Bhagya

Embark on a thought-provoking journey through the complexities and nuances of democracy in the contemporary world. Have you ever wondered about the principles, challenges, and diverse forms of democracy that exist in our globalized society? In this article, we present you with a Democracy in the Contemporary World Class 9 Extra Questions with Answers. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers.

Democracy in the Contemporary World Class 9 Extra Questions with Answers

Question 1.
How is Allende pronounced?
Answer:
Allende is pronounced as Avendo.

Question 2.
When was Allende’s government overthrown?
Answer:
Allende’s government was overthrown on September 11, 1973.

Question 3.
When was Allende made President of Chile?
Answer:
Salvador Allende was made the President of Chile in 1970.

Question 4.
Mention the name of the political party which came to power in Chile in 1970.
Answer:
Popular Unity.

Question 5.
Who succeeded Allende in Chile in a.military coup?
Answer:
General Augusta Planchet succeeded Allende.

Question 6.
Where is Calama located?
Answer:
Calama is located about thousand miles away from the capital of Chile, Santiago.

Question 7.
How did the women of Calama demonstrate their grief?
Answer:
They remained silence, always in silence.

Question 8.
Which state in our country has a shape similar to Chile?
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 9.
Can you find, examples similar to what happened to Women of Calama from other countries?
Answer:
In Russia during the Czarist regime.

Question 10.
Can you identify who is the President of Chile now?
Answer:
Michelle Bachelet (Jan, 2006).

Question 11.
Why did newspapers in that country not write about women of Calama in those years?
Answer:
The newspapers in that country, in the those years, were under state censorship.

Question 12.
Which political party governed Poland in 1980?
Answer:
The Polish UnitedWorkers Party-a one-party monopoly of power.

Question 13.
In which factory in the city of Golansk file strike began in 1980?
Answer:
Lenin Shipward.

Question 14.
Name the person who joined the strikers in Poland in 1980.
Answer:
Lech Walesa.

Question 15.
Name any two countries where the Communist Party ruled during the Polish events in 1980.
Answer:
Bulgaria and Hungary.

Question 16.
Identify a few countries around Poland.
Answer:
Germany, Lithuania, Belarus, Slovakia, Ukraine.

Question 17.
Why did strike begin in shipyard?
Answer:
The strike began to take back a crane operator a woman worker, who faced unjust dismissal from service.

Question 18.
Why was an independent trade union so important for Poland?
Answer:
It was the first trade union formed independent of the government’s, control.

Question 19.
When did the Glorious revolution occur in England?
Answer:
The glorious revolution occurred in England ih 1688.

Question 20.
When did the 13 colonies declared independent in what is now known as the United States of America 7
Answer:
In 1776.

Question 21.
Mention the several steps taken by the AHende’s government to help the poor workers.
Answer:
The Allende’s government, in Chile, took several steps to help the poor workers.
These included

• reforms in the educational system,
• free milk for children,
• redistribution of land among the farmers.

Question 22.
Give two reasons Why AHende’s political party was popular in Chile?
Answer:

Allende’s political party, the Popular Unity was popular in Chile for reasons given below:

1. It was opposed to foreign companies exploiting natural resources (copper) against the interests of the people of Chile.
2. The rich opposed the Allende’s political party, though the workers, by and large, liked Allende’s efforts.

Question 23.
What did Pinocfiet’s regime dp after overthrowing Allende’s government in Chile in 1973?
Answer:
Pinochet’s regime, after taking over the power, began torturing people and killing those who were supporting Allende In the process, more than 2000 people were killed by the military regime. Many more were, reported ‘missing’. No one knows what had happened to them.

Question 24.
Why did Allende refer to “workers” in his speech? Why would have the rich opposed to him?
Answer:
Before Allende’s government wa$ taken over by Pinochet’s military regime, he got the opportunity to address his people, referring them as ‘workers’; The rich-opposed Allende because his policies were pro-workers and pro-poor.

Question 25.
Think why would women and children of Calama were asked to keep quiet? Why people could not react to those events?
Answer:
The women and children of Calama were asked to keep quiet because if they spoke, their children would be killed by the military. People, could not react to military’s torture because they knew that if they reacted, they would also be tortured.

Question 26.
How was Poland ruled in 1980?
Answer:
Poland, in 1980, was ruled by the Polish United Worker Party. Then there was a one-party monopoly of power in Poland. No one was permitted to oppose the official party line. The government trade unions owned all the factories. These trade unions were not independent of the ruling party.

