CBSE previous Year Solved Papers Class 12 Maths Outside Delhi 2009

CBSE previous Year Solved  Papers  Class 12 Maths Outside Delhi 2009

Time allowed : 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum Marks: 100

General Instructions:

  1.  All questions are compulsory.
  2.  Please check that this question paper contains 26 questions.
  3.  Questions 1-6 in Section A are very short-answer type questions carrying 1 mark each.
  4.  Questions 7-19 in Section B are long-answer I type questions carrying 4 marks each.
  5. Questions 20-26 in Section C are long-answer II type questions carrying 6 marks each.
  6.  Please write down the serial number of the question before attempting it.



Question.1. Find the value of x, if
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-maths-outside-delhi-2009-1 (2)
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-maths-outside-delhi-2009-2 (2)

Question.2. Let * be a binary operation on N given by a*b = HCF (a, b),a,b ∈ N. Write the value of 22 * 4.



cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-maths-outside-delhi-2009-3 (2)


Question.7. Find the value of x from the following:

Question.8. Find the value of p if

Question.9. Write the direction cosines of a line equally inclined to
the three coordinate axes.



Question.11.The length x of a rectangle is decreasing at the rate of 5 cm/minute and the width y is increasing at the rate of 4 cnVminute. When x = 8 cm and y = 6 cm, find the rate of change of (a) the perimeter, (b) the area of the rectangle.

Find the intervals in which the function f given by f (x) = sin x + cos x, 0 ≤ x ≤ 2π is strictly increasing or strictly decreasing.


Solution: CaseI:



Question.16.On a multiple choice examination with three possible answer (out of which only one is correct) for each of the five questions, what is the probability that a candidate would get four or more correct answers just by guessing?
Solution: Given

Question.17. Using properties of determinants, prove the following:

Question.18.Solve the following differential equation:
Solution: Given differential equation is

Question.19. Solve the following differential equation:

Question.20. Find the shortest distance between the following two lines:

Question.21.Prove the following:



Question.23. Find the equation of the plane determined by the points A(3, – 1, 2), B(5, 2, 4) and C(- 1, – 1, 6). Also find the distance of the point P(6,5,9) from the plane.

Question.24. Find the area of the region included between the parabola y2 = x and the line x + y = 2.
Solution: Given equation probla and line are


Question.26.Using matrices, solve the following system of equations:

Question.27. Coloured balls are distributed in three bags as shown in the following table:
A bag is selected at random and then two balls are randomly drawn from the selected bag. They happen to be black and red. What is the probability that they came from bag I
Solution:Let  E2 ,  E2 ,  E3be the following events.

Question.28. A dealer wishes to purchase a number of fans and sewing machines. He has only Rs 5,760 to invest and has a space for at most 20 items. A fan costs him Rs 360 and a sewing machine Rs 240. His expectation is that he can sell a fan at a profit of Rs 22 and a sewing machine at a profit of Rs 18. Assuming that he can sell all the items that he can buy, how should he invest his money in order to maximize the profit ? Formulate this as a linear programming problem and solve it graphically.
Solution: Let the dealer buy x fans and y sewing machines. The LPP is to maximize profit
The feasible region is OBPCO which is shaded in the figure.
P is the point of intersection of the lines x + y = 20 and 3x + 2y = 48.
Solving these equations we get point P (8,12).
The vertices of the feasible region are 0(0, 0), B(0,20), P(8,12), C(16,0)
The value of objective function Z = 22x + 18y at these vertices are as follows:
The maximum profit is Rs 392 when 8 fans and 12 sewing machines are purchased.

Question.29. If the sum of the lengths of the hypotenuse and a side of a right-angled is given, show that the area of the triangle is maximum when the angle between them is π/360
Solution: Let, Base PQ = a
Hypotenuse, PR = b
Let 0 be the angle between them.


Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous Set.





Question.18. Find the shortest distance between the following two lines:

Question.19. Form the differential equation of the family of circles touching the y-axis at origin.
Solution : The centre of the circle touching the y-axis at the origin lies on x-axis.
Let C (a, 0) be the centre of the circle and its radius is a Now, the equation of the family of circle with centre (a, 0) and radius a is

Question.21. Using properties of determinants, prove the following:
Solution :


Question.25. Find the area of the region included between the parabola 4y = 3×2 and the line 3x – 2y +12 = 0.
Solution: Given parabola


Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous Sets.



Question.10. Find the value of x from the following:


Question.13. Find the shortest distance between the following two lines:

Question.14. Form the differential equation representing the family of curves given by (x – a) 2+ 2y2 = a2, where a is an arbitrary constant.
Solution:Given family of curves is

Question.16. Using properties of determinants, prove the following:
Solution:Taking L.H.S.



Question.23. Find the area of the region bounded by the curves y2 = 4ax and x2 = 4ay.
Solution: The equations of parabola are

Question.26. A man is known to speak the truth 3 out of 5 times. He throws a die and reports that it is a number greater than 4. Find the probability that it is actually a number greater than 4.
Solution: Let E1 be the event that a number greater than 4 and E2 be the event that a number is not greater than 4.

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 10

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 10

[Time Allowed : 3 hrs.]                                                                                              [Maximum Marks] : 100

General Instruction:

  1. All Questions are compulsory.
  2. Question numbers 1-5 are of 1 mark each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 20 words each.
  3. Question numbers 6-10 are of 2 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 40 words each.
  4. Question numbers 11-16 are of 4 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
  5. Question numbers 17-21 are of 5 marks each. The answers to this question should not exceed 150 words.
  6. Question numbers 22-27 are of 6 marks each. The answers to this question should not exceed 150 words.

Question.1. “Non-alignment does not imply neutrality or equidistance.” What does this statement mean ?
Answer. Non-alignment does not imply neutrality or equidistance because neutrality refers principally to a policy of staying out of war. Non-alignment is a concept opposed to belligerency and Nam countries should keep away from both two United States and the Soviet Union.

Question.2. What is the new name of former USSR ?
Answer. The new name of former USSR is Russia.

Question.3. What is the main function of Amnesty International ?
Answer. Amnesty International is a non-governmental organisation whose main function is to promote respect for all the human beings and to protect human rights all over the world.

Question.4. When were the New economic reforms announced ?
Answer. The new economic reforms were announced in 1991 as the structural adjustment programme. It was started by Rajiv Gandhi. These changes first became visible in 1991 and radically changed the direction that the Indian economy had pursued since independence.

Question.5. How far is it correct to call India a world power ?
Answer. To a great extent it is correct to call India a world power on the basis of its

  1. fastest economic growth and
  2. being promoter of International peace as an active member of NAM.

Question.6. What do we refer to as arenas of cold war ? Give any one example.
Answer. The arenas of the cold war refers to the areas where crises and war occurred or threatened to occur between the alliance system but did not cross certain limits.
We can take the exampfe of the Cuban missile crisis, which was only one of the several crises which occurred during the cold war but fortunately both sides, US and USSR, decided to avoid war. .

Question.7. How many member-countries have got Veto power in the UN Security Council and why ?
Answer. A special Veto power with negative nature is enjoyed by five permanent members of .the Security Council like USA, Russia, France, China and The United Kingdom.
These countries are the founder members of the UN. So, they have been given a greater say in the decision making of the UN.

Question.8. What was meant by Princely States ? How many Princely States were there in India at the time of independence ?
Answer. Indian states ruled by princes before independence were called princely states. These states enjoyed some form of control over their internal affairs as long as they accepted British supremacy.
Princely states covered one – third of the land area of the British Indian Empire. There were as many as 565 princely states in all.

Question.9. Why has India refused to sign the CTBT ?
Answer. India has refused to sign the CTBT because it is selectively applicable to the non-nuclear powers and legitimised the monopoly of the five permanent members.
Besides, India considers the CTBT and NPT as discriminatory.

Question.10. What was ‘Shah Commission of Inquiry’ ? How did the government react to it ?
Answer. The Shah Commission was appointed in May 1977 by the Janata Party Government. It was a Commission of Inquiry headed by Justice J.C. Shah, retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India. It was set up to investigate

  1. several aspects of allegations of abuse of authority, excesses and malpractices committed and action taken in the wake of emergency, proclaimed on 25th June 1975.
  2. The Commission examined various kinds of evidences and called scores of witnesses to give testimonies. This included Indira Gandhi who appeared before the Commission but refused to answer any question.

Question.11. How far is it correct to say that the 9/11 attack on the World Trade Center was the attack on the US hegemony ? Explain.
Answer. The 9/11 attacks were one of the major human disasters. On 11 September 2001, nineteen hijackers, hailing from a number of Arab countries, took control of four American commercial aircraft shortly after takeoff and flew them into important buildings in the US.

  1. Two airliners crashed into the North and South Towers of the World Trade Center in New York.
  2. The third Aircraft crashed into the Pentagon building in Arlington where the US Defence Department is headquartered.
    The fourth aircraft, presumably bound for the capital building of the US Congress came down in a field in Pennsylvania.
    The 9/11 attacks killed nearly three thousand people. The shocking part for the Americans was that they have been compared to the British burning of Washington DC in 1814 and the Japanese attack On Pearl Harbor in 1941. However in terms of loss of life, 9/11 was the most severe attack on US soil since the founding of the country in 1776.
    The US response to 9/11 was swift and ferocious. The then President Bush had a much harder view of US interests and of the means by which to advance them.

Question.12. Describe the outcome of the Anandpur Sahib Resolution of 1973.
Answer. Anandpur Sahib Resolution was passed at the conference of Akali Dal at Anandpur Sahib in 1973.
(a) The Anandpur Sahib Resolution asserted regional autonomy and wanted to redefine centre -state relationship in the country.
(b) The resolution also spoke of the aspirations of the Sikh qaum and declared its goal as attaining the bolbala (dominance or hegemony) of the sikhs.
(c) Hence the resolution was a plea for strengthening the federation, but it could also be interpreted as a plea for a separate sikh nation.
But, the resolution had a limited appeal among the Sikh masses because of the lack of popularity of Akali Dal. As a result a few years later Akali government was dismissed in 1980 and the resolution lost its importance.
Afterwards, Akali Dal launched a movement on the question of the distribution of water between Punjab and its neighbouring states. Soon, the leadership of the movement passed from the moderate Akalis to the extremist elements and took the form of armed insurgency.
Thus, in this background the Anandpur Sahib Resolution became controversial as it was held responsible for the insurgency in Punjab.

Question.13. Describe any two important components of India’s security strategy.
Answer. India’s security strategy has four components such as strengthening its military capabilities and international norms and institutions, meeting security challenges within the country and to develop its economy fast.

  1. The first strategy is to make military capabilities strong because India has been involved in conflicts with its neighbours;
    Pakistan : in 1947-48,1965,1971 and 1999 and China : in 1962.
    To show strength India tested her nuclear power in 1974 and 1998.
  2. To strengthen international norms and international institutions, India argued for an equitable New International Economic Order (NIEO).
  3. India opted for ‘NAM’ to achieve peace.
  4. India sent her army to UN peacekeeping force in support of cooperative security initiatives.

Question.14. How did the state of Hyderabad become a part of the Indian Union after partition ?
Answer. Hyderabad was the largest princely state of Indian territory. Its ruler was titled as Nizam and
he was one of the world’s richest men. Regarding joining Indian Union the Nizam wanted an independent state for Hyderabad and entered into a Standstill Agreement with India.
But the people of Hyderabad were not happy with the non-democratic rule of Nizam. So, a movement of the people of Hyderabad state against the Nizam rule gathered force. Various sections of society participated in the movement.

  1. Thepeasantry—theTelangana region in particular, was the victim of Nizam’s oppressive rule and rose against him.
  2. Women who had seen the worst of the oppression, joined the movement in large numbers.
  3. The communists and the Hyderabad Congress were in the forefront of the movement.
  4. Hyderabad town was the nerve centre of this movement.
  5. In retaliation the Nizam responded by unleashing a paramilitary force known as the Razakars on the people.
  6. Ultimately the Central Government had to order the army to tackle the situation.
    And in September 1948 Indian arrrjy moved in to control the Nizam’s force. All this led to the accession of Hyderabad to India.

Question.15. “Foreign policy is always dictated by national interests.” Do you agree with this view ?
Support your answer with any two suitable arguments.
Answer. Yes, India’s foreign policy reflects her desire to be an important regional power. This was very much revealed during the Bangladesh War of 1971.
In the beginning of 1970, Pakistan faced its biggest crisis by way of a split verdict i.e. Zulfikar AN Bhutto’s party emerged a winner in West Pakistan, while Awami League led by Sheikh Mujib-ur-Rahman swept through East Pakistan. The Bengali population of East Pakistan had voted to protest against the discriminatory attitude of West Pakistan. But the Pakistan rulers were not willing to accept the democratic verdict.
And in early 1971, Pakistani army arrested Sheikh Mujib and unleashed a reign of terror on. the people of East Pakistan. Thus a people’s struggle was started to liberate Bangladesh from Pakistan.

  1. India had to bear the burden of about 80 Lakh refugees who fled East Pakistan and took shelter in neighbouring areas in India. Thus India extended moral and material support to the freedom struggle in Bangladesh.
  2. After months of diplomatic tension and military build-up, a full-scale War between India and Pakistan broke out in December 1971. Pakistani aircraft attacked Punjab and Rajasthan. India retaliated with an attack involving the airforce, navy and army.
  3. Within ten days the Indian army surrounded Dhaka from three sides and the Pakistani army had to surrender. With Bangladesh as a free country, India declared a unilateral ceasefire and the Shimla Agreement was signed between Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto on 3rd July 1972.
    So, a decisive victory in the War led to national jubilation. Most people in India saw this as a moment of glory and a clear sign of India’s growing military prowess.

Question.16. Describe any two developments witnessed by India after 1990.
Answer. The two developments witnessed by India after 1990 were the decade of Coalition Era and New Economic Policy.

  1. New Economic Policy : In 1991, the Congress led by Narasimha Rao, introduced the ‘New Economic Policy’ with liberalisation and globalisation as the main planks. Even though it was criticised by various movements and organisations it was followed by the later governments.
  2. Changes in the Political System : The era of coalitions in 1989 symbolically indicated the decline of Congress, i.e., the end of Congress dominance over the Indian party system.
    The decade of 1990s saw an era of multi-party system. It also saw the emergence of powerful parties and movements that represented the dalits and backward castes.
    The role of left parties changed with time regarding alliances. For example, in 1996 they supported the BJP, then the Congress and now again they oppose Congress.
    Since 1990, a long phase of coalition politics began in India. There have been nine governments at the centre, all of which have either been coalition governments (or) minority government supported by other parties. This could be seen as National Front (1989), the United Front (1996) and (1997), the NDA (1999) and the UPA(2004 and 2009).

Question.17. Answer the following questions based upon the Presidential address of Mohammad Ali Jinnah at Karachi on August, 11,1947 :
“We should begin to work in that spirit and in course of time all these angularities of the majority and minority communities, the Hindu community and the Muslim community – because even as regards Muslims you have Pathans, Punjabis, Shias, Sunnis and so on and among the Hindus you have Brahmins, Vaishnavas, Khatris, also Bengalees, Madrasis and so on – will vanish…. You are free; you are free to go to your temples, you are free to go to your mosques or to any other place of worship in this State of Pakistan. You may belong to any religion or caste or creed – that has nothing to do with the business of the State.”
(a) Do you think that Jinnah’s statement contradicts the theory which was the basis of the creation of Pakistan ? Justify your answer.
(b) What is the essence of Jinnah’s statement in this passage ?
(c) To what extent did Pakistan live up to Jinnah’s expectations in this passage ?
(a) Jinnah’s statement does not contradict the theory of ‘two nations state’. His two nation state theory does not mean the interference between other communities like Pathans, Punjabis, Shias and Sunnis.
His aim was the creation of a separate state for Muslims but not to interfere in other communities.
(b) The essence of Jinnah’s statement in this passage is his secular outlook regarding the protection and promotion of every community’s identity. For example, what he said was that, “You are free to go to your temples, you are free to go to your mosques or to any place of worship in this state of Pakistan”.
(c) Pakistan did not live up to Jinnah’s expectations because after independence Pakistan became a ‘Theocratic State’ and did not respect the interest of other communities.

Question.18. Read this passage and answer the following questions:
“Even as political parties act within the sphere of a given consensus, political movements and organisations are simultaneously identifying new forms, visions and pathways of development. Issues like poverty, displacement, minimum wages, livelihood and social security are being put on the political agenda by peoples’ movements, reminding the state of its responsibility.”
(a) What is the ‘consensus’ mentioned in this passage ?
(b) What is the relationship between political parties and movements in contemporary India?
(c) Substantiate the point made in this passage with the example of any popular movement.
(a) Consensus on 4 elements among political parties :

  1. Agreement on economic policies: The new economic policy introduced in 1991 received both kinds of reactions (positive and negative).
  2. Acceptance of the political and social claims of the backward classes.
  3. Acceptance of the role of state level parties (regional parties) in the governance of the country.
  4. Emphasis on pragmatic considerations rather than ideological positions and political alliances without ideological agreement.

