In what sense does Gandhiji and Tagore’s thoughts were similar and different about western education?
Answer:
In many senses Tagore’s and Gandhiji’s thoughts about western education were similar. There were several differences too. Gandhiji was highly critical of western education, civilisation and its worship of machines and technology.

But Tagore wanted to combine elements of modern western civilisation with the best within Indian tradition. Tagore emphasized on the needs to teach science and technology along with art, music and dance.

Question 2.
Why did Tagore hate going to school in his school days?
Answer:
He found school suffocating and oppressive. The school appeared like a prison to him as he could never do what he felt like doing. And the experience of Tagore’s school days in Calcutta shook his ideas of education. These were reasons why he hated going to school in his school days.

Question 3.
What did Mahatma Gandhi say about western education?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi said that western education focused on reading and writing rather than oral knowledge. It valued textbooks rather than practical knowledge. He argued that education ought to develop a person’s mind and soul. Literacy or simple learning to read and write by itself did not count as education.

Question 4.
What consequences were there of the new rules and routine over the earlier pathshala students who accepted the British rules?
Answer:
In the earlier system of Pathshala, students from poor peasant families had been able to go to pathshalas as the timetable was flexible before adoption of rules of the British government.

The discipline of the new system demanded regular attendance, even during harvest time when children of poor families had to work in the fields. Inability to attend school came to be seen as indiscipline, as evidence of the lack of desire to learn.

Question 5.
What did James Mill declare while attacking the orientalists?
Answer:
James Mill attacked the orientalists and declared that the British should not make efforts to teach what the natives wanted or respected, in order to please them. The aim of education ought to be to teach what was useful and practical. So Indians should be made familiar with the scientific and technical advancements that the west had made, rather than with the poetry and sacred literature of the orientals.

Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 8 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
In view of Mahatma Gandhi, why was practical knowledge very much essential for development of person’s mind and soul?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi believed that western education focused on reading and writing rather than lived experiences and practical knowledge. He argued that education ought to develop a person’s mind and soul. Literacy – or simply learning to read and write by itself did not count as education.

People had to work with their hands, learn a craft, and know-how different things operated. This would develop their mind and their capacity to understand. This is why Mahatma Gandhi believed that practical knowledge was very much essential for development of person’s mind and soul.

Question 2.
Explain the William Adam’s report produced on the progress of education in vernacular schools.
Answer:
William Adam had been asked by the Company to report on the progress of education in vernacular schools. The report Adam produced was interesting.

Adam found that there were over 1 lakh pathshalas in Bengal and Bihar. These were small institutions with no more than 20 students each. But the total number of children being taught in these pathshalas was considerable over 20 lakh. These institutions were set up by wealthy people, or the local community. At times they were started by a teacher (guru).

The system of education was flexible. Adam discovered that this flexible system was suited to local needs. For instance, classes were not held during harvest time when rural children often worked in the fields. The pathshala started once again when the crops had been cut and stored. This meant that even children of peasant families could study.

Question 3.
Explain Wood’s Despatch. What was mentioned in its provision?
Answer:
In 1854, the Court of Directors of the East India Company in London sent an educational despatch to the Governor-General in India, issued by Charles Wood, the president of the Board of Control of the Company. It has come to be known as Wood’s Despatch.

1. It emphasized once again on the practical benefits of system of European learning.
2. One of the practical uses the Despatch pointed to was economic European learning.
3. It said, it would enable Indians to recognize the advantages that flow from the expansion of trade and commerce.
4. Wood’s Despatch argued that European learning would improve the moral character of Indians.
5. It would make them truthful and honest and would supply the Company with civil servants who could be trusted and depended upon.
6. The literature of East was believed to be full of errors and also couldn’t instill in the people a sense of duty and a commitment to work nor could it develop the skill required for administration.

Picture Based Questions Class 8 History Chapter 8 Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation

Look at the picture given below and answer the following questions:

Question:
1. Who was Henry Thomas Cookbrooke?

2. Whom does the monument belong to?

3. Along with whom is Mahatma Gandhi sitting with civilizing the “NATIVE” Educating the Nation.

4. What does the picture shows?

Answer:

1. He was a scholar of Sanskrit and ancient sacred writings of Hinduism.
2. Monument belongs to Warren Hastings.
3. He is sitting with Kasturba Gandhi and Rabindranath Tagore.
4. The picture shows a class in progress in Santiniketan in the 1930’s.