Question 27.
Why did the strike begin in Lenin Shipyard in Gdansk?
Answer:
The workers of the Lenin Shipyard started strike in the city of Gdansk. The demand of the workers was to take back a crane operator, a woman worker, who faced an unjust dismissal from service.

Question 28.
Which other demands were put forth as the strike spread across the whole city of Gdansk?
Answer:
The Lenin Shipyard strike spread as Lech Walesa, also dismissed from the service as an electrician, joined the strike.

The demands of the workers began swelling:

• all the workers removed from the service be taken back;
• the workers sought right to have independent trade unions;
• political process be made freed;
• censorship on the press be removed.

Question 29.
Mention two provisions of the 21 point agreement made between the Polish government and the workers led by Walesa.
Answer:
The two provisions of the 21 point, agreement between the Polish government and the workers were:

1. The workers’ right to form independent trade unions was guaranteed.
2. They got the right to go on strike.

Question 30.
Why did the Polish government led by Polish United Workers Party got panicky?

Answer:
The Polish Workers United Party got panicky as the solidarity, led by Walesa had more than one crore workers as its members; the revelations that the government was corrupt and mismanaged made the latter declare the martial in the country. As thousands of the Solidarity members were put in prison, the government withdrew freedoms given of the people.

Question 31.
What led to the rise of Walesa attaining power in Poland?
Answer:
In late 1980s, Walesa was gaining popularity. He led another strike in 1988. The government had already become weak; the economy was bn its .decline; there was no hope of government’s getting support from the USSR. An agreement resulted in having free elections in the country. The solidarity won 99 seats of the Senate which had a total strength of 100. Lech Walesa became the President in October 1990.

Question 32.
What reasons would you give to say that Solidarity was popular in 1990?
Answer:
The following are the reasons to say that the Solidarity was popular in Poland in 1990:

• Solidarity was a trade union organized to protect the interests of the workers.
• It sought to gain rights in favour of the workers, i.e. the right to organise, and right to strike
• It sought to gain rights such as freedoms to talk about freely and to express protests.
• It was able to organise itself under the able leadership of men like Lech Walesa.

Question 33.
What freedoms were devised to the people in Chile and Poland when they did not have democracy?
Answer:
When Chile and Poland did not have democracy in 1970s and 1980s respectively, the people were denied numerous freedoms.

Some of these were :

• They were denied right to personal liberties;
• They were denied right to freedom of speech;
• They were not allowed to organise strikes;
• They were not allowed to register their protests freely;
• They were not permitted to express their views in the press; press was also not free.

Question 34.
Can you think of reasons why people would have liked a change in their government?
Answer:
The people would have liked to have a change in their government because they would have liked a democracy in place of non-democracy; their desire to have a change would have ushered an era of freedoms and prosperity for the people.

Question 35.
Identify some features that made Portugal under Salazar a case of non-democracy.
Answer:

• Salazar overthrew the elected, government in 1926.
• From 1926 to 1974, Salazar ruled as a dictator.
• Salazar suppressed opposition; killed their leaders;
• He organised ‘concentration camps’ where lie punished those who were involved in working-class in forests.
• He ruled through spies who were present at public place?.
• Citizens were denied freedoms; they could not discuss politics in the open.

Question 36.
What could be the impact of the presence of secret police in public place? Why is it necessary for people to discuss politics without fear?
Answer:
The presence of secret police in public places: cafes, railway stations, post offices, hospitals, universities, factories- would mean having a reign of terror. Under such system, citizens would not talk against the regime for fear of being arrested -and tortured. Politics without fear is a guarantee of democracy; with fear, that of a non-democracy.

Question 37.
Why were women given voting rights much later than men in most countries? Why did this not happen in India?
Answer:
Franchise (Voting rights) movements started in different countries at different times. These movements sought male franchise first. This is why men got voting rights earlier. In India this did not happen so because democratic and voting rights ushered for all at the same time after independence.

Question 38.
How did the French Revolution, the Glorious Revolution and the American War of independence help pave the way for democracy?
Answer:
The French revolution of 1789 did not establish a secure and stable democracy, in France. But it prepared the ground for and inspired many struggles for democracy all over Europe. The French revolution was preceded by a more limited but no less significant movement in Britain. This culminated in the ‘Glorious’ revolution of 1688. Around the same time as the French revolution, the British colonies in what is today the United States of America declared themselves independent.

Since the principle underlying the Declaration of Independence of 1776 was democratic, it was natural that they set up a democratic system in the Constitution of the United States of America. These developments decided once for all that there are no divine rights of the kings,- that men and women constitute the basis on which their rights and liberties are built, that men and women are born equal and born free.