(b) A weak relationship exists between the political parties and popular movements in contemporary India. Popular movements are usually non-party movements. They are generally led by voluntary organisations. They do not contest the elections. They believe that direct participation by people would be more effective solving local issues rather than depending on the political parties. They put pressure on the government and do not want to be used by political parties as their vote banks. .
(c) Narmada Bachao Andolan (NBA)

  1. This movement was against the Sardar Sarovar Project in the Narmada valley. The project consisted of 30 big dams, 135 medium-sized and around 3000 small dams to be constructed on Narmada and its tributaries.
  2. The NBA opposed the project keeping in view larger issues concerning the nature of ongoing development projects. It demanded that there should be a cross-benefit analysis of the major developmental projects completed in the country so far.
  3. Initially the movement demanded proper and just rehabilitation of all those directly or indirectly affected by the project. Later they insisted that local communities should be associated with the decision-making processes.
    Gujarat, the state which get benefited opposed NBA. In 2003, a comprehensive National Rehabilitation Policy formed by the government can be seen as an achievement of NBA. The Supreme Court verdict was*to go ahead with the construction of the dam and to ensure proper rehabilitation.

Question.19. “The collapse of Communism and transition from authoritarian socialist system to a democratic capitalist system served as a ‘shock therapy’ to the Soviet Union’. Justify the statement by referring its nature and features.

  1. What was Shock Therapy ?
  2. State two of Shock Therapy ?
  3. How did it ruin the economy of Soviet Union.

Answer. The ‘Shock Therapy” was the “State of affairs” which signifies the collapse of communism followed by a painful process of transition from an authoritarian socialist system to a democratic capitalist system. The model of transition in Russia, Central Asia and East Europe was influenced by the World Bank and the IMF.
‘Shock Therapy’ varied in intensity and speed amongst the former second world countries but its direction and features were quite similar.

  • Capitalist Economy: The shock therapy advocated that every country was required to make a total shift to capitalist economy i.e. the private ownership became a dominant pattern of ownership of property.
  • Private farming : Shock therapy involved the replacement of collective farming to private farming and capitalism in agriculture.
  • Free Trade : Shock Therapy stressed on the external orientation of the economics. With the free trade as the essential condition. The free trade regime and foreign direct investment [FDI] became the main engines of change.
  • Trade alliances with west : In shock therapy transition also involved a break up of the existing trade alliances among the countries of the Soviet Bloc. Each state from the bloc was supposed to be directly linked to the west instead of inter trade alliance among the regions.
    The western capitalist states now got the dominant position and thus guided and controlled the economic development of the regions.
    Above features of the shock therapy show the transition from authoritarian socialist system to a democratic capitalist system.

solved-cbse-sample-papers-for-class-12-political-science-set-10-1 (2)

  1. Two states which were not part of the state of Assam at the time of India’s independence.
  2. The state whose leader signed an agreement with Rajiv Gandhi in 1986.
  3. The state which declared independence from India in 1951.
  4.  The state which was carved out of Assam in 1972.
  5. The 22nd state of India due to its merger.


  1. Manipur and Tripura
  2. Mizoram
  3. Nagaland
  4.  Meghalaya
  5. Sikkim

Question.21. Look atthepicturegiven below and answer the following questions.

  1. What information do you get from the picture ? Support your answer.
  2. Even after attaining the post of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi was not happy. Give two reasons.


  1. From the above cartoon we get the information that the senior Congress leaders supported Indira Gandhi in the belief that her administrative and political inexperience
    would compel her to become a puppet leader i.e, dependent on them for support and guidance.
  2. After attainting the post of Prime-Minister Indira Gandhi was not happy because :
    (a) At that time India was suffering from Economic crisis which was a great challenge before her.
    (b) There was intense competition for leadership where she had to show her political maturity.

Question.22. Evaluate the role of European Union as a supra-national organization.
Analyse the common problems of South Asian countries.
Answer. As a supra-national organisation, the European Union intervenes in economic, political and social areas. It has thus, economic, political, diplomatic and military influence.
Economic Areas : As far as the economic nature/aspect of European Union is concerned, it is considered as the World’s biggest economy with a GDP of more than $12 trillion in 2005, slightly larger than that of the United States.
(a) European Union’s economic power gives it influence over its closest neighbours as well as in Asia and Africa.
(b) Its share of world trade is three times larger than that of the United States.
(c) Its uniform currency, the euro, can pose a threat to the dominance of the US dollar.
(d) Moreover, European Upion also functions as an important bloc in international organisations such as the World Trade Organisation (WTO).
In this way, as a supra-national organisation, the European Union is able to intervene in Economic Areas.
Political and Diplomatic Areas : Besides being the world’s biggest economy, European Union also has political and diplomatic influence in the world arena.
Political and Diplomatic Aspects.
The European Union has a great influence on some of the UN policies because its two members, Britain and France, hold permanent seats in the UN Security Council. It also includes several non-permanent members has the UNSC.
Not only this, the European Union has an effective influence in the arenas of diplomacy, economic investments and negotiations except coercion and military force. For example European Union’s dialogue with China on human rights and environmental degradation was very effective.
Military Influence : The European Union was established in 1992 after the collapse of the Soviet Union. It was started as an Economic Union but over time it has evolved from an Economic Union into an increasingly political one.
The EU now has started to act more as a nation-state.
(a) It has tried to expand areas of cooperation while acquiring new members, especially from the erstwhile Soviet bloc.
(b) Besides, European Union has its own flag, anthem, founding date and currency.
(c) It has also some form of a common foreign and security policy in its dealings with other nations.
It is an established fact that the South Asian region can develop and prosper if the states of the region cooperate with each other.
(a) But when India and Pakistan joined the club of nuclear powers, this region suddenly became the focus of global attention.
(b) There are various kinds of conflicts in this region.
(c) Border and watersharing disputes remain unsolved.
(d) Apart from these, South Asian region still suffers from insurgency, ethnic strife and conflict on resource sharing.
All this puts a question mark on the prosperity of the South Asian region and makes it very turbulent. ~
A common feature of all the South Asian countries is that they stand for diversity in every sense and yet constitute one geo-political space.

  1. Another aspect in which it is different from countries in West Asia or South East Asia is that ours is a region where rivalry and cooperation, hope and despair, mutual suspicion and trust co-exist.
  2. Besides, the people of South Asian countries share the aspiration for democracy which is not common in West Asia or South East Asia.

Question.23. Like India, why could democracy not take roots in Pakistan despite the fact that both the countries share a common past ?
What are the major differences between the SAARC and the European Union as alternative centres of power ?
Answer. Actually in Pakistan, the military rule and democracy play hide and seek. This can be very much proved with following examples :

  1. Immediately after the implementation of Pakistan’s first constitution, Gen.
    Ayub Khan took over the administration of the country and soon got himself elected. But there was popular dissatisfaction against his rule which in turn gave way to a military dictatorship under Gen. Yahya Khan.
  2. Again after 1971 Indo-Pak war an elected government was formed under the leadership of Zulfikar Ali Bhutto but after six years the Bhutto government was removed by Gen. Zia-ul-Haq in 1977.
  3. But very soon Gen. Zia faced a pro-democracy movement from 1982 onwards and an elected democratic government was established once again in 1988 under the leadership of Benazir Bhutto.
  4. This phase of democracy again halted and Benazir Bhutto was replaced by Nawaz Sharif.
  5. Very soon army again stepped in Pakistan’s democracy in which Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif was removed by Gen. Pervez Musharaf in 1999.
    Later on in 2005 he got himself elected as the president. Now Pakistan has a civil government again with Asif AN Zardari as president. Thus we can conclude that military rule and democracy are the two sides of the same coin. (Any three)

Question.24. What were the major challenges of building democracy in India ?
What were the early initiatives taken by the Planning Commission for building a new India ?
Answer. Immediately after independence there were many challenges or problems in India that needed a solution. These challenges can be categorised as :

  1. A challenge to shape a nation,
  2. A challenge to establish democracy and,
  3. A challenge to ensure the development and well-being of the entire society.
  1. To Shape a Nation : The first and foremost challenge was the political unification and integration of the territory. India is a land of continental size and diversity. There were around 600 states of varying size and population. The partition of the country appeared to prove every one’s worst fears. Hence there was a serious question about the future of India, i.e., would India survive as a unified country. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel took upon himself the task of integrating these princely states, which was completed in stages.
  2. To Establish Democracy : Another challenge was to develop democratic practices in accordance with the Constitution, i.e., India opted for a representative democracy, based on the parliamentary form of government.
  3. To Ensure the Development and Well being of the Society: The third challenge was to evolve effective policies for economic development and eradication of poverty and unemployment. The Indian constitution set out in the directive principles of state policy the welfare goals that democratic polities must achieve.
    All these challenges required a deliberate effort which India put for accommodating social differences, establishing a welfare state and by democratising political institutions.

Before independence the need for planning was felt and the Indian National Congress, under the leadership of Nehru, set up the “National Planning Committee” in the 1930s.

  1. It did considerable work collecting data and setting aims for future development.
  2. In 1946, the Advisory Planning Board was set up.
  3. As a follow up the Planning Commission opted for five year plans and annual budget with non-plan budget and plan budget.

The Cabinet Resolution of 1950 regarding the purpose of mixed economy stated the following under the scope of Planning Commission.

  1. That the citizens, men, women, have equal right to an adequate means of livelihood.
  2. That the ownership and control of the material resources of the country are so distributed as best to serve the common good.
  3.  That the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

Question.25. Explain the major issues which were responsible for the formal split in the Congress Party in 1969.
What were the major conflicts between the Parliament and the Judiciary during the leadership of Indira Gandhi ?
Answer. The formal split in the Congress took place in 1969 on the issue of Presidential Election. The factional rivalry between the Syndicate and Indira Gandhi came in the open in 1969 on the issue of the nomination of a candidate for the president’s post.

  1. Despite Mrs GandhiVeservations, the syndicate managed to nominate her long time opponent and then Speaker of the Lok Sabha, N. Sanjeeva Reddy, as the official Congress candidate for the presidential contest.
  2. Indira Gandhi retaliated by encouraging the then vice-president V.V. Giri to file his nomination as an independent candidate.
  3. During the election, the then Congress President S. Nijalingappa issued a “whip” asking all the Congress MPs and MLAs to vote in favour of Sanjeeva Reddy.
  4. On the other hand, after silently supporting V.V. Giri, the Prime Minister openly called for a conscience vote-to vote the way they wanted.

And, the election ultimately resulted in the victory of V.V. Giri and the defeat of Sanjeeva Reddy.
The defeat of the official Congress candidate formalised a split in the party into two like:solved-cbse-sample-papers-for-class-12-political-science-set-10-6
Before the declaration of emergency it was a period when the government and the ruling party had many differences with the Judiciary. Three constitutional issues emerged which led to a conflict between judiciary, legislature (Parliament) and the executive.

  1. Firstly, can the Parliament abridge Fundamental Rights ? The Supreme Court said it can not.
  2. Secondly, can the Parliament curtail the “right to property by making an amendment? Again, the court said that Parliament can not amend the constitution in such a manner that rights are curtailed.
  3. Thirdly, the Parliament amended the constitution saying that it can abridge Fundamental Rights for giving effect to Directive Principles of State Policy. But the Supreme Court rejected this provision also.
    This led to a crisis as far as relations between the government and the judiciary were concerned. This is very much proved in the famous Kesavananda Bharti case. In this case, the court gave a decision that there are some basic features of the constitution and Parliament can not amend these features.
    Besides, two more- developments added to the tension between the judiciary and the executive. Immediately after the Supreme Court’s decision in 1973 in the Keshavananda Bharti case, a vacancy arose for the post of the Chief Justice of India and the government set aside the seniority of three judges and appointed justice A.N. Ray as the Chief Justice of India. This appointment became politically controversial because all three judges who were superseded had given a ruling against the stand of the government.
    Another jolt came as the ruling of the High Court which declared Indira Gandhi’s Lok Sabha election invalid.
    In this way, the constitutional interpretations and political ideologies were getting mixed up rapidly.

Question.26. Explain any three elements of consensus which have emerged among most political parties after the Lok Sabha elections of 2004.
The Anti-Arrack movement in Andhra Pradesh drew attention of the country to some serious issues. What were these issues ?
Answer. In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts, a consensus appears to have emerged among most parties. This consensus consists of four elements.

  1. Agreement on new economic policies: While many groups are opposed to the new
    economic policies, most political parties are in support of the new economic policies. Most parties believe that these policies would lead the country to prosperity and a status of economic power in the world. .
  2. Acceptance of the political and social claims of the backward castes: Political parties have recognised that the social and political claims of the backward castes need to be accepted. As a result all political parties now support reservation of seats for the backward classes in education and employment. Political parties are also willing to ensure that the OBCs get adequate share of power.
  3. Acceptance of the role of state level parties in governance of the country : The
    distinction between state.level and national level parties is fast becoming less important.
  4. Emphasis on pragmatic considerations rather than ideological positions and political alliances without ideological agreement: Coalition politics has shifted the focus of political parties from ideological differences to power sharing arrangements. Thus, most parties of the NDA did not agree with the Hindutva ideology of the BJP, yet, they came together to form a government and remained in power for a full term.
    To sum up, all these are momentous changes and are going to shape politics in the near future.

The Anti-Arrack movement was the movement of rural women from the state of Andhra Pradesh. They fought a battle against alcoholism, against mafias and against the government during this period.
It was a spontaneous mobilisation of women demanding a ban on the sale of alcohol in their neighbourhoods.

  1. The Anti-Arrack movement had its roots in the “adult literacy drive” where women complained of increased consumption of a locally brewed alcohol-arrack-by men in their families. It affected the rural economy as well.
  2. Thus, women in Nellore came together in spontaneous local initiatives to protest against arrack and forced the closure of the wine shop. This movement in Nellore District slowly spread all over the state.


  1. The slogan of the Anti-Arrack Movement was simple i.e. prohibition on the sale of arrack.
    But this simple demand touched upon larger social, economic and political issues of the region that affected women’s life. A close nexus between crime and politics was established around the business of arrack.
  2. The groups of local women tried to address these complex issues in their agitation against arrack.
  3. They also openly discussed the issue of domestic violence like dowry, sexual violence etc.
  4. Thus, the Anti-Arrack movement provided a platform to discuss private issues of domestic

Question.27. Argue for or against one of the following propositions:
“The Emergency showed that the foundations of constitutional democracy are very weak in our country.”
“Indira Gandhi was left with no option except to impose Emergency.”
Answer. Arguments for:

  1. Emergency was declared on 25th June 1975 on the ground of ‘internal disturbances’ by using Article 352 of the Constitution. The Prime Minister India Gandhi recommended the imposition of emergency to the then President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed.
  2. Emergency is one of the most controversial episodes in Indian politics. First reason is that there are different view points regarding the need to declare emergency. Secondly, the government practically suspended the democratic functioning.
  3. The report of the Shah Commission exposed many “excesses” committed by bureaucracy during emergency.
  4. The emergency also brought to light some hidden matters such as the constitutional battle over the jurisdiction of the Parliament and the Judiciary.
  5. Another critical issue that emerged during emergency was the role and extent of mass protests in the parliamentary democracy.
  6. There was clear tension between institution-based democracy and the popular participation of the people.

Arguments against:

  1. The Indian political system is described as open and democratic where emergency could be declared only during ‘Hard’ conditions such as war, external aggression, etc.
  2. Emergency, imposed in 1975, lasted for just two years and then the country returned to normal democratic functioning.
  3. It was also felt that-emergency was declared to protect the position of Indira Gandhi and was not in the interests of India.
  4. The 1977 election and its verdict was totally against the Congress Party. Even Indira Gandhi and her son Sanjay Gandhi were defeated in their constituencies.
  5. The role of judiciary and implementation of amendments led to changes in the democratic polities.

Indira Gandhi had no option except to impose/declare emergency in 1975.

  1. Indira Gandhi argued that in a democracy, the opposition parties should allow the elected ruling party to govern according to its policies.
  2. She felt that the opposition parties and their frequent agitations, protests and collective action led to political instability.
  3. She also held that opposition could not continuously engage in extra-parliamentary politics targeting the government.
  4. She alleged that subversive forces were not allowing her government to implement her progressive programmes (including.20-Point Programme).
  5. She also felt that Judiciary was acting as a hurdle in the functioning of her government.
  6. She believed that to control such subversive forces including some newspapers and the role leading businessmen emergency was necessary.