Question 39.
How would you describe Salazar’s regim? as a dictatorship? Elections were held in Salazar’s Portugal. Why should it not be called a democracy?
Answer:
Salazar captured power in Portugal in 1926. For about a half-century, he ruled the country as a a.dictator. He was cruel to the opposition leaders, tortured them and killed them. His government started concentration camps on a barren island to punish those involved in working-class protests. The spies and informers of the secret police were present in all public- places-cafes, railway stations, post offices/ hospitals, offices, universities and factories. Being fearful of arrest, the citizen could not dare to discuss politics in the open.

After 1945, the government allowed opposition to campaign for one month before elections. This one month of free time’ was never enough to mobilise people politically for support during elections a$ no opposition was allowed after elections. The elections were held irregularly, every four or seven years. The opposition never won a single seat in these elections.

Question 40.
The late 17th century and the early 20th century saw some “democracies” in the world. Why were they not called democracies in the sense we use in the world today?
Answer:
Some countries of the world could be called ‘democracies’ by the beginning of the twentieth century. But these countries, which became democratic in the 19th century, did not allow all people to vote. Often the women did not have a right to vote. In some countries, only people owning property had the right to vote. In the United States of America, the blacks did not have a right to vote all over the country until the second half of the twentieth century. So we cannot say that these were full democracies in the sense in. which we understand it today.

Never, the beginning for democracy had begun. These countries had some of the following things common to them:

• The governments were no more dictatorial. A measure of governmental accountability was seen.
• Some kind of limited representative systems had started.
• People had started launching movements for their rights.

Question 41.
Where do you place Ghana as a democratic nation?
Answer:
The country that is today called Ghana used to be a British colony called Gold Coast. This country became independent in 1957. It was among the first counties in Africa to be liberated from colonialism. It inspired other African countries to struggle for freedom. Kwame Nkrumah, son of a goldsmith and a teacher himself was active in the independence struggle of his country. For him, like many other African nationalists, the struggle against foreign rule was linked to establishing democratic rule.

After independence, Nkrumah became the first prime minister and then the president of Ghana. He was a friend of Jawaharlal Nehru and an inspiration for democrats, in Africa. But unlike Nehru, he deviated from the path of democracy and got himself elected the president for life. Nkrumah justified his actions by arguing that “Even a system based on a democratic constitution may need backing up in the period following independence by emergency measures of a totalitarian kind”. Shortly thereafter, in 1966, he was overthrown by military, Ghana was no longer a democracy.

Question 42.
Explain with examples as to how democracy lias been adopted in the world since 1990s.
Answer:
The 1990 saw’ numerous changes in the World. The communist regime came to an end in Poland, and Hungary in eastern European countries. The USSR disintegrated as a simple country and multi-party system came to be adopted. Major changes, especially in Pakistan and Bangladesh” made a transition from army rule to democratic regime in 1990s. In Nepal, the monarch gave up many of his powers to become a constitutional monarch’ to be guided by elected leaders. These changes ‘ were not permanent and were reversed in Pakistan and Nepal. Yet the overall trend in this period is of more and more countries turning to democracy.

This phase continues till now. By 2002, about 140 countries were holding multi-party elections. This number was higher than ever before. More than 80 previously non-democratic countries have made significant advances,vtowards democracy, during this period. but even today, there are many countries where people cannot express their opinion freely. They still cannot elect their leaders. They cannot decide how they will live in the present and in the future.

Question 43.
Give a detailed account of developments that took place in Myanmar since 1990.
Answer:
Elections were held in Myanmar (earlier Burma) in 1990. The NED (National League for Democracy), led by Aung Sang Suti Kyi won with a comprehensive victory. But the military rulers of Myanmar refused to recognise the election results and put the elected pro-democracy leaders including Suu Kyi under house arrest. Political activists, accused of even the most trivial offences, have been jailed from seven to fifteen years.

Anyone caught publicly airing view’s or issuing statements critical of the regime was sentenced up to twenty years in prison. Due to the coercive policies of the military-ruled government in Myanmar, about 6 to 10 lakh people in that country, have been uprooted from their homes and have taken shelter elsewhere.

Despite the restrictions of house arrest, Suu Kyi continued to campaign for democracy. According to her, “The quest for democracy in Myanmar is the struggle of the people to live whole, meaningful lives as free and equal members of the world community. Her struggle has won international recognition; She was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize. Yet the people in Myanmar are still struggling for establishing a democratic government.

Question 44.
Are we moving towards global democracy? Give examples.
Answer:
We know that democracy has expanded. Now more arid more people in Asia and Africa are also able to take part in forming governments in their countries. But does this trend also hold true for relationships among different countries or people from different countries? Are we moving towards global democracy? A quick look at some of the major global institutions suggests that we are not.

Expansion of democracy within nations has not led to greater democracy at the international level. Consider these facts :
1. The United Nations (UN) is the largest and best-known international organisation in the world. Every one of its 192 member countries has one vote in the UN General Assembly.

But all the crucial decisions about taking action in any conflict situation are taken by the 15 member Security Council. While ten of its members are non-permanent, the real power is with five ‘permanent’ members-USA, Russia, UK, France and China. Any one of; these five can ‘veto’, that is to reject of to stall, any decision of the Security Council.

2. International Monetary Fund (IMF) is one of the biggest money lenders for any country in the World. Its 173 member states do not have equal voting power. The vote of each country is weighted by how much money it has given to IMF. Eight of the leading ‘G-8’ (Canada, Germany, Japan, Italy, UK, USA, Russia, and France) countries have a majority of votes. The World Bank has a similar .system of voting. The President of the World Bank is always a citizen of the USA, nominated by the Treasury Secretary (Finance Minister) of the US government.

3. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is the key-global institution that decides upon rules of trade among different countries. Every decision of the WTO has to be by consensus of all the countries. So it appears to be fully democratic. But most of the-decisions are taken in informal meeting which are secret and to which only some powerful countries are invited.

In fact, While nations are becoming more democratic than they were earlier/ international organisations are becoming less democratic. In this sense, the collapse of ‘ the USSR had negative effect on democracy.
Now, the USA is the only superpower in the world.

This has encouraged the USA to act unilaterally, without seeking the consent of or even consultation with other countries. This has led more and more people and countries to say that the UN should be more democratised. Only through equal participation of all the members, can the UN be a democratic organisation. In this way, the world also can be more democratic.

Objective Type Questions

1. Fill in the blanks with suitable words/names/events:

(i) The deposed leader of Chile in 1973 was …………………………………… . (Pinochet, Allende)
Answer:
Allende

(ii) Calama is a place a thousand miles away from …………………………………… . (Chicago, Santiago)
Answer:
Santiago

(iii) The name of the trade union leader in Poland in 1980s was …………………………………… .(Walesa, Luxembourg).
Answer:
Walesa

(iv) The French Revolution occurred in …………………………………… .(1776,1789).
Answer:
1789

(v) Salazar was a dictator of …………………………………… .(Myanmar, Portugal).
Answer:
Portugal

(vi) Suu Kyi got the Nobel Prize in …………………………………… . (Economics, Peace)
Answer:
Peace.

2. Choose (✓) or (✗) from the following:

(i) Russia is indulging in democracy promotion these lays.
Answer:
(✗)

(ii) Myanmar is the changed name of Burma.
Answer:
(✓)

(iii) Gold Coast is known as Namibia now.
Answer:
(✗)

(iv) Salazar was a dictator of Portugal.
Answer:
(✓)

(v) Poland had a popularly elected President in Pinochet.
Answer:
(✗)

(vi) Democracy is the best form of government.
Answer:
(✓)

3. Choose the right answer from the alternatives given below:

(i) The name of Allende political party was
(a) Solidarity
(b) Popular Unity
(c) United Workers Party
Answer:
(b) Popular Unity

(ii) Myanmar was once known as:
(a) Hong Kong
(b) Burma
(c) Laos
(d) Indonesia.
Answer:
(b) Burma

(iii) The following country changed from democracy to non-democracy:
(a) USA
(b) Chile
(c) England
(d) France
Answer:
(b) Chile

(iv) Walesa was elected leader in October 1990 of:
(a) Chile
(b) Poland
(c) Portugal
(d) Myanmar
Answer:
(b) Poland

(v) WTO is a global institution associated with:
(a) Transport
(b) Trade
(c) Television
(d) Traffic
Answer:
(b) Trade

(vi) One of the following is not a member of G-8:
(a) Italy
(b) Sweden
(c) Japan
(c) Canada
Answer:
(b) Sweden.

Embark on an enlightening journey through the diverse climates that shape the geographical tapestry of our planet. Have you ever wondered about the various climatic regions, the factors influencing climate, and the impact of climate on the natural world and human societies? In this article, we present you Climate Class 9 Extra Questions with Answers. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers.