No need to impose emergency:

  1. Popular struggle occurs when there is a need and the opposition and others consider that it is a legacy of national struggle for freedom.
  2. The movements that occurred before emergency in Bihar and Gujarat were non-violent.
  3. Law and order situation was mostly normal and Emergency during such condition ‘reflected the overreaction’, on the part of the government.
  4. Indira Gandhi did not get the approval of the cabinet while declaring Emergency.
  5. It was also believed that she misused the extraordinary constitutional provisions to remain in power in the name of saving the nation.
  6. There was no such threat to the unity and integrity of the nation. The Government should obey the Judiciary’s Verdict.

CBSE Solved Papers For Class 12 Computer Science (C++) Paper 3

 CBSE Solved Papers For Class 12 Computer Science (C++) Paper 3


Question 1.
(a) Out of the following, find those identifiers, which cannot be used for naming variable, Constants or Functions in a C++ program :

_Cost, Price*Qty, float, Switch,
 Address One, Delete, Numberl2, do

(b) Jayapriya has started learning C++ and has typed the following program. When she complied the following code written by her, she discovered that she needs to include some header files to successfully compile and execute it. Write the names of those header files, which are required to be included in the code.

void main ()
 float A, Number, outcome;
 cin>>A>>Number ;
 outcome=pow (A, Number);

(c) Find the output of the following program:

 void main ()
 char Text [] = {"Mind 0 Work
 for (int I = 0; Text [I] ! = '/O', I++)
 if (!isalpha (Text [I]))
 Text [I]='*';
 else if (isupper (Text [I]))
 Text [I]=Text [I] +1;
 Text [I]=Text [1+1];
 puts (text);

(d) Rewrite the following program after removing the syntactical error(s), if any. Underline each correction.

 const int size=5,
 void main ()
 int Array (size);
 Array={50, 40, 30, 20, 10);
 for int (ctr=0; ctr<size; ctr++); 
cout>>Array [ctr]; }

(e) Find and write the output of the following C+ + program code:
Note: Assume all required header files are already being included in the program.

class market
 long int code;
 float Rate;
 int DD;
 market () { code = 1000; Rate = 100; DD = 1:}
 void Getcode (long int C, float R)
 code = C;
 Rate = R;
 void Update (int change, int D)
 Rate + = Change;
 DD = D;
 void Status ()
 cout < < "Date : " < < DD < < endl;
 cout < < code < < "#" < < Rate < < endl;
 void main ()
 Market S, T, U;
 S. Getcode (1324, 350);
 T. Getcode (1435, 250);
 S. Update (50, 28);
 U. Update (-25, 26);
 S. Status ();
 T. Status ();
 U. Status ();

(f) Observe the following C+ + code and find out, which out of the given options (i) to (iv) are the expected correct output.Also assign the maximum and minimum value that can be assigned to the variable ‘Go’.

void main()
 { int X [4] ={100, 75, 10, 125};
 int Go = random(2)+2;
 for (inti = Go; i< 4; i++)
 i. 100$$75 ii. 75$$10$$125$$ iii. 75$$10$$ iv,10$$125$


 (a) Price*Qty,
 Address one,

(b) iostream.h or iomanip.h
Ignore any other header files, if mentioned.
complex. h is acceptable in place of match.h
(c) The output of the above program is:
ind ***or k**
(d) The correct program is as follows:

 const int size=5;
 void main ()
 int Array [size];
 Array [ ]={50, 40, 30, 20, 10}
 for (int ctr=0; ctr<size; ctr++)
 cout << Array [ctr];

(e) Date: 28
Date : 1
Date : 26

(f) iv is the correct option.
Minimum value of Go = 2
Maximum value of Go = 3

Question 2.
(a) What is function overloading ? Write an example using C++ to illustrate the concept of function overloading.
(b) Observe the following C++ code and answer the question (i) and (ii):

class E and I
 int Temperature, Humidity;
 char city[30];
 public :
 E_and_I() //Function 1
 Temperature=0; Humidity=0;
 cout<<"set to Zero"<<endl;
 void E and I (int T, int H, char c[]) //Function2
 Temperatrue T; .
 Humidity H;
 strcpy(city, c) ;
 void show() //Function3
 cout«"Temperature«"; "<<Humidity«endl;
 ~E_and_I //Function4
 ' {
 cout<<"Data Removed! "<<endl;

(i) Fill in the blank lines as Statement 1 and Statement 2 to execute Functions 2 and 3 respectively in the following code:

void main()
 E and I E;
 ............... //Statement 1
 .............. //Statement 2
 } //The end of main function here

(ii) Which function will be executed at the point where “//The end of main()function here” is written in the above code ? What is this function called and executed here is known as ?
(c) Answer the questions (i) to (iv) based on the following code:

class Teacher
 char TNo [50], TName [20], Dept [10];
 int Workload;
 float Salary;
 void AssignSal (Float);
 Teacher ();
 void TEntry ();
 void TDisplay ();
 class student
 char Admno [10],
 SName [20],
 Stream [10];
 int Attendence, Totmarks;
 student ();
 void SEntry ();
 void SDisplay () ;
 class School: public student, public Teacher
 char SCode [10], SchName [20];
 School ();
 void SchEntry ();
 void SchDisplay ();

(i) Which type of inheritance is depicted by the above example?
(ii) Identify the member function(s) that cannot be called directly from the object of the class School from the following:
TEntry ()
SDisplay ()
SchEntry ()
(iii) Write name of all the member(s) accessible from member function of class School.
(iv) If class school was derived privately from class Teacher and privately from class Student, then, name the member function (s) that could be accessed through object of class school.
(d) Define a class TEACHER with the following specifications:
Private Members:
name: 20 characters
subject 10 characters
basic, da, hra float
Salary float
calculate () A function that computes the salary and returns it. Salary is sum of basic, da and hra.
Public Members:
readata () A function that accept data values and invokes the calculate function,
displaydata () A function that prints the data on the screen.

(a) C++ enables us to create more than one function with the same name. This is called function overloading. The functions must differ in their parameter list, with a different type of parameter, different number of parameters, or both.

int double(intA)
 long Double(long A)
 float Double (float A)
 return (2*A);

(b) (i) Statement 1: E.E_and_I(32,5, “Indore”);
Statement 2 : E. Show ();
(ii) Function 4 will be executed. This function is called as destructor, which is excuted when object goes out of scope. [1]
(c) (i) Multiple Inheritence is depicted by the given example. [1]
(ii) TEntry (), as it is declared protected, write, other two are public.

(iii) Teacher ()
 Tentry ()
 TDisplay ()
 Student ()
 SEntry ()
 SDisplay ()
 School ()
 SchEntry ()
 SchDisplay ()
 Salary ()
 Assign Sal ()

(iv) The member functions are:

SchEntry ()
 SchDisplay ()

(d) class TEACHER
 char name [20];
 char subject [10];
 float basic, da, hra;
 float salary;
 float calculate ()
 return (basic + da + hra);
 void readata ( )
 cout<<"\n Enter the teacher name:";
 cout<<"\n Enter the Subject;";
 cout<<"\n Enter the basic salary:"; cin>>basic;
 cout<<"\n Enter the HRA:"; cin>>hra;
 salary=calculate ();
 void displaydata ()
 cout <<"\n Teacher's name is : ";puts (name) ;
 cout<<"\n Subject taught is:";puts(subject);
 cout<<"\n Basic salary is:"<<basic;
 cout<<"\n Da is"<<da;
 cout<<"\n HRA is;"<<hra;
 cout<<"\n Total salary is:"<<salary;
 } ;

Question 3.
(a) Write a C+ + program to sort an array of 10 integers. Sort array showing status of the array after each pass. Assume 10 integers.
(b) An integer array A [40] [30] is stored along the row in the memory. If the element A[20] [25} is stored at 50000. Find out the location of A [7] [10].
(c) Write a function in C++ to print the sum of all the values which are either divisible by 2 or divisible by 3, present in a two dimensional array passed as the argument to the function.
(d) Write a function in C++ to delete an element from a dynamically allocated queue where each node contains a real number as data. Assume the following definition of MYNODE for the same

struct MYNODE
 float NUM;
 MYNODE * Link;

(e) Evaluate the following postfix notation of expression (show status of stack after execution of each operation);
5, 20, 15, -, *, 25, 2, *, +


(a) /* Sorting Array and Showing Status of Array After Each Pass*/
 void main ()
 int i, array [10], n, j, temp,small, pos;
 clrscr ();n=10;/given in question
 cout<<"Enter size of an array"; cin>>n;
 for (i=0; i<n;i++)
 //Inserting array elements.
 cout<<"Insert"<>array [i];}
 for (i=0;i<10;i++)//program code to sort array
 cout<<"\nArray other pass-"< for(j=0;<10;j ++)
 //Displaying sorted array.
 cout<<"\n Sorted Array Element Are";
 for (i=0; i<n; i++)
 cout<< array [i] ;
 getch ();
(b)A[i J [ j ] =B+Wx[No.of columns (I-Lr) + (J-Lc ]
 A [ 2 0 ] [ 25 ]=B+2x[ 30x(20-0)+(25-0)]
 5000=B+2x[3Ox (20-0) + (25-0) ]
(c) void Div_2_or_3 (int A [ ] [ ] , int N, int M)
 int Sum=0;
 for (int i=0; i<N; i++)
 for (int j=0; j<M; j++)
 if (A [i] [ j ] %2= = 0 || A[i] [ j ] %3= =0)

(d) void QueDel(MyNode*front)
 if (front==NULL)
 cout<<"Queue empty" else { temp=front; front=front—>Link;
 delete temp;

(e) Postfix expression :
5, 20, 15, -, *, 25, 2, *, +

Step Input Operation Stack Status
1 5 PUSH 5 5
2 20 PUSH 20 5   20
3 15 PUSH 15 5 20   15
4 POP 15
POP 20
PUSH 5 5 5
5 * POP 5
PUSH 25 25
6  25 PUSH 25 25 25
7 2 Push 2 25 25 2
8 * POP2
POP 25
PUSH 50 25 50
9  + POP 50
POP 25
25 +50 = 75
PUSH 75 75

Ans. 75

Question 4.
(a) Write a definition for function Economic () in C++ to read each record of a binary file ITEMS. DAT, find and display those items, which costs less than 2500. Assume that the file is created with the help of objects of class ITEMS, which is defined below :

class ITEMS
 int ID; char GIFT [20] ;float cost;
 public :
 void Get ()
 cin>>ID;gets (GIFT) ;cin>>cost;
 void See()
 cout<<ID<<": "GIFT<<": "<<Cost<<endl;
 float Get Cost()
 return Cost;

(b) Write function definition for lower() in C++ to read the content of a text file Book.txt, and count all those leters which are in lowercase.
(c) Find the output of the following C++ code considering that the binary file CLIENTS.DAT exists on the hard disk with records of 100 members.

class Clients
 int cno;charName[20];
 void In();void out();
 void main()
 fstream CF;"CLIENTS.DAT",ios::binary : ios::in);
 CLIENTS C; ,*)&c;sizeof (c)); ((char*) &c; sizeof (c) ) ;*)&C, sizeof (c));
 int P0S=CF.tellg()/sizeof (c);
 cout<<"PRESENT RECORD: "<<P0S<<endl;


(a) void Economic()
 ifstream f;"ITEMS.DAT",ios::binary);
 while(*)&i, size of (i))
 i.See ();
 f.close ();

(b) Function in C++ to count the number of lowercase letters in a text file “Book. Txt”:

void lower()
 char ch;
 int count =0;
 ifstream infile; ("Book.Txt") ;
 if (! infile)
 cout << "can't open the file";
 exit ( ) ;
 (while infile, get (ch) !=0)
 if (islower(ch))
 count ++;
 cout <<count;

(c) POS=66/22 = 3
Present Record: 3


Question 5.
(a) Give some advantages of DBMS.
(b) Consider the following tables consignor and consignee. Write SQL commands for the statements (i) to (iv) and give the outputs for SQL queries (v) to (viii):
Table: Consignor

CnorlD Cnor Name Cnor Address  City
ND 01 R singhal 24, ABC Enclave New Delhi
ND 02 Amit Kumar 133, Palm Avenue New Delhi
MU 15 R Kohli 5/A, South street Mumbai
MU 50 S Kaur 27-K, Westend Mumbai

Table: Consignee

Cnee ID Cnor ID Cnee Name Cnee Address Cnee City
MU 05 ND 01 Rahul Kishore 5, Park Avenue Mumbai
ND 08 ND 02 P Dhingra 16/J, Moore Enclave New Delhi
K 019 MU 15 APRoy 24, Central Avenue Kolkata
MU 32 ND02 S Mittal , P-254, AB Colony Mumbai
ND48 MU 50 BP Jain B, Block D, A vihar New Delhi

(i)To display the name of all consignors from Mumbai
(ii) To display the Cnee ID, Cnor Name, Cnor Address, Cnee Name, Cnee Address for every Consignee
(iii) To display consignee details in ascending order of Cnee Name
(iv) To display number of consignors from each city

 (vi) SELECT A. Cnor Name, B. Cnee Name
 WHERE A. Cnor ID=B. Cnor ID AND
 B. Cnee City='Mumbai';
 (vii) SELECT Cnee Name, Cnee Address
 Where Cnee City Not ( 'Mumbai' , 'Kolkata' ) ;
 (viii) SELECT Cnee ID, Cnee Name
 WHERE Cnor ID='MU 15' or Cnor ID='ND01'

(a) Some of the advantages of DBMS are:
(i) DBMS helps to make the data management more efficiently and effectively.
(ii) DBMS provides end users better access to more and better managed data.
(iii) DBMS provides user security and data privacy within the database.
(iv) DBMS provides back up and recovery procedures to ensure data safety and integrity.

(b) (i) SELECT Cnor Name from CONSIGNOR WHERE CITY="Mumbai";
 (ii) SELECT B. Cneee.ID, A. Cnor Name, A.Cnor Address, B.Cnee Name, B.Cnee Address FROM CONSIGNOR A, CONSIGNEE B WHERE B. Cnor ID=A Cnor ID;
 ORDER BY Cnee Name;
 (iv) SELECT COUNT (City)

(v) Mumbai
New Delhi
(vi) R Singhal
Rahul Kishore
Amit Kumar
S. Mittal
(vii) P Dhingra
16/j, Moore Enclave
BP Jain
13, Block D, A Vihar
(viii) K019
MU 05
Rahul Kishore

Question 6.
(a) Verify the following using Boolean Laws
X + Y’ = X.Y + X.Y’ + X’.Y’
(b) Write the Boolean Expression for the result of the Logic Circuit as shown below :
(c) Write the SOP form of a Boolean function F, which is represented in a truth table as follows:

0 0 0 0
0 0 1 1
0 1 0 1
0 1 1 0
1 0 0 1
1 0 1 1
1 1 0 0
1 1 1 0

(d) Reduce the following Boolean expression using K-map.
F (A, B, C, D) = I (0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 8, 9, 10, 11)

(a) X + Y’ = X.Y + X.Y’ + X’.Y’
Taking R.H.S.
X.Y + X.Y’ + X’.Y’
= X (Y + Y’) + X’.Y’ (grouping)
= X (1) + X’.Y’ (X + X’ = 1)
= X + Y’ (Absorption law)
Hence Verified.

(b) ( (U+V’ ) . (U+W) ) . (V+W’ )

(c) F=A’B’C+A’BC’+AB’C’+AB’C

(d) F (A,B,C,D) = X (0,1,2,4,5,8,9,10,11)
K-Map is as following:
F (A,B,C,D) = AC + AB + BD

Question 7.
(a) Explain one difference between circuit switching and packet switching.
(b) Write the following abbreviations in their full form:
(c) What is NFS?
(d) Write two advantages and two disadvantages of following topologies in network:
(i) BUS Topology
(ii) STAR Topology

(a) Packet switching: Packet switching is a combination of both circuit and message switching and it divides the lengthy message in small parts known as Packets.
Circuit Switching: Circuit Switching establishes a communication path between sending and receiv¬ing computers. The path is connected sequence of links between different Switching Nodes.

(b) FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol WAN stands for Wide Area Network WWW stands for World Wide Web.

(c) NFS: NFS stands for Network File System. It is an operating system which allows all network users to access the shared files stored on different types of computers.
(d) Advantages of Bus Topology:
(a) Requirement of short length cable.
(b) Economical, cost of communication media is minimum.
(c) It is flexible and it is quite easy to add new nodes or delete node from the network.
Disadvantages of Bus Topology:
(a) Difficulty in detection of faults because of no centralize control.
(b) Fault in the backbone cable can disrupt the functioning of the whole network.
Advantages of Star Topology:
(a) One device per connection.
(b) Easy to access.
Disadvantages of Star Topology:
(a) Long Length Cables.
(b) Dependency on central node.
(e) (i) Suitable topology is-STAR Topology
(ii) The server should be paced in wing A as it has the maximum number of computers. According to 80 : 20 rule also, server should be placed on A wing.
(iii) The Hub should be placed at each wing of network.
(iv) (a) Private cloud : Private cloud is a cloud infrastructure operated only for a single organization whether managed internally or by a third party & hosted internally or externally.
(b) Public cloud: A cloud is called a public cloud when the services vendered over a network is open for public use. This is not confined to a particular organization or business.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Mineral and Power Resources

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Mineral and Power Resources

Join us as we traverse through the corridors of Earth’s hidden treasures, exploring the captivating journey of mineral and power resources. Let’s delve into the world of “Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Mineral and Power Resources” and unravel the threads of economic prosperity, technological advancement, and the responsibility of responsible resource management. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science .

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Mineral and Power Resources

Mineral and Power Resources Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 3 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What is a mineral?
A naturally occurring substance that has a definite chemical composition is a mineral.

Question 2.
What is meant by a rock?
A rock is an aggregate of one or more minerals but without definite composition of constituent of mineral.

Question 3.
Define open-cast mining.
Minerals that lie at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer; this is known as open- caste mining.

Question 4.
What does the term quarrying mean?
Minerals that lie near the surface are simply dug out by the process known as quarrying.

Question 5.
Which country has no known mineral deposit in it?
Switzerland has no known mineral deposit in it.

Question 6.
Name the two countries of Asia that have large iron ore deposits.
China and India have large iron ore deposits.

Question 7.
How is salt obtained?
Salt is obtained from seas, lakes and rocks.

Question 8.
Where are the oldest-rocks in world located in?
The oldest rocks in the world are in western Australia.

Question 9.
Define Geothermal energy.
Heat energy obtained from the earth is called geothermal energy.

Question 10.
What is Biogas?
Organic waste such as dead plant and animal material and dung and kitchen waste can be converted into gaseous fuel called Biogas.

Question 11.
Name the greatest producer of Nuclear power.
USA and Europe

Question 12.
Which type of energy is wind energy?
Wind is an inexhaustible source of energy.

Question 13.
How are windmills used since times immemorial?
Windmills have been used for grinding grain and lifting water since times immemorial.

Question 14.
Define Geothermal Energy.
Heat energy obtained from Earth.

Question 15.
In which part of India there is a huge tidal mill farms?
In the Gulf of Kachchh.

Question 16.
Where in India are the geothermal plants located?
Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh and Puga Valley in Ladakh.

Question 17.
How is firewood widely used?
It is widely used for cooking and heating.

Question 18.
What are the 2 main conventional sources of energy?
Firewoods and fossil fuels.

Question 19.
Which is the most abundantly found fossil fuel?
Coal is the most abundantly found fossil fuel.

Question 20.
What is thermal power?
Electricity from coal is called thermal power.

Mineral and Power Resources Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 3 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What are the uses of minerals?
Minerals are used in many industries. Minerals which are used for gems are usually hard. These are then set in various styles of jewellery. Copper is another metal used in everything from coins to pipes, silicon used in computer industry is obtained from quartz. Aluminium obtained from its ore bauxite is used in automobiles and aeroplanes, bottling industry, buildings and even in kitchen cookware.

Question 2.
How is the distribution of iron placed in India?
India has deposits of high-grade iron ore. The mineral is found mainly in Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Goa, Maharashtra and Karnataka.

Question 3.
Name the major limestone producing states in India.
Major limestone producing states in India are Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu.

Question 4.
What is coal and why is coal referred to as Buried Sunshine?
Coal is the most abundantly found fossil fuel. It is used as a domestic fuel, in industries such as iron and steel, steam engines and to generate electricity. Electricity from coal is called Thermal Power.

The coal which we are using today was formed millions of years ago when giant ferns and swamps got buried under the layer of earth. Coal is therefore referred to as Buried Sunshine.

Question 5.
Define Tidal Energy and where was the first tidal energy station built?
Energy generated from tides is called tidal energy. Tidal energy can be harnessed by building dams at narrow openings of the sea. During high tide the energy of the tides is used to turn the turbine installed in the dam to produce electricity. Russia, France and Gulf of Kachchh in India have huge tidal mill farms. The Ist tidal energy station was built in France.

Question 6.
How is petroleum found and what is petroleum and its derivatives known as and why?
Petroleum is found between the layers of rocks and is derived from oil fields located in off shore and coastal areas. Then this is sent to refinery which processes the crude oil and produces a variety of products. Petroleum and its derivatives are called Black gold because they are valuable.

Mineral and Power Resources Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 3 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
Define mineral in brief and explain how they are formed without any human interference.
A naturally occurring substance that has a definite chemical composition is a mineral. Minerals are not evenly distributed over space. They are concentrated in a particular area or rock formations. Some minerals are found in areas which are not easily accessible such as the Arctic ocean bed and Antarctica.

Minerals are formed in different types of geological environments, under varying conditions. They are created by natural processes without any human interference. They can be identified on the basis of their physical properties such as colour, density, hardness and chemical property such as solubility.

Question 2.
What is meant by Nuclear power? Explain the process how it is obtained. Also name the places of India where the nuclear power stations are located.
Nuclear power is obtained from energy stored in the nuclei of atoms of naturally occurring radio active elements like uranium and thorium. These fuels undergo nuclear fission in nuclear reactors and emit power. The greatest producers of nuclear power are U.S.A and Europe. In India Rajasthan and Jharkhand have large deposits of Uranium.

Thorium is found in large quantities in the Monozite sands of Kerala. The nuclear power stations in India are located in Kalapakkam in Tamil Nadu, Tarapur in Maharashtra, Ranapratap Sagar near Kota in Rajasthan, Narora in U.P, and Kaiga in Karnataka.

Picture Based Questions Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resources

Look at the picture given below and answer the following questions:
Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Mineral and Power Resources img-1
1. What is shown in the figure?
2. Define drilling.
1. This picture shows shore drilling of oil.
2. Deep wells bored to take petroleum and natural gas out is called drilling.

Map Skills Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resources

Question 1.
On an outline Map of the World mark the following:
(i) Countries of Asia with large iron deposits.
(ii) The countries in Europe that are leading producer of iron-ore in the world.
(i) China and India
(ii) Russia, Swedan, Ukraine, France.
Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Mineral and Power Resources img-2

Question 2.
On an outline Map of India mark the following.
(i) Iron distribution in the states of India
(ii) Major Bauxite producing states.
(i) Madhya Pradesh, Goa, Maharashtra and Karnataka.
(ii) Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhatisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra.
Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Mineral and Power Resources img-3

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 1

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 1

[Time Allowed : 3 hrs.]                                                                                   [Maximum Marks] : 100

General Instruction:

  1. All Questions are compulsory.
  2. Question numbers 1-5 are of 1 mark each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 20 words each.
  3. Question numbers 6-10 are of 2 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 40 words each.
  4. Question numbers 11-16 are of 4 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
  5. Question numbers 17-21 are of 5 marks each. The answers to this question should not exceed 150 words.
  6. Question numbers 22-27 are of 6 marks each. The answers to this question should not exceed 150 words.

Question.1. Is NAM neutral?
Answer. Non-alignment cannot be referred to as Neutrality because neutrality refers to a policy of staying of war. NAM is a concept opposed to belligerency.

  • It is a concept aiming at an independent foreign policy and peaceful co-existence.

Question.2. Mention any two core values of a country.

  • The core values of a country comes under the scope of security
  • It is concerned with preventing, limiting and ending the wars.
  • Another value is related to the existence of human life.

Question.3. What was the immediate outcome of the “Two Nation Theory”?
Answer. The immediate outcome of “Two Nations Theory” initiated by M.A. Jinnah in 1940 was the partition of British into two nation states

  • India
  • Pakistan
    The drawing of the border demarcating the territory of each country marked the culmination of political developments.

Question.4. Which period of Indian politics has been referred to as ‘dangerous decade’?
Answer. The 1960s were labelled as the “dangerous decade” because of some unsolved problems like poverty, inequality, communal and regional divisions, etc.

Question.5. Was the Anti-Arrack movement a women’s movement? Give one argument to support . your answer.
Answer. The Anti-Arrack movement was the movement of rural women from the state of Andhra Pradesh because it was a spontaneous mobilisation of women demanding a ban on the sale of alcohol in their neighbourhoods. ,

  • Moreover the Anti-Arrack movement provided a platform to discuss private issues of domestic violence.

Question.6. What is SAARC?
Answer. SAARC-Stands for South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation. It has seven members and its aim is to encourage collective self reliance, mutual trust and understanding between the member-nations.

Question.7. Give any two examples of the American hegemony as a soft power.

  • The U.S. Hegemony as a soft power implies class ascendancy in the social and political and particularly ideological spheres.
  • Soft power is the third sense of hegemony which is about the capacity to manufacture consent.

Question.8. Why do we need international organizations?

  • The need of the international organization is very much justified with the quotation of the UN’s Secretary General Dag Hammarskjold that “The International Organisation was not created to take humanity to heaven but to save it from hell”
  • International organisation plays very significant role in the world full of antagonism, differences and conflicts. It helps with the matter of war and peace.

Question.9. Which two challenges are the newly independent countries of Asia and Africa facing?
Answer. The nearly independent third world countries of Asia and Africa are facing the following challenges;

  • The new countries face the prospect of military conflict with neighbouring countries.
  • Internally, these countries are worried about threats from “Separatist movement” which wants to form independent countries based on language and religion.

Hence for the newly independent third world i.e. Asian-African countries “external war” with neighbours and “Internal wars” posed a serious challenge to their security.

Question.10. Mention any two reasons due to which Janata Party won the elections of 1977.
Answer. The result of the 1977 election took every one by surprise. For the first time since independence the Congress Party was defeated and Janata Party came into power at centre.

  • Basically, the most valid reason for the success of the Janata Party was the people’s verdict which was decisively against the emergency. The Janata Party fought the election on the slogan of “Save Democracy”.
  • Most importantly north India had experienced some long term changes in nature of political competition. The’middle classes from north India were beginning to move away from the Congress and the Janata Party became a platform for many of these section to come together.
    Thus, the elections of 1977 were not merely about the emergency but other factors also.

Question.11. When and why was ‘Operation Enduring Freedom’ launched?
Answer. The “Operation Enduring Freedom” was launched in 2001 in the response to 9/11 attacks in USA.

  • The US response to 9/11 was swift and ferocious. The then President Bush had a much harder view of us interests and of the means by which to advance them.
  • As a part of its global war of terror the US launched Operation Enduring Freedom against all those suspected to be behind this attack, mainly Alqaeda and the Taliban regime in Afghanistan.
  • The US forces made arrests all over the world, often without the knowledge of the government of the persons across countries and detained them in secret prison.
  • Some of the prisoners were kept at Guantanamo Bay, a US naval base in Cuba where prisoners did not enjoy the protection of International law.

Question.12. Mention any four factors that led to the rise of the Chinese economy.
Answer. The factors that led to the rise of the Chinese economy are as follows;

  • Economic Reforms of 1978. China emerged as the third alternative since its economic reforms of 1978. China has been the fastest growing economy since the reforms first began there.
  • Economic Integration. Its economic integration into the region makes it the driver of East Asian growth, there by giving it enormous influence in regional affairs.
  • Market Economy. China introduced its open market economy by the privatization process of agriculture and industry in 1982-1998.
  • Special Economic Zones. To remove the trade barrier and to open the economy for foreign investors, China set “Special Economic Zones” i.e. SEZs.

Question.13. What are the reasons for growing concerns about the environment? .
Answer. Although environmental concerns have a long history, awareness of the environmental
consequences of economic growth acquired an increasingly special concern from 1960
onwards because of following reasons:

  • Depletion of Natural Resources: Throughout the world cultivable area is barely expanding any more and a substantial portion of existing agricultural land is losing fertility, grasslands have overgrazed and fisheries overharvested.
  • Pollution of Water bodies: Water bodies have suffered extensive depletion and pollution due to disposal of toxic affluent of industries severely restricting aquatic food production.
  • Loss of Biodiversity. Natural forest which help stabilise the climate, moderate water
    supplies and harbour a majority of the plant biodiversity on land are being cut down and people are being displaced.
  • Depletion of ozone: A steady decline in the total amount of ozone in the earth’s stratosphere poses a real danger to ecosystems and human health, hence included in the arena of global politics for environmental concerns.

Question.14. What kinds of difficulties were involved in the process of partition?
Answer. The process of partition started in 1940 where the Muslim League propounded the “Two-nation
Theory”. The principle of partition presented all kinds of difficulties such as:

  • Problems of East and West : There was no single belt of Muslim majority areas of British India. There were two areas of concentration, one in the west and one in the east.
  • Merger of NWFP : On the partition move not all muslim majority areas wanted to be in Pakistan. Even Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan, the undisputed leader of the North Western Frontier provinces was staunchly opposed to the two nation theory. But ultimately the NWFP was made to merge with Pakistan.
  • Difficulties related to Punjab and Bengal : These provinces had very large areas where the non-muslims were in majority. Thus it was decided that these two provinces would be bifurcated according to the religious majority. These caused deepest trauma.
  • Communal zones : Amritsar and Kolkata became communal zones because Muslims avoided going into an area where mainly Hindus and Sikhs lived. Similarly the Hindus and Sikhs stayed away from areas of Muslim predominance.

Question.15. “Governments that are perceived to be anti-democratic are severely punished by the
voters.” Explain the statement with reference to the emergency period of 1975-77.

  •  “Government that are perceived to be anti-democratic are severely punished by the voters”. This was very much proved during the emergency period through people’s verdict.
  • The result of the 1977 election took every one by surprise. For the first time since
    independence, the Congress Party was defeated and opposition came to power at the centre.
  • In the backdrop of arrests of thousands of persons and the censorship of the press the public opinion was against the Congress.
  • The Janata Party made this election a referendum on the emergency. Its campaign focussed on the non-democratic character of the rule and on the various excesses that took place during this period.
  • Moreover, most importantly north India had experienced some long term changes in the nature of political competition. The middle classes from north India were beginning to move away from the Congress and Janata Party became a platform for many of these sections to come together.
    Thus, the emergency of 1975-77 at once brought out both the weaknesses and the strengths of India’s democracy. The very first lesson we learnt was that it is extremely difficult to do away with democracy in India.

Question.16. Who were Dalit Panthers ? What did they stand for ?
Answer. Dalit Panthers was militant organisation of the Dalit youth. It was formed in 1972 in Maharashtra.

  1. Dalit Panthers addressed various issues: These groups were mainly fighting against the perpetual caste based inequalities and material injustices that the Dalits faced in spite of constitutional guarantees of equality and justice.
  2. Dalits faced collective atrocities over minor symbolic issues of caste pride. So effective implementation of reservations and other such policies of social justice was their main demand.

Dalit Panthers resorted to mass action for assertion of Dalit’s rights. They took this step due following reasons.

  1. Legal mechanisms proved inadequate to stop the economic and social oppression of Dalits.
  2. The Republican party of India supported by Dalits was no successful in electoral politics.
  3. These parties faced split as well.
    Therefore, the Dalit Panthers resorted to mass action and their activities were mostly centred around fighting increasing atrocities on Dalits in various parts of the state.

Question.17. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following questions:
We have a Muslim minority who are so large in numbers that they cannot, even if they want, go anywhere else. That is a basic fact about which there can be no argument. Whatever the provocation from Pakistan and whatever the indignities and horrors inflicted on non-Muslims there, we have got to deal with this minority in a civilized manner. We must give them security and the rights of citizens in a democratic State. If we fail to do so, we shall have a festering sore which will eventually poison the whole body politic and probably destroy it.
Jawaharlal Nehru, Letter to Chief Ministers, 15 October 1947
Give an account of the background in which the letter was written and explain the challenge that Jawaharlal Nehru is referring to in it?
Answer. In the above given passage Nehru had expressed his feeling about the accommodation of minority. In his letter he is referring the challenge related to Muslim minority that if not accommodated properly can lead to destruction of democratic ideals.

  1. Because Muslim minority in India were large in numbers, it is their right to go anywhere and settle. In a democratic set up everyone is given equal opportunity.
  2. J.L. Nehru argued that we must give the Muslim minority security and the rights of citizens in a democratic state. Apart from ethical and sentimental reasons, there are some prudential reasons which helped India to realise its- long charised goals and principles such as socialism, equality, liberty and fraternity.
  3. If we fail to provide security and rights to minorities, it affect the basic nature of democratic system and is also against the secular principle of India. It may eventually affect not only India’s foreign policy and also threaten other minorities in India. It may lead to disintegration of Indian states.

Question.18. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following questions:
One of India’s major concerns has been the composition of the Security Council, which has remained largely static while the UN General Assembly membership has expanded considerably. India considers that this has harmed the representative character of the Security Council. It also argues that an expanded Council, with more representation, will enjoy greater support in the world community.
Critically examine India’s concerns and arguments about the composition of the Security Council.
Answer. India has supported the restructuring of the UN to make it more representative. One of the major concerns has been the composition of the Security Council which has remained largely static.

  • India agrees that an expanded council, with more representation will enjoy greater support in the world community.
  • India also supports that developing countries as the members of the Generaly Assembly should also have a role in shaping the decisions in the Security Council which affect them.
  • Besides, India argues an increase in the number of both permanent and non-permanent members because the success of the Security Council’s actions depends upon the political support of the international community.
    The security council thus needs to be restructured and expanded. It must shed its static image by expansion.

Question.19. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following questions:
While the Cold War was an outcome of the emergence of the US and the USSR as two superpowers rival to each other, it was also rooted in the understanding that the destruction caused by the use of atom bombs is too costly for any country to bear. The logic is simple yet powerful. When two rival powers are in possession of nuclear weapons capable of inflicting death and destruction unacceptable to each other, a full-fledged war is unlikely. 
Explain the cold war scenario and reasons behind it not turning out to be a full-fledged war?
Answer. The arenas of the Cold War refers to the areas where crisis and war occurred or threatened ‘ to occur between the alliance systems but did not cross certain limits.

  • We begin with the Cuban missile crises which was only one of the several crises that
    occurred during the Cold War but fortunately both sides, US and USSR decided to avoid war.
  • The Cold War also led to several shooting wars between the two superpowers which were poised for direct confrontation in
  • Korea(1950-53)
  • Berlin crisis (1958-62)
  • The Congo Crisis (1960s)
    Crises deepened as neither of the parties involved was willing to back down, but it is important to note that these crises and wars did not lead to another World War.
  • A great many lives were lost in some of these arenas like Korea, Vietnam and Afghanistan, but the world was spared a nuclear war and global hostilities.
  • In some cases, huge military buildups were reported. In many cases, diplomatic communication between the super powers could not be sustained and contributed to the misunderstandings.
  • Sometimes, countries outside the two blocs, for example the non-aligned countries, played a role in reducing Cold War conflicts and averting some grave crisis.
    In this way, as the Cold War rolled from one arena to another, the logic of restraint was
    increasingly evident.

Question.20. Study the picture given below carefully and answer the following questions:

  1. Which event does the picture refer to?
  2. Who is the lady in the picture? Why does she look so pleased?
  3. Identify the man wearing the garland.


  1. The picture refers to the Presidential Election 1969.
  2. The lady in the picture is India Gandhi. She looks so pleased because her supporter V.V.Giri won the Presidential election.
  3. The man wearing the garland is V.V.Giri.

Question.21. Study the map carefully and answer the questions given below.

  1. Name the seven sisters in the north-east region of India.
  2. What is the problem against outsiders in this region?
  3. Name the two states where the secessionist movements started.


1. The seven sisters of North-Eastern region of India are;

  1. Assam
  2. Nagaland
  3. Meghalaya
  4. Manipur
  5. Mizoram
  6. Arunachal Pradesh
  7. Tripura


  • The problem against outsiders in this region is very acute as it continues to be a live
    issue in the polities of Assam. This movement was against outsiders to maintain the- cultural integration of Assam and other North eastern regions.
  • They felt the resources would be drained out of the state without any commensurate benefit to the people of this region.

3. The secessionist movements started in Tripura and Mizoram.

Question.22. What were the key controversies regarding development in India?
Why did the Indian National Congress dominate the first three General Elections after independence?
Answer. As the concept of “development has varied scope and complex nature” so any discussion on development is bound to generate contradictions, conflicts and debates.
The first decade after independence witnessed a lot of debate around this question of development. It was common then, as it is even now, for people to refer to the “West” as the standard for measuring development.
Development was about becoming more modern and was about becoming more like the industrialised countries of the West. It was believed that every country would go through the process of “modernisation of the West” which involved the breakdown of traditional social structures and the rise of capitalism and liberalism.
Modernisation was also associated with the ideas of growth, material progress and scientific rationality.
On the eve of independence, India had two models of modern development
Hence, there was a debate on the selection of model for our economy. There were some communist leaders, members of the socialist party and leaders like Nehru who supported the “Socialist model”. This reflected a broad consensus that had developed during the national movement.
All these made it clear that the task of poverty alleviation and social and economic redistribution was being seen primarily as the responsibility of the government. But at the same time there were debates among them like:

  1. For some Industrialisation seemed to be the preferred path.
  2. For others, the development of agriculture and, in particular, alleviation of rural poverty was the priority.
    ” ‘ Or

Answer. Factors for domination of political scene by the Congress:

  1. Congress is the oldest party in India. It started in 1885 and was the major party that struggled to get India independence. It produced many great leaders like Gandhi, Nehru, Rajaji, Vallabhbhai Patel, Subhas Chandra Bose and many others, It provided strong leadership to the Indian masses.
  2. Congress sacrificed in all possible forms to achieve independence. One can rightly say that Congress wholeheartedly fought for India’s independence.
  3. Gandhiji (Father of Nation) lived like an ordinary Indian and propagated ideologies of truth, non-violence, swaraj, trusteeship which the people of India thoroughly appreciated. He was the first man to launch a national movement as mass movement by bringing women, peasants and students to participate on a large scale.
  4. The Congress after India’s independence, not only tried to solve the problems but also faced the challenges before the nation. It is not that independence meant that we had achieved everything. There were many challenges such as poverty, unemployment, low production in agriculture, industry, problem of integration of states and very importantly the refugees. It was a tough time for Congress and it managed to overcome these problems slowly but steadily.
  5. There was no strong political party to replace the Congress and the policies of the Congress and our relations with the neighbours favour Congress to become the dominant political party.
  6. Indian masses thus were totally impressed by the role of Congress party and having faith in the Congress they voted for it for more than four decades. The able leadership of Nehru, Indira Gandhi, Rajiv Gandhi and Narashimha Rao led India on the path of success even though some leaders fell victim to terrorism (Indira Gandhi and her son Rajiv Gandhi were assassinated).

Question.23. ‘There is a difference in the approach towards environment between the countries of the North and the South’. Explain the statement with reference to the Earth Summit (1992) and the Kyoto Protocol (1997)?
How has globalization affected India and what has been India’s response?
Answer. It is very significant that compromise and accommodation are the two essential policies required by states to save planet Earth. But there is a difference in the approach to environment between the countries of the North and the South. We can throw light on the ongoing negotiations between the North and South on environmental issues in such a manner:

  • The developed countries of the north want to discuss the environment issue as it stands now and want everyone to be equally responsible for ecological conservation.
  • At the same time the developing countries of the South feel that much of the ecological degradation in the world is the product of industrial development undertaken by the developed countries.
  • And to the most if developed countries have caused more degradation they must also • take more responsibility for ongoing damage now.
    On the other side the developing countries are in the process of industrialization and they must not be subjected to the same restrictions which apply to the developed countries.
  • However, the special needs of the developing countries must be taken into account in the development, application and interpretation of rules of International Environmental Law. And this argument was accepted in the Rio Declaration at the “Earth Summit in 1992 under the principle of common but differentiated responsibility.
  • The Kyoto Protocol, also accorded among its members to protect the climatic septum on the basis of equity.

Answer. The impact of Globalisation in India is far reaching like:

  • Globalisation in India has led to the setting up of production units by many foreign companies in the areas of automobiles, information technology, electronics and food processing industries.
  • There is enormous growth in the telecommunication sector. Due to globalisation the use of computers and other modern technologies have increased tremendously.
    Now India is playing a crucial role among developing countries regarding trade and commerce. But there are some areas in which Globalisation is not beneficial such as:
  • Employment generation
  • Agriculture
  • Sufficient employment opportunities on a large scale.
    Simultaneously, India started a gradual response to globalisation in the 1980s. It was in the 1990s that India undertook serious reforms to integrate itself with the international community. It was only in 1991 that the Narasimha Rao government took the bold step of liberalisation of Indian Economy and promoting foreign direct investment.
    In the stepping year India embarked on a programme of economic reforms that has sought increasingly to de-regulate various sectors including trade and foreign investment.
    Trade policy reform : This reform sought to dismantle the earlier licensing system. It proposed heavy scaling down or removal of tariffs and reforms on quantitative restriction on imports.
    Industrial Policy Reform : It sought abolition of industrial licensing except for a few specified industries.
    Financial Reforms : Private sector banks including foreign joint venture banks came to be permitted to undertake and expand their operations. A policy regime for private non-banking finance companies came to be established.
    Now India’s economy is open to all the nations in order to promote the principles of globalisation.

Question.24. “India should not give up its policy of non-alignment and align with the United States.” Give arguments in support or against this statement.
Mention the areas of cooperation and disagreement between India and Bangladesh.
Answer. India should not give up its policy of non-alignment. Non-alignment as a strategy evolved in the Cold War context, but the end of “Cold War” and a Unipolar world did not see the end of the non-alignment.
Non-alignment still contains some core values and end-using ideas.

  1. Its emphasis has shifted from ^pdlitical issues to economic issues”.
    Liberalisation of third world economies for rapid development of the countries of south now remains the main concern of NAM.
  2. Issue like democracy, disarmaments, human rights and neo-colonialism are as relevant
    today as earlier.
    With the disintegration of the erstwhile USSR, there is only one super power therefore, it is very essential for NAM to make sincere efforts to check USA from taking unilateral decisions.
  3. Now its emphasis has also shifted towards poverty alleviation, New International Economic Order based on equality, equity, justice and promotion of industrialisation.

Answer. The governments of India and Bangladesh have had “differences over several issues” like

  • The sharing of the Ganga and Brahmaputra river waters.
  • Problem of illegal immigration to India.
  • Bangladesh’s support for anti-Indian Islamic fundamentalist groups.
  • Bangladesh’s refusal to allow Indian troops to move through its territory to northeastern
  • Above all Bangladesh’s decision not to export natural gas to India also became one of the bone of contention.
    Areas of Cooperation
    Despite their difference, India and Bangladesh do cooperate on many issues like:
  • In economic areas both countries have improved their economic relations in the last ten years.
  • Bangladesh is the main link of “India’s Look East policy” that wants to link up with South East Asia via Myanmar.

Question.25. Evaluate the lessons that have been learnt from the popular movements in India along with examples.
“After the elections in 1989 an era of coalitions started in which political parties are
not aligning or realigning on the basis of ideologies.” Explain the statement.

  1. The history of the popular movement helps us to understand better the nature of democratic politics.
  2. The non-party movements are neither sporadic in nature nor are these a problem.
  3. These movements came up to solve some problems in the functioning of party politics and should be seen as an integral part of our democratic politics.
  4. They represented new social groups whose economic, and social problems were not fulfilled by the electoral politics.
  5. They ensured effective representation of diverse groups and their demands. This reduced the possibility of deep social conflict and disaffection of these groups from democracy.
  6. They also suggested new forms of active participation and thus expanded the idea of participation in Indian Democracy.
  7. The popular movements revised legitimate demands of the people and have involved large scale participation of cititzen. Examples: Chipko movement, anti-arack movement; the activities and programmes of Bharatiya Kisan Union, etc.
  8. It should be noted that the groups mobilised by these movements are poor, social and economically disadvantaged sections of the society.
  9. The frequency and methods used by them suggest that the regular functioning of democracy did not have enough space for the voices of these social groups.
  10. These movements led to the growth of consensus among political parties over implementation of these policies.

The above statement is justified because in the new era of coalition politics, the emphasis of political parties is on pragmatic considerations rather than on ideological positions and political alliance without ideological agreement. For instance :

  1. Coalition politics has shifted the focus of political parties from ideological differences to power sharing arrangements.
  2. Thus most parties of the NDA did not agree with the ‘Hindutva’ ideology of the BJP, yet they came together to form a government and remained in power for a full term.
    Condusion-Thus with the elections of 1989 a long phase of coalition parties began in India. Since then there have been nine governments at the centre, all of which have either been coalition governments or minority governments supported by other parties. In this new phase any government could be formed only with the participation or support of many regional parties without aligning on the basis of ideologies.

Question.26. Why was Gorbachev forced to initiate reforms and how did it lead to the disintegration
of the Soviet Union?
Explain how did the Cuban Missile Crisis drive the world on the brink of a nuclear war?
Answer. Mikhail Gorbachev who had become General Secretary of the state Communist Party of the Soviet Union in 1985 sought to reform this system. Hence, the following factors forced Gorbachev to initiate the reforms in the USSR.

  • The very first factor was to keep the USSR abreast of the information and technological revolutions taking place in the west.
  • Secondly to reform the Soviet economy, catch up with the west and to loosen the administrative system also forced Gorbachev to initiate the reforms.
  • Lastly, to improve and normalise relations with the west along with democratising the Soviet Union were also the focussed factors to introduce the reform policies. (Any two)
    As the question is very complicated in itself, so the answer to this question becomes more controversial in nature like :
  • The most basic answer seems to be that when Gorbachev carried out his reforms and loosened the system, he set in motion forces and expectations that few could have predicted. These become virtually impossible to control.
  • There were sections of Soviet society which felt that Gorbachev should have moved much faster and were disappointed and impatient with his methods. They did not benefit in the way they had hoped or they benefitted too slowly.
  • Others, especially members of the Communist Party, and those who were served by this system, took exactly the opposite view. They felt that their power and privileges were eroding and that Gorbachev was moving too quickly.

Hence, in this tug-of-war Gorbachev lost support on all sides and divided public opinion. Even those who were with him became disillusioned as they felt that he did not adequately defend his own policies.

  1. Cuba was an ally of Soviet Union, received both displomatic and financial aid from it. In 1961, the leaders of the then USSR were worried that USA might invade Cuba and overthrow President Fidel Castro. During such a situation, the leader of the Soviet Union, Nikita Khrushchev decided to convert Cuba into a Russian base. In 1962, he had set up nuclear missiles in Cuba. These missiles could be at close range to the US and even reach upto Canada.
  2. Americans became aware only after three weeks that Soviet Union had placed nuclear weapons in Cuba. Kennedy ordered American warships to stop and check any Soviet ship moving towards Cuba as a way of warning to the USSR.
  3. It was also feared that Cuba might have learnt the technology behind nuclear weapons
    that would be anytime danger to the US prosperity.
  4. The Cuban crisis also led US to suspect all Soviet-aided countries and forced it to set up military blocs in different parts of the world as NATO, SEATO and CENTO.
    The installation of nuclear weapons put the US, for the first time, under fire from close range. The US President John F. Kennedy was not willing to do anything that might lead to full-scale nuclear war between the two countries. A clash seemed imminent in what came to be known as the Cuban Missile Crisis. The prospects of a clash made the whole world nervous for it would have been no ordinary war.
  5. Eventually, to the world’s great relief, both sides decided to avoid war. Thus, the Cuban Missile Crisis was a high point of what come to be known as the Cold War.

Question.27. What was the ‘new world order’ and how did it lead to the First Gulf War?
What makes the European Union a highly influential regional organization?
Answer. With the disintegration of USSR the end of the cold war left open only two possibilities like
either the remaining superpower would dominate and create a “unipolar system”.
Different countries or groups of countries could become important players in the international system, thereby bringing in a ‘multipolar system’ where no one power could dominate.
The US Hegemony was established to show the overwhelming superiority of its military power. In absolute terms, the US today has military capabilities that can reach any point on the planet accurately and easily.
The US Hegemony led to the emergence or beginning of the new world order. The process for the establishment of US hegemony started in August 1990 when Iraq invaded Kuwait. It was rapidly occupied and subsequently made a part of it.
The United Nations tried its all diplomatic avenues to convince Iraq to quit its aggression but failed. Henceforth, UN mandated the liberation of Kuwait by force. This step of UN was very much guided by the dramatic decision of the US. Therefore, a massive coalition force of 660,000 troops from 34 countries fought against Iraq and defeated it. This war is popularly known as the “First Gulf War.” and UN operation was called “Operation Desert Storm.” But this was overwhelmingly an American attempt because nearly 75 per cent of the coalition forces were from the US.
‘European Union’ was established in 1992 after the collapse of the Soviet Union. The European Union was started as an Economic Union but over time it has evolved from Economic Union to increasingly political one. Hence, the EU now has started to act more as a nation-state.
(a) It has tried to expand areas of cooperation while acquiring new members, especially from the erstwhile Soviet bloc.
(b) Besides, European Union has its own flag, anthem, founding date and currency.
(c) Its has also some form of a common foreign and security policy in its dealings with other nations.
(d) It currency Euro can pose threat to American dollar in term of value.
(e) European Union’s share international trade is three times more than US.
(f) Two member countries of European Union, Britain and France are the permanent member of UN Security Council and possess about 550 nuclear warheads.
(g) European Union has second largest army in the world after US. Its defence budget is at par with US.
(h) Its gross domestic product is more than that of US.


Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Agriculture

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Agriculture

Join us as we traverse through the corridors of the world’s farmlands, exploring the captivating journey of agriculture. Let’s delve into the world of “Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Agriculture” and unravel the threads of sustenance, innovation, and the delicate balance between farming and nature. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science .

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Agriculture

Agriculture Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 4 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What is arable land?
The land on which the crops are grown is called arable land.

Question 2.
Mention the important inputs of agriculture.
Seeds, fertilizers, machinery and labour.

Question 3.
Name the operations involved in agriculture.
Ploughing, sowing, irrigation, weeding and harvesting.

Question 4.
Mention the outputs of agriculture.
Crops, wool, dairy and poultry products.

Question 5.
On what basis can agriculture be classified.

  • Geographical conditions,
  • demand of produce,
  • labour,
  • level of technology.

Question 6.
Name two major types of farming.

  1. Subsistence farming
  2. Commercial farming.

Question 7.
What is subsistence farming?
Subsistence farming is practised to meet the needs of the farmer’s family.

Question 8.
Into which two types can subsistence farming be classified?

  1. Intensive subsistence,
  2. Primitive subsistence farming.

Question 9.
Name the crops cultivated in intensive subsistence agriculture.
Wheat, maize, pulses and oilseeds.

Question 10.
Into which two types can primitive subsistence agriculture be divided?

  1. Shifting cultivation,
  2. nomadic herding.

Question 11.
In which parts of the world is shifting cultivation practised?

  • Amazon basin,
  • Tropical Africa,
  • Parts of South-East Asia,
  • North-East India.

Question 12.
Which types of farming are included in commercial farming?

  • Commercial grain farming,
  • Mixed farming,
  • Plantation agriculture.

Question 13.
In the temperate grasslands of North America, why can only a single crop be grown?
In the temperate grasslands of North America, only a single crop can be grown because severe winters- restrict the growing season.

Question 14.
Name two major plantations found in the tropical regions of the world.

  1. Rubber plantation in Malaysia
  2. Coffee plantation in Brazil
  3. Tea plantation in India and Sri Lanka.

Question 15.
Name two important food crops, fibre crops and beverage crops.

  1. Food crops – wheat,
  2. rice Fibre crops – jute,
  3. cotton Beverage crops – tea, coffee.

Question 16.
Name four leading producers of rice.
China, India, Japan, Sri Lanka.

Question 17.
Name two places where two to three crops of rice are grown in a year.

  1. West Bengal,
  2. Bangladesh.

Question 18.
During which season is wheat grown in India?

Question 19.
Name the leading producers of maize.
North America, Brazil, China, Russia, Canada, India and Mexico.

Question 20.
In which countries is cotton grown as a major crop?
China, USA, India, Pakistan, Brazil and Egypt.

Question 21.
Which countries produce best quality tea in the world?
Kenya, India, China, Sri Lanka.

Question 22.
What are primary activities? Give examples.
Primary activities include all those activities connected with extraction and production of natural resources. For example, agriculture, fishing, gathering etc.

Question 23.
What are secondary activities? Give examples.
Secondary activities are concerned with the processing of natural resources. For example, manufacturing of steel, weaving of cloth etc.

Question 24.
What are tertiary activities? Give examples.
Tertiary activities provide support to the primary and secondary sectors through services. For example, trade, banking, insurance etc.

Question 25.
In which parts of the world is nomadic herding practised?
Nomadic herding is practised in the following regions –

  • Semi-arid and arid regions of Sahara.
  • Central Asia.
  • Rajasthan and Jammu and Kashmir in India.

Question 26.
Write the main features of commercial farming?
Main features of commercial farming are:

  • Crops are grown and animals are reared for sale in the market.
  • The area cultivated and the amount of capital used is large.
  • Most of the work is done by machines.

Question 27.
What is mixed farming? In which parts of the world is it practised?

  • In the mixed farming, the land is used for growing food and fodder crops and rearing livestock.
  • It is practised in Europe, Eastern USA, Argentina, Southeast Australia, New Zealand and South Africa.

Question 28.
Why do is development of a transport network essential for plantation farming?
Development of a transport network is essential for plantation farming because the produce is processed on the farm itself or in nearby factories.

Question 29.
Mention the geographical requirements for the cultivation of rice.

  • It is mainly grown in tropical and sub-tropical regions.
  • Rice needs high temperature, high humidity and rainfall.
  • It grows well in alluvial clayey soil.

Question 30.
Write the geographical requirements for wheat cultivation.

  • Wheat requires moderate temperature and rainfall during growing season and bright sunshine at the time of harvest.
  • It thrives best in well-drained loamy soil.

Question 31.
Mention the geographical conditions required for maize cultivation.

  • Maize requires moderate temperature.
  • It also needs well-drained fertile soils.

Question 32.
Write the geographical conditions required for cotton.

  • Cotton requires high temperature, light rainfall, two hundred and ten frost-free days and bright sunshine.
  • It grows best on black and alluvial soils.

Question 33.
Mention the geographical conditions required for coffee cultivation.

  • Coffee requires warm and wet climate and well-drained loamy soil.
  • Hill slopes are more suitable for the growth of this crop.

Question 34.
What is agricultural development? Also, write its ultimate aim.

  • Agricultural development refers to the efforts made to increase farm production in order to meet the growing demand of increasing population.
  • Its ultimate aim is to increase food security.

Question 35.
How can farm production be increased?
How can the ultimate aim of agricultural development be increased?
Farm production can be increased in the following ways –

  • Increasing the cropped area.
  • The number of crops grown.
  • Improving irrigation facilities.
  • Use of fertilizers and high yielding variety of seeds.

Question 36.
On the outline map of India show the following places. Coffee producing state.
Coffee producing state
Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Agriculture img-1

Question 37.
What is sericulture? Name the factors influencing agriculture?
Commercial rearing of silkworms is called sericulture. Factors influencing agriculture are as follows :

  • Favourable topography
  • Soil
  • Climate.

Question 38.
Write the main features of intensive subsistence agriculture.

  • The farmer cultivates a small plot of land using simple tools and more labour.
  • Climate with large number of days with sunshine and fertile soil permit growing of more than one crop annually on the same field.
  • Major crops grown are rice, wheat, maize, pulses etc.
  • Intensive subsistence agriculture is practised in thickly populated areas of the monsoon regions of South, South-East and East Asia.

Question 39.
Write the main features of nomadic herding.

  • Herdsmen move from place to place with their animals in search of fodder and water.
  • Herders have to move from one place to another due to climatic constraints and terrain.
  • Sheep, camel, cattle, yak and goats are the most commonly reared.
  • Animals provide milk, meat, wool, hides and other products to herders and their families.

Question 40.
Describe the regions where commercial grain farming is practised.

  • Commercial grain farming is practised in the temperate grasslands of North America, Europe and Asia.
  • These regions are sparsely populated with large farms spreading over hundreds of hectares.
  • Due to severe winters, only a single crop can be grown.

Question 41.
Write a short note on millets.

  • Millets are also known as coarse grains and can be grown on less fertile and sandy soils.
  • It is a hardy crop that needs low rainfall and high to moderate temperature and adequate rainfall.
  • Millets are grown in India, Nigeria, China and Niger.

Question 42.
Write the geographical condi¬tions required for the cultivation of tea.

  • Tea requires cool climate and well-distributed high rainfall throughout the year for the growth of its tender leaves.
  • It needs well-drained loamy soils and gentle slopes.
  • Large number of labour is required to pick the leaves.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. ………………………….. is not a tertiary activity.
(a) Trade
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Transport
(d) Banking.
(b) Manufacturing

2. Tick the odd pair in the following.
(a) Pisciculture – breeding of fish.
(b) Viticulture – cultivation of grapes.
(c) Horticulture – rearing livestock.
(d) Sericulture – rearing of silkworms.
(c) Horticulture – rearing livestock.

3. Organic manure and natural pesticides are used instead of chemicals in this type of farming. What is it called?
(a) Subsistence farming
(b) Shifting cultivation
(c) Mixed farming
(d) Organic farming.
(d) Organic farming.

4. Which of the following crops needs high temperature, high humidity, fertile soil and good rainfall?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(b) Cotton
(d) Millets
(a) Rice

5. Which of the following pairs is not correct?
(a) Tea – beverage
(b) Jute – Golden Fibre
(c) Wheat – corn
(d) Millets – coarse grains
(c) Wheat – corn


→ Primary activities – They include activities connected with extraction and production of natural resources.

→ Secondary activities – These activities are concerned with the processing of natural resources.

→ Tertiary activities – These activities provide support to the primary and secondary sectors through services.

→ Sericulture – Commercial rearing of silkworms.

→ Viticulture – Cultivation of grapes.

→ Pisciculture – Breeding of fish in specially constructed tanks and ponds.

→ Horticulture – Growing vegetables, flowers and fruits for commercial use.

→ Agriculture – The science and art of cultivation on the soil, raising crops and rearing livestock.

→ Subsistence farming- This type of farming is practised to meet the needs of farmer’s family.

→ Nomadic herding – The herdsmen move from one place to another in search of fodder and water.

→ Commercial farming- The crops are grown and animals are reared for sale in the market.

→ Mixed farming – The land is used for growing food and fodder crops and rearing livestock.

→ Organic farming – The use of organic manure and natural pesticides instead of chemicals is known as organic farming.

→ Agricultural development – It refers to efforts made to increase farm production in order to meet the growing demand of increasing population.

CBSE Previous Year Solved Papers Class 12 Computer Science Delhi 2011

CBSE Previous Year Solved  Papers  Class 12 Computer Science Delhi 2011

Time allowed : 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions :

  1.  There are a total of 26 questions and five sections in the question paper, All questions are compulsory.
  2. Section A contains question number 1 to 5, Very Short Answer type questions of one mark each.
  3.  Section B contains question number 6 to 10, Short Answer type I questions of two marks each.
  4.  Section C contains question number 11 to 22, Short Answer type II questions of three marks each.
  5.  Section D contains question number 23, Value Based Question of four marks.
  6. Section E contains question number 24 to 26, Long Answer type questions of five marks each.
  7. There is no overall choice in the question paper, however, an internal choice is provided in one question of two marks, one question of three marks and all three questions of five marks. An examined is to attempt any one of the questions out of two given in the question paper with the same question number.

Question.1. (a) What is the difference between Local Variable and Global Variable ? Also, give suitable C++ code to illustrate both.
Local Variables : Local variables are those variables which are declared within a function or a compound statement and these variables can only be used within that function/scope. Global Variables : Global variables are those variables which are not declared within any function or scope. So, these variables can be accessed by any function of the program.
(b) Write the names of the header files, which is/are essentially required to run/execute the following C++ code:
Answer : #include<iostream.h> and #include<ctype.h>
(c) Rewrite the following program after removing the syntactical errors (if any). Underline each correction.
(d) Find the output of the following program :
(e) Find the output of the following program:
(f) Go through the C++ code shown below, and find out the possible output or output from the suggested output options (i) to (iv). Also, write the least value and highest value, which can be assigned to the variable guess,

Question.2. (a) Differentiate between members, which are present within the private visibility mode with those which are present within the public visibility modes. 
Private members of a class are accessible only to the member functions of the same class.
Public members of a class are accessible to the member functions of the same class, member functions of its derived classes and also to an object of the” class.
(b) Write the output of the following C++ code. Also, write the name of. feature of Object Oriented Programming used in the following program jointly illustrated by the functions [I] to [IV].
(c) Define a class candidate in C++ with following Description:
Private Members

  •  A data member RNo (Registration Number) of type long
  •  A data member Name of type string
  •  A data member Score of type float
  • A data member Remark of type string
  •  A member function AssignRem( ) to assign Remarks as per the Score obtained by a candidate. Score range and the respective Remarks are shown as follows:

Public members

  •  A function ENTER/) to allow user to enter values for RNo, Name, Score & call function AssignRemO to assign the remarks.
  • A function DISPLAY/) to allow user to view the content
    of all the data members.

(d)Answer the question (i) to (iv) based on the following:

  1.  Which type of inheritance is illustrated in the above C++ code?
  2. Write the names of all the data members, which is / are accessible from member function Commence of class Course.
  3. Write the names of member functions, which are accessible from objects of class Course.
  4. Write the names of all the members, which are accessible from objects of class faculty.


  1. Multiple Inheritance
  2. CCode, CourseName,’ StartDate, EndDate, Pay
  3. Commence( ), CDetail( ), Register( ), Display!)
  4. Enter( )> Show( )

Question.3.(a) Write a GetlFrom2( ) function in C++ to transfer the content from two arrays FIRST[ ] and SECOND[ ] to array ALL[ ]. The even places (0, 2,4,…) of array ALL[ ] should get the content from the array FIRST [ ] and odd places (1,3,5,…) of the array ALL [ ] should get the content from the array SECOND[ ]
(b) An array P[20] [50] is stored in the memory along the column with each of its element occupying 4 bytes, find out the location of P[15] [10], if P[0] [0] is stored at 5200.
(c) Write a function in C++ to Perform insert operation on a dynamically allocated Queue containing Passenger details as given in the following definition of NODE.
(d) Write a COLSUM ( ) functionin C++ to find sum of each column of each column of a NxM matrix.
(e) Evaluate the following postfix notation of expression: 50, 60, +,20, 10, -, *

Question.4. (a) Observe the program segment given below carefully and fill the blanks marked as Statement 1 and Statement 2 using seekg( ), seekp( ), tellp() and tellgO functions for performing the required task.
(b) Write a function in C++ to count the no. of “Me” or “IVfy” words present in a text file “DIARY.TXT”.
If the file “DIARY.TXT” content is as follows :
My first book was Me and My family. It gave me chance to be known to the world.
The output of the function should be Count of Me/My in file : 4
(c) Write a function in C++ to search for a laptop from a binary file “LAPTOP.DAT” containing the objects of class LAPTOP (as defined below). The user should enter the Model No and the function should search and display the details of the laptop.

Question.5.(a) What do you understand by Union & Cartesian Product operations in relational algebra?
Answer: The union of two relations is a relation that includes all the tuples that are either in R or S or in both R and S. The Cartesian Product combines the tuples of one relation with all the tuples of the realtion.
Consider the following tables WORKER and PAYLEVEL and answer (b) and-(c) parts of this question:
(b) Write SQL commands for the following statements:

  1.  To display the details of all WORKERS, descending order of DOB.
  2. To display NAME and DESIG of those WORKERs whose PLEVEL is either P001 or P002.
  3. To display the content of all the WORKERs table, whose DOB is in between ‘19-JAN-1984’ and ‘18-JAN-1987’.
  4. To add a new row with the following :
  5.  19′,‘Days Kishore’, ‘Operator’, ‘P003’. ‘19-Jun-2008’, ‘11- Jul-1984’


  1. select from WORKER order by DOB desc;
  2. select NAME, DESIG from WORKER where PLEVEL in (‘POO1′, ‘P002’) ;
  3. select * from WORKER where DOB between ‘ 19-JAN- 1984’ and ‘18-JAN-1987’;
  4.  insert into WORKER values (19, ‘Daya Kishore’, ‘Operator’, ‘P003’ , T l-Jun-1984’);

(c) Give the output of the following SQL queries :

Question.6.(a) Verify the following using Truth Table
U(U +V) = (U+V)
(b) Write the equivalent Boolean Expression for the following Logic Circuit.
(c) Write the POS form of a Boolean function F, which is represented in a truth table as follows :
F(A,B,C) = (A+B+C).(A+B’+C’).(A’+B+C’).(A’+B’+C)
(d) Reduce the following Boolean Expression using K-Map:
F(P> a S) = ∑ (0,1, 2,4, 5, 6, 8,12)

Question.7. (a) Differentiate between packet switching and message switching technique in network communication.
Packet switching : In packet switching, a fixed size of data ‘ packet that can be transmitted across the network is specified and then the data packets are sent through switching stations to the final destination. All the packets are stored in the main memory instead of disk. As a result accessing time of packets is reduced. Message switching : The source computer sends data (message) to the switching station, which stores data in a buffer. It then looks for a free link to another switching station and sends data to that station. This process continues until data is delivered to the destination computer. This type of switching technique is also known as “store and forward” switching.
(b) Differentiate between BUS and STAR topology of networks.
(c) What is VoIP?
Answer: Voice over Internet Protocol (Voice over IP, VoIP) is communication protocols and transmission technologies for delivery of voice communications and multimedia sessions over Internet Protocol (IP) networks, such as the Internet. Also, we can say, VoIP are IP telephony, Internet telephony and broadband telephony.
(d) Out of the following, identify client side script(s) and server side script(s).

  1.  ASP
  2. JavaScript
  3. VBscript
  4. JSP

JavaScript & VB script are client side scripts.
JSP & ASP are server side scripts.
(e) Quick Learn University is setting up its Academic blocks at Prayag Nagar and planning to set up a network. The university has 3 academic blocks and one Human Resource Center as shown in the diagram below:
Center to center distances between various block/center is as follows :

  1. Suggest the most suitable place (i.e. Block / Center) to install the server of this university with a suitable reason.
  2.  Suggest an ideal layout for connecting these blocks/center for a wired connectivity.
  3. Which device you will suggest to be placed/ installed in each of these blocks/center to efficiently connect all the computers with in these blocks / center.
  4. The university is planning to connect its admission office in the closest big city, which is more than 250km from university, which type of network out of LAN, MAN or WAN will be formed? Justify your answer.


  1.  HR center is suitable to install server because it has the maximum number of computers.
  2. cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-computer-science-delhi-2011-46
  3.  Switch
  4.  WAN because given distance is more than the range of LAN and MAN.

(f) Which of the following will come under Cyber Crime?

  1. Theft of a brand new sealed pack laptop
  2. Access to a bank account for getting unauthorized Money Transaction
  3. Modification in a company data with unauthorized access
  4. Photocopying a printed report


  1.  Access to a bank account for getting unauthorized Money Transaction
  2. Modification in a company data with unauthorized access

(g) Compare open source software and proprietary software.
Answer: Open source software refers to a program or software in which the source code (the form of the program when a programmer writes a program in a particular programming ‘ language) is available to the general public for use and/or modification from its original design free of charge.
Proprietary software is software that is owned by an individual or a company (usually the one that developed it). There are ‘ almost always major restrictions on its use, and its source code is almost always kept secret.


CBSE Previous Year Solved Papers Class 12 Physics Outside Delhi 2011

CBSE Previous Year Solved  Papers  Class 12 Physics Outside Delhi 2011

Time allowed : 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

  1.  All questions are compulsory. There are 26 questions in all.
  2.  This question paper has five sections : Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.
  3. Section A contains five questions of one mark each, Section B contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains twelve questions of three marks each, Section D contains one value based question of four marks and Section E contains three questions of five marks each.
  4.  There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question of two marks, one question of three marks and all the three questions of five marks weightage. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
  5. You may use the following values of physical constants wherever necessary:



Question.1.Define electric dipole moment. Write its S.I. unit.
Answer : Electric dipole moment : Dipole moment is a measure of strength of electric dipole. It is vector quantity whose magnitude is equal to product of magnitude of charge and the distance between them.
p = q x d
SI unit of dipole moment is coulomb-meter (C-m)

Question.2.Where on the surface of Earth is the angle of dip 90°?
Answer : Magnetic dip is the angle made by a compass needle with the horizontal point on earths surface. Positive value of inclination indicates that the field is pointing downwards, into the earth, at the point of measurement. The angle of dip is 90° at the poles.

Question.3. A hollow metal sphere of radius 3 cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is 10 V. What is potential at the centre of the sphere?
Answer : Potential inside the charge sphere is constant and equal to potential on the surface of the conductor so, therefore, potential at the centre of sphere is 10V.

Question.4. How are radiowaves produced?
Answer : Production of Radiowaves : These are the electromagnetic waves of frequeficy ranging from 500 kHz to about 1000 MHz. Radiowaves are made by various types of transmitter, depending on the wavelength. They are also given off by starts, sparks and lighting. These waves are used in the field of radio communication.

Question.5. Write any two characteristic properties of nuclear force.
Answer : Characteristic properties of nuclear forces are :

  1.  Nuclear forces are strongest forces in nature : Magnitude of nuclear forces is 100 times that of electrostatic force and 1038 times the gravitational force.
  2. Nuclear forces are charge independent : Nuclear forces between a pair of protons, a pair of neutrons or a pair of neutron and proton act with same strength.

Question.6.Two bar magnets are quickly moved towards a metallic loop connected across a capacitor ‘C’ as shown in .the figure. Predict the polarity of the capacitor.

Question.7. What happens to the width of depletion layer of a p-n junction when it is

  1. forward biased,
  2. reverse biased?

Answer :

  1. Reverse biased : Potential drop across the junction increases and diffusion of holes and electrons across the junction ‘decreases. It makes the width of the depletion layer larger.
  2. Forward biased : Potential drop across the junction decreases and diffusion of holes and electrons across the junction increases. It makes the width of the depletion layer smaller. .

Question.8. Define the term ‘stopping potential’ in relation to photoelectric effect.
Answer : Stopping potential is the minimum negative (retarding) potential of anode for which photocurrent stops or becomes zero. It is denoted by Vs. The value of stopping potential is different for different metals but it is independent of the intensity of incident light.

Question.9. A thin straight infinitely long conducting wire having charge density X. is enclosed by a cylindrical surface of radius r and length 4 its axis coinciding with the length of the wire. Find the expression for the electric flux through the surface of the cylinder.


Question.11. Write the expression for Lorentz magnetic force on a particle of charge ‘q’ moving with velocity v in a magnetic field B. Show that no work is done by this force on the charged * particle.

Question.12. What are eddy currents? Write any two applications of eddy currents.
Answer : When a bulk piece of conductor is subjected to
changing magnetic flux, the induced current, developed in it is called eddy current.
Applications of eddy currents :

  1. Magnetic brakes in trains.
  2.  Electromagnetic damping.
  3.  Induction furnaces.
  4. Electric power meter.

Question.13. What is sky wave communication? Why is this mode of propagation restricted to the frequencies only upto few MHz?
Answer : Ionosphere reflection of radiowaves, back towards the earth, is known as sky wave communication. It is the mode of Wave propagation in.which the radiowaves emitted from the transmitter antenna reach the receiving antenna after reflection by the ionosphere.
The electromagnetic waves of frequencies greater than  40 MHz penetrate the ionosphere and escape. The ionosphere
layers act as a reflector for a certain range of frequencies (3-30 MHz).

Question.14. In the given circuit, assuming point A to be at zero potential, use KirchhofFs rules to determine the potential at point B.

Question.16. Net capacitance of three identical capacitors in series is 1 μF. What will be their net capacitance if connected in parallel?
Find the ratio of energy stored in the two configurations if they are both connected to the same source.

Question.17. Using the curve for the binding energy per nucleon as a function of mass number A, state clearly how the release in .energy in the processes of nuclear fission and nuclear fusion can be explained.
Answer : The above curve shows that:

  1.  When a heavy nucleus breaks into two medium sized
    nuclei (in nuclear fission) the BE/nucleon increases resulting, in the release of energy.
  2. When two small nuclei combine to form a relatively bigger nucleus in nuclear fusion BE/nucleon increases, resulting in the release of energy.

Question.18. In the meter bridge experiment, balance point was observed atJ with AJ = l.

  1.  The values of R and X were doubled and then interchanged. What would be the new position of balance point?
  2. If the galvanometer and battery are interchanged at
    the balance position, how will the balance point get affected?

Answer :

  1.  By doubling and interchanging R and X, there is no change in the position of balance point because
  2.  By interchanging galvanometer and battery, there will be no change in the balance point position.

Question.19. A convex less made up of glass of refractive index 1.5 is dipped, in turn, in (i) a medium of refractive index 1.65, (ii) a medium of refractive index 1.33.
(a) Will it behave as a converging or a diverging lens in the two cases?
(b) How will its focal length change in the two media?
Answer : (i) When convex lens is dipped in medium of refractive index 1.65, its focal length (f1) is given by

Question.20. Draw a plot showing the variation of photoelectric current with collector plate potential for two different frequencies, v1 > v2 of incident radiation having the same intensity. In which case will be stopping potential be higher? Justify your answer.
Stopping potential is more for the curve corresponding to the frequency V2 (...v1 > v2)
This is due to the fact that with increase in the frequency, the kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons also increases. Therefore we need more negative potential to stop these electrons.

Question.22. Use the mirror equation to show that
(a) an object placed between f and 2 f of a concave mirror produces a real image beyond If.
(b) a convex mirror always produces a virtual image independent of the location of the object.
(c) an object placed between the pole and focus of a concave
mirror produces a virtual and enlarged image.
Answer: As
Therefore, v is always +ve and always less than d, So we can say that convex mirror always produces a virtual image between pole and focus.
(c) Object between pole and F we have 0 < 0 < 1 In this case : v is +ve (virtual image) and /v/>c Therefore, we get a virtual and enlarge image.’

Question.23. Draw a labelled diagram of a full wave rectifier circuit state its working principle. Show the inp ut-output waveforms.
Rectification : Rectification means conversion of ac into dc. A p-n diode acts as a rectifier because an ac changes polarity periodically and a p-n diode conducts only when it is forward biased; it does not conduct when reverse biased.
Working : The ac input voltage across secondary S1 and S2 changes polarity after each half cycle. Suppose during the first cycle of input ac signal, the terrginal S1 is positive relative to centre tap and S2 is negative relative to it Then diode Di is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased. Therefore, diode D1 conducts while D2 does not. Thus, die-current in load resistance RL is in the same direction for both half cycles of input ac signal the output current is a continuous series of unidirectional pulses.
In a full wave rectifier, if input frequency is Hertz, then output frequency will be 2f Hertz because for each cycle of input, two positive half cycles of output are obtained.

Question.24.(a) Using de Broglie’s hypothesis, explain with the help of a suitable diagram, Bohr’s second postulate of quantization of energy levels in a hydrogen atom.
(b) The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What are the kinetic and potential energies of the electron in this state? ‘

Question.25. You are given, a circuit below. Write its truth table. Hence, identify the 1 qgic operation carried out by this circuit. Draw the logic symbol of the gate it corresponds to.

Question.26. A compound microscope uses an objective lens of focal length 4 cm and eyepiece lens of focal length 10 cm. An object is placed at 6 cm from the objective lens. Calculate the magnifying power of the compound microscope. Also calculate the length of the microscope.
A giant refracting telescope at an observatory has an objective lens of focal length 15 m. If an eyepiece lens of focal length 1.0 cm is used, find the angular magnification „ of the telescope.
If this telescope is used to ‘view the moon,’ what is the diameter of the image of the moon formed by the objective lens? The diameter of the moon is 3.42 x 106 m and the radius of the lunar orbit is 3.8 x 108m.
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-physics-outside-delhi-2011-23 (2)

Question.27. Two heating elements of resistances Ri and R2 when operated at a constant supply of voltage, V, consume powers P1 and P2 respectively. Deduce the expressions for the pqwer of their combination when they are, in turn, connected in (i) series and (i) parallel across the same voltage supply.
Answer: Two resistance are Ri and R2 Both consumed the power Pi and P2 respectively.

Question.28. (a) Using Amperes circuital law, obtain the expression for the magnetic field due to a long solenoid at a point inside . the solenoid on its axis.
(b) In what respect is a toroid different from a solenoid? Draw and compare the pattern of the magnetic field lines in the two cases.
(c) How is the magnetic field inside a given solenoid made
(a) State the principle of the working of a moving coil galvanometer, giving its labelled diagram.
(b) “Increasing the current sensitivity of a galvonometer may not necessarily increase its voltage sensitivity.” Justify this statement.
(c) Outline the necessary steps to convert a galvanometer of resistance RQ into an ammeter of a given range.
Answer: Magnetic field inside a long solenoid is uniform energy where and approximately zero outside it. Fig shows a sectional view of long solenoid, current comming out of the plane of the papers at points marked cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-physics-outside-delhi-2011-59 and current entering the plane of the paper at point marked cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-physics-outside-delhi-2011-58 at any point inside consider a rectangular loop abed as Amperian loop.
(b) Difference: In a toroid, magnetic lines do not exist outside the body. Toroid is closed whereas the solenoid is open on both sides.
Magnetic field is uniform inside a toroid whereas for solenoid, it is different at the two ends and centre
to Ampere circuital law.
(c) Strength of magnetic field :
(1) By inserting the ferromagnetic substance inside the solenoid.
(2) By increasing the current through the solenoid.
Answer: (a)
Principle : Its working based on the fact that when a current carrying coil is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a torque.
Working: When current (I) is passed in the coil, torque x acts on the coil, given by

Question.29. State the working of a.c. generator with”the help of a labelled diagram.
The coil of an a.c. generator having N turns, each of area A, is rotated with a constant angular velocity to. Deduce the expression for the alternating e.m.f. generated in the coil. What is the source of energy generation in this device.
(a) Show that in an a.c. circuit containing a pure inductor, the voltage is ahead of current by π/2 in phase.
(b) A horizontal straight wire of length L extending from east to west is hilling with speed v at right angles to the horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field B.

  1.  Write the expression for the instantaneous value of the e.m.f. induced in the wire.
  2. What is the direction of the e.m.f.?
  3. Which end of the wire is at the higher potential?

Answer : Working : When a coil (armature) rotates inside a uniform magnetic field, magnetic flux linked with the coil changes w.r.t. time. This produces an e.m.f according to Faradays law.
For first half of the rotation the current will be from one end (first ring) to the other end (second ring). For second half of the rotation it is in opposite sense.
To calculate the magnitude of e.m.f. induced,

Question.30. State the importance of coherent sources in the phenomenon of interference.
In Youngs double slit experiment to produce interference pattern, obtain the conditions for constructive and destructive interference. Hence deduce the expression for the fringe width. How does the fringe width get affected, if the entire experimental apparatus ofYoung is immersed in water?
Answer : Two sources of light which continuously emit light waves of same frequency with a zero or constant phase difference between them are called coherent sources. They are necessary to produce sustained interference pattern.
A thin film of oil spread over water shows beautiful colors due to interference of light.
If coherent sources are not taken, the phase difference, between the two interfering waves, will change continuously and a sustained interference pattern will not be obtained.


Question.1. A hollow metal sphere of radius 10 cm is charged such that
the potential on its surface is 5 V. What is the potential at the centre of the sphere?
Answer : Potential inside the charged sphere is constant and equal to potential on the surface of conductor.
Therefore, potential at the centre of sphere is 5V.

Question.2. How are X-rays produced?
Answer : X-rays are produced when electron strike a metal target. The electrons are liberated from the heated filament and accelerated from the high voltage towards the metal target. X-rays are produced’when electrons collide with the atom and nuclei of metal target.

Question.4. Where on the surface of Earth is the angle of dip zero?
Answer : At magnetic equator angle of dip is zero.

Question.12. State the principle of working of a transformer. Can a transformer be used to step up or step down a d c. voltage? Justify your answer.
Answer : Transformer—Principle : It is a device which converts high voltage A.C. into low voltage A.C. and vice -versa. It is based upon the principle of mutual induction. When alternating current passed through a coil, an induced e.m.f. is set up in the neighbouring coil.
Working : When an alternating current is passed through the primary, the magnetic flux through the iron core changes which does two things. It produces e.m.f. in the primary and an induced e.m.f. is also set up in the secondary. If we assume that the resistance of primary is negligible, the back e.m.f. will be equal to the voltage applied to the primary.
A transformer can not be used to step up or step down a d.c. voltage because d.c. can not produce a changing magnetic flux in the core of the transformer.

Question.14. In the given circuit, assuming point A to be at zero potential, use KirchhofFs rules to determine the potential at point B.

Question.17. What is ground wave communication? On what factors does the maximum range of propagation in this mode depend?
Answer : A radiowave that can travel directly from on point to another following the surface of earth is called a ground wave.
The maximum range of ground wave propagation depends upon the following factors :

  1.  The frequency of the transmitted wave
  2.  Power of transmitter.

Question.22. A convex lens made up of glass of refractive index 1.5 is dipped, in turn, in (i) a medium of refractive index 1.6, (ii) a medium of refractive index 1.3
(a) Will it behave as a converging or a diverging lens in two cases?
(b) How will its focal length change in the two media?


Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining question have been asked in Previous Set.
Question.1. A hollow metal sphere of radius 6 cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is 12 V. What is the potential at the centre of sphere?
Answer : Potential inside the charged sphere is constant and equal to potential on the surface of conductor. So therefore, potential at the centre of sphere is 12V.

Question.3. How are microwaves produced?
Answer : Microwaves are electromagnetic waves with wavelength ranging from as long as meter to as short as one millimeter, or equivalently with frequencies between 300 . MHz and 300 GHz. Microwaves are produced by vacuum
tubes devices that operate on the ballistic motion of electron controlled by magnetic or electric fields. Some different kinds of microwaves emitters are the cavity magnetron, the klystron, the traveling wave tube (TWT), the gyrotron and all starts.

Question.12. Mention various energy losses in transformer?
Answer : Transformers energy losses tend to worsen with increasing frequency. Magnetic core losses are exaggerated with higher frequencies, eddy currents in the iron core, resistance of windings or copper loss, hysteresis lpss and flux leakage are energy losses in transformers.

Question.14. In the given circuit, assuming point A to be at zero potential, , use Kirchhoff’s rules to determine the potential at point B.

Question.18. A thin straight infinitely long conducting wire having charge density X is enclosed by a cylindrical surface of . radius r and length 4 its axis coinciding with the length of the wire. Find the expression for the electric flux through the surface of the cylinder.
Answer: Electric flux through the cylinderical surface

Question.20. A converging lens has a focal length of 20 cm in air. It is made of a material of refractive index 1.6. It is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.3. Calculate its new focal length.
Answer :


Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources

Join us as we traverse through the corridors of Earth’s natural wonders, exploring the captivating journey of land, soil, water, natural vegetation, and wildlife resources. Let’s delve into the world of “Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources” and unravel the threads of interconnectedness, conservation, and the harmony between humans and nature. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science .

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources

Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 2 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What is the full form of CITES?
CITES is the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora.

Question 2.
Define National Park?
National Park is a natural area designated for the protection of ecological integrity of one or more ecosystem for the present and the future generation.

Question 3.
Name the classification of forests depending on when they shed their leaves?
Forests are broadly classified as evergreen and deciduous depending on when they shed their leaves.

Question 4.
Primarily on what factors does the growth of vegetation depends upon?
The growth of vegetation depends primary on temperature and moisture.

Question 5.
Why is river Yamuna getting polluted?
River Yamuna is getting polluted due to sewage, industrial effluents and garbage released into it.

Question 6.
What quantity of water does a dripping tap waste in a year?
A dripping tap water 1200 litres of water in a year.

Question 7.
What are the two major threats to soil as a resource?
Soil erosion and depletion are the major threats to soil as a resource.

Question 8.
How much time period is required for the formation of just one centimetre of soil?
It takes hundreds of years to make just one centimetre of soil.

Question 9.
Which natural resource covers only about 30% of the total area of the earth’s surface?

Question 10.
What is the main reason behind the uneven distribution of population in different parts of the world?
It is mainly due to varied characteristics of land and climate.

Question 11.
On what basis land is classified into private land and community land?
On the basis of ownership.

Question 12.
What has led to large scale destruction of forest cover and arable land?
Growing population and their ever growing demand have led to a large scale destruction of forest cover and arable land.

Question 13.
Why is Hazard Mapping done?
Hazard mapping is done to locate areas prone to landslide.

Question 14.
What determines the type of soil?
Landform determines the type of soil.

Question 15.
In which year does the consumption of water for human use was 3850 cai/year?
In 1975.

Question 16.
Why is Earth appropriately called water planet?
Because 3/4th of the earth’s surface is covered with water.

Question 17.
What percent of fresh water is present on Earth?
Only about 2.7%.

Question 18.
What is the major problem faced by the world today?
Access to clean and adequate water sources is a major problem faced by the world today.

Question 19.
On what does the growth of vegetation depends primarily?
The growth of vegetation depends primarily on temperature and moisture.

Question 20.
Give some examples of species protected under CITES.
Bears, dolphins, cacti, corals, orchids and aloes, etc.

Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 2 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What is soil and how is soil made fertile?
The thin layer of grainy substance covering the surface of the earth is called soil. It is closely linked to land. Landforms determine the type of soil. Soil is made up of organic matter, minerals and weathered rocks found on the earth. This happens through the process of weathering. The right mix of minerals and organic matter make the soil fertile.

Question 2.
What does the weathering mean and how does the weathering help soil?
Weathering is the breaking up and decay of exposed rocks by temperature changes, frost action, plants, animals and human activity and soil is made up of organic matter, minerals and weathered rocks found on the earth. This happens through the process of weathering.

Question 3.
How does the major factors of soil formation play an important role?
The major factors of soil formation are the nature of the parent rock and climatic factors and

  1. Parent Rock: Determines colour, texture, chemical properties minerals, content, permeability.
  2. Climate: Temperature, rainfall influence rate of weathering and humus.
  3. Relief: Altitude and slope, determine accumulation of soil.
  4. Flora, Fauna and Microorganism: Affect the rate of humus formation.
  5. Time: Determines thickness of soil profile.

Question 4.
What are some broad mitigation techniques of landslide?
Some broad mitigation techniques of landslide are as follows:

  1. Hazard mapping for locating lanslides prone area, so that building settlements can be avoided.
  2. Construction of retention wall to stop land from slipping.
  3. Increase in the vegetation cover to arrest landslide.
  4. The surface drainage control works to control the movement of landslide along with rain water and spring flows.

Question 5.
How is the land classified on the basis of ownership? What is the concept of common property resources?
Land can be classified on the basis of ownership as private and community land. Private land is owned by the individuals whereas, community land is owned by the community for common uses like collection of fodder, fruits, nuts or medicinal herbs. These community lands are called common property resources.

Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 2 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
What is a land and what is the concept of Land use?
Land is among the most important natural resources. It covers only about thirty per cent of the total area of the earths’s surface and all parts of this small percentage are not habitable.

Land Life
Land is used for different purposes such as agriculture, forestry, mining, building houses, roads and setting up of industries. This is commonly termed as Land use. The use of land is determined by the physical factors such as topography, soil, climate, minerals and availability of water. Human factors such as population and technology are also important determinants of land use pattern.

Question 2.
Describe Landslide and Mitigation mechanism in brief.
Landslides are simply defined as the mass movement of rock debris or earth down a slope. They often take place in conjunction with earthquakes, floods and volcanoes. A prolonged spell of rainfall can cause heavy landslide that can block the flow of river for quite some time.

The formation of river blocks can cause havoc to the settlements downstream on its bursting. In the hilly terrain landslides have been a major and widely spread natural disaster that often strike life and property and occupy a position of major concern.

Mitigation mechanism is the advancement in scientific techniques which has empowered us to understand what factors cause landslides and how to manage them.

Picture Based Questions Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources

Look at the picture given below and answer the following questions:
Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources img-1
1. What does the picture show.
2. Under which category is Tsunami placed?
1. The picture shows the loss of rainforest in Great Nicobar after Tsunami.
2. Natural factors accelerating the process of extinction of resources.

Map Skills Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources

Question 1.
On an outline map of India mark the following:
(i) Kaziranga National Park
(ii) Himachal Pradesh
(iii) Great Nicobar
Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources img-2

Question 2.
On an outline Map of the world mark the regions of the world where there is scarcity of water.
Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources img-3

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resources

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resources

In this chapter, “Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resources,” we’ll traverse through the abundant reserves of nature, discovering the invaluable gifts bestowed upon us. From the riches beneath the earth’s surface to the boundless expanse of the atmosphere, from the life-sustaining water bodies to the fertile lands, this narrative unveils the wealth of resources that shape our existence. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science .

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resources

Resources Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 1 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
Define localized resources.
The resources which are found only at certain places are localized resources.

Question 2.
What is meant by natural resources?
Resources that are drawn from nature and used without much modifications are called natural resources.

Question 3.
Give some examples of abiotic resources.
Soil, rocks, minerals, etc. are few examples of abiotic resources.

Question 4.
How are the resources generally classified?
Resources are generally classified into different groups depending upon their level of development and use; origin; stock and distribution.

Question 5.
What do you understand by the term sustainable development?
It means balancing the need to use resources and also conserve them for the future purpose.

Question 6.
Define Patent.
Patent means the exclusive right over any idea or invention.

Question 7.
What is the shortest meaning of ‘value’?
Value means worth

Question 8.
Give an example of localized resources.
An example is iron ore.

Question 9.
What acts as an important factor changing a substance into resources?
Technology acts as an important factor.

Question 10.
Define resource conservation.
It is defined as using resources carefully and giving them time to get renewed.

Question 11.
Define Technology.
It is the application of latest knowledge and skill in doing or making things.

Question 12.
Which of the resources category has a limited stock?
Non-renewable resource of energy has a limited stock.

Question 13.
Define the term utility.
The state of being useful, profitable or beneficial is termed as utility.

Question 14.
What is meant by Stock of Resources?
It is the amount of resources available for us.

Question 15.
Name the two groups of resource whose classification is done based on development and its use.

  1. Actual resources
  2. Potential resources

Question 16.
Give examples of some human-made resources.
Building, roads, bridges, machinery and vehicles, etc….,

Resources Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 1 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
Describe the term Patent and Technology.
The term patent and technology is described as:

  1. Patent is meant by the exclusive right over any idea or invention.
  2. Technology is the application of latest knowledge and skill in doing or making things.

Question 2.
What are the renewable resources and how can their stock of certain resource get affected?
Renewable resources are those which get renewed Or replenished quickly. Some of these are unlimited and are not affected by human activities, such as solar and wind energy. Yet careless use of certain renewable resources like water, soil and forest can affect their stock.

Question 3.
What are the Human Made Resources?
Natural substances become resources only when their original form has been changed. Iron ore was not a resource until people learnt to extract iron from it. People use natural resources to make buildings, bridges, roads, machinery and vehicles, that are known as human made resources, even the technology is defined as a human made resource.

Question 4.
What do you know about Human Resource?
Human resource refers to the number (quantity) and abilities (mental and physical) of the people. Though, there are differing views regarding treatment of humans as a resource, one cannot deny the fact that it is the skill of human that helps in transferring the physical material into a valuable resource.

Question 5.
Define what is meant by the Actual Resources?
Actual resources are the resources whose quantity and quality are known and these resources are being used in the present. The rich deposits of coal in Ruhr region of Germany and petroleum in West Asia, the dark soils of the Deccan plateau in Maharashtra are all actual resources.

Resources Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 1 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
Describe the following terms in short.
(i) Actual resources
(ii) Non-renewable resources
(iii) Ubiquitous resources
(iv) Natural resources

  • Actual resources: These are those resources whose quantity is known. These resources are being used in the present.
  • Non-renewable resources: These are those resources which have a limited stock. Ohce the stock are exhausted it may take thousands of years to be renewed and replenished.
  • Ubiquitous resources: Resources that are found everywhere are Ubiquitous resources.
  • Natural resources: Resources that are drawn from nature and used without much modification are called Natural resources.

Question 2.
Define the following.
(i) Human-made resources
(ii) Human resources
(iii) Sustainable development
(i) Human-made resources: Natural substances converted into resources by changing their original form. For example, iron ore was not a resource until people learnt to extract iron from it. People use natural resources to make buildings, bridges, roads, machinery and vehicles, which are known as human-made resources. Technology is also a human-made resource.

(ii) Human resources: People can make the best use of nature to create more resources when they have the knowledge, skill and technology to do so. That is why human beings are a special resource. People are human resources.

(iii) Sustainable development: It means careful utilisation of resources so that besides meeting the requirements of the present, it also takes care of future generations.

Picture Based Questions Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Resources

Look at the picture given below and answer the following questions:
Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resources img-1
1. Under which resource category the above pic has been categorized?
2. How do wind fans generate energy?
1. Under the category of Potential Resources.
2. Wind fans generate energy using wind cycles.

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Women, Caste and Reform

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Women, Caste and Reform

Step into the realms of social transformation and women’s emancipation as we embark on an enlightening journey through Class 8 History Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Women, Caste and Reform. Titled “Women, Caste, and Reform,” this chapter delves into the fascinating and tumultuous history of women’s rights and caste-based reforms in India. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science .

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Women, Caste and Reform

Women, Caste and Reform Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 9 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What was Brahmo Sabha known as later?
The later known name of Brahmo Sabha was the Brahmo Samaj.

Question 2.
Why were the people such as Rammohan Roy described as reformers?
They were described as reformers because they felt that the best way to ensure such changes was by persuading people to give up old practices and adopt a new way of life.

Question 3.
Name the practice against which Rammohan Roy campaigned.
He began campaigning against the practice of Sati.

Question 4.
Who amongst the reformers was the most famous and used ancient texts to suggest that widows could remarry?
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar used the ancient texts to suggest that widows could remarry.

Question 5.
Who founded Arya Samaj?
Swami Dayanand Saraswati founded Arya Samaj.

Question 6.
What was criticized in the book, Stripurushtulna written by Tarabai Shinde?
The book criticized the social differences between men and women.

Question 7.
What did the nationalist’s leaders promise to women?
Nationalist leaders promised that there would be full suffrage for all men and women after independence.

Question 8.
For which purpose was the Paramhans Mandali founded in 1840?
It was founded to work for the abolition of caste.

Question 9.
Where did the number of Mahar people found jobs?
A number of Mahar people found jobs in the Mahar Regiment.

Question 10.
Who wrote the book named Gulamgirit
Jyotirao Phule wrote the book named Gulamgiri.

Question 11.
What does the social reformers felt?
They felt some changes are essential in society and unjust practices needed to be sorted out.

Question 12.
Define ‘Sati’.
Widows who used to burn themselves in the funeral of their husbands were known as Sati.

Question 13.
Who was Raja Ram Roy?
He was a great social reformer.

Question 14.
Who was the founder of Brahmo Samaj?
Raja Ram Mohan Roy.

Question 15.
In which year Brahmo Samaj was founded?
In 1830.

Question 16.
Name the founder of Ramakrishnan Mission.
Swami Vivekananda.

Question 17.
When was the Prarthana samaj established?
In 1867.

Question 18.
At what place Veda Samsy was established?
It was established in Madras. (Chennai).

Question 19.
Where does the Madigas belongs to?
Madigas belongs to Andhra Pradesh.

Question 20.
What was John Allen?
John Allen was the coolie ship.

Question 21.
What work was performed by Madigas?
Madiga were experts at cleaning hides, tanning them for use, and sewing sandals.

Question 22.
Who was Pandita Rama Bai?
Pandita Rama Bai was a great scholar of Sanskrit.

Women, Caste and Reform Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 9 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What was the childhood experience of Dr Ambedkar because of his belonging to the Mahar Community?
Dr Ambedkar was bom into a Mahar family. As a child he experienced what caste prejudice meant in everyday life. In school he was forced to sit outside the classroom on the ground. He was not even allowed to drink water from taps that upper-caste children used.

Question 2.
What was the argument of E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker about the untouchables?
E.V. Ramaswamy argued that untouchables were the upholders of an original Tamil and Dravidian culture which had been subjugated by BrahmAnswer: He felt that all religious authorities saw social divisions and inequality as God-given. Untouchables had to free themselves from all religions in order to achieve social equality.

Question 3.
What was the objective of associations founded by the upper caste Hinduism?
The objectives of these associations were to uphold caste distinctions as a cornerstone of Hinduism and how things were sanctified by scriptures.

Question 4.
What was claimed by Phule about the time period before the Aryan rule?
Phule claimed that before the Aryan rule there existed a golden age when warrior peasants tilled the land and ruled the Maratha countryside in just and fairways. He proposed that Shudras and Ati Shudras should unite to challenge caste discrimination.

Question 5.
How did Muslim women play a notable role in promoting education among women?
Muslim women like the Begums of Bhopal played a notable role in promoting education among women. They founded primary school for girls at Aligarh. Another remarkable woman named Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain started schools for Muslim girls in Patna and Calcutta. She also argued that religious leaders of every faith accorded an inferior place to women.

Women, Caste and Reform Class 8 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 9 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
Explain the Singh Sabha Movement in brief.
The Singh Sabha Movement is a reform organization of the Sikhs, the First Singh Sabhas were founded at Amritsar in 1873 and at Lahore in 1879. The Sabhas aimed to rid Sikhism of superstitions, caste distinctions and practices seen by them as non-Sikh. They promoted education among the Sikhs, often combining modern instruction with Sikh teachings.

Question 2.
How challenging was the life for Dr B.R. Ambedkar during his childhood when he experienced caste prejudice in everyday life? How did he challenge the problems faced by low caste people?
Ambedkar was born into a Mahar family. As a child he experienced what caste prejudice meant in everyday life. In school he was forced to sit outside the classroom on the ground and was not allowed to drink water from taps that upper caste children used.

After finishing school, he got a fellowship to go to the U.S. for higher studies. On his return to India in 1919, he wrote extensively about upper caste power in contemporary society.

In 1927 Ambedkar started a temple entry movement. The movement of temple entry was participated by Mahar caste followers. Brahman priests were outraged when the Dalits used water from the temple tank. Ambedkar led 3 such movements for temple entry between 1927 and 1935. His aim was to make everyone see the power of caste prejudices within the society.

Picture Based Questions Class 8 History Chapter 9 Women, Caste and Reform

Look at the picture given below and answer the following questions:
Class 8 History Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Women, Caste and Reform img-1
(i) Name the following and was drawn by whom?
(ii) Who were not allowed to enter the temples?
(i) The gateway to the Madurai temple, drawn by Thomas Daniell.
(ii) untouchables.

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Women, Caste and Reform img-2
(i) What has been shown in the picture?
(ii) When was it established?
(iii) by whom it was established?
(i) The Khalsa College Amritsar.
(ii) In 1892.
(iii) Leaders of the Singh Sabha movement