Climate Class 9 Extra Questions with Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is climate? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Climate refers to sum total of weather conditions over a large area for a long period of time (30 – 40 years).

Question 2.
Distinguish between climate and weather. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
Climate refers to the sum total of weather conditions and variations over a large area for a long period of time (thirty years).
Weather refers to the state of the atmosphere over an area at any point of time.

Question 3.
Name the elements of climate and weather.
Answer:
Elements of weather and climate are temperature, atmospheric pressure, wind, humidity and precipitation.

Question 4.
What is the climate of India?
Answer:
India’s climate is described as “Tropical Monsoon Type of Climate”.

Question 5.
What does the word ‘Monsoon’ mean?
Answer:
The word Monsoon is derived from the Arabic word ‘mausim’ which literally means season. It refers to the seasonal reversal in the wind direction during a year.

Question 6.
What is the variation of temperature in summer in India?
Answer:
In summer, the mercury occasionally touches 50°C in some parts of Rajasthan desert, whereas it may be around 20°C in Pahalgam in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 7.
What is the variation of temperature in winter in India?
Answer:
In winter, the temperature in Drass in Jammu and Kashmir is as low as – 45°C and Thiruvananthapuram may have 22°C.

Question 8.
What is the variation of annual precipitation in India?
Answer:
The annual precipitation is over 400 cms in Meghalaya and less than 10 cms in Ladakh and western Rajasthan.

Question 9.
In which months is the season of rainfall experienced in India?
Answer:
Most parts of India receive rainfall from June to September.

Question 10.
Why do the coastal areas of India experience less contrast in temperature?
Answer:
The coastal areas experience less contrast in temperature because of the influence of the sea, e.g. Mumbai experiences an equable climate.

Question 11.
Why is there decrease in rainfall from east to west in the Northern Plains?
Answer:
There is general decrease in the amount of rainfall from east to west in the Northern Plains as the winds have less moisture in them when they reach the western side.

Question 12.
What does the term continentality mean?
Answer:
As the distance from the sea increases the moderating influence of the sea decreases and the people experience extreme weather conditions. This is called continentality i.e. very hot in summers and cold in winters, e.g. in Delhi.

Question 13.
Why does the amount of solar radiation vary with latitude?
Answer:
The amount of solar radiation varies with latitude because of the curvature of the earth. The temperature decreases from the equator to the poles.

Question 14.
How does the temperature decrease with altitude?
Answer:
The temperature of air decreases at the rate of 1°C for every 165 m of ascent. This is because the air density decreases with height. That is why hills are cooler in summers.

Question 15.
Which two factors affect the wind and pressure system of an area and how?
Answer:
The latitude and the altitude of the place affect the temperature and rainfall of the area.

Question 16.
What are ocean currents? Name the two types.
Answer:
Ocean currents are streams of water that move in the same direction throughout the year. The two types of ocean currents are warm currents and cold currents.

Question 17.
How does the relief of an area affect the climate of a place?
Answer:
The relief of a place affects the climate of a place when the high mountains act as barriers for cold and hot winds, e.g. the Himalayas. They also affect the amount of rainfall if they are very high. They force the wind to give heavy rain on the windward side and less rain on the leeward side.

Question 18.
Which parallel of latitude passes through the centre of India?
Answer:
The parallel of latitude is the Tropic of Cancer, 231/2°N.

Question 19.
What is the influence of the division of India by the Tropic of Cancer?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer divides India into the Tropical zone which lies to the south and the sub-tropical area which lies to the north. It gives India’s climate a tropical and a sub-tropical character.

Question 20.
What is Coriolis force?
Answer:
It is an apparent force caused by the earth’s rotation. The Coriolis force is responsible for deflecting the winds to the right in the northern hemisphere and towards the left in the southern hemisphere, due to the rotation of the earth.

Question 21.
What do you know about South-Western Monsoon Winds?
Answer:
Air moves from the high pressure area over the southern Indian Ocean in a south easterly direction, crosses the equator and gets deflected towards the rights towards the low pressure area over the Indian subcontinent. This is known as south western monsoon.

Question 22.
What are jet streams?
Answer:
Jet streams are fast flowing winds at high altitude of above 12,000 metres in the troposphere.

Question 23.
What are sub-topical westerly jet streams?
Answer:
The sub-tropical westerly jet streams are located approximately over 27° – 30° north latitude.

Question 24.
In which parts of India the sub-tropical westerly jet streams blow?
Answer:
The sub-tropical westerly jet streams flow south of the Himalayas all through the year except in summers. They are responsible for the western cyclonic disturbances in north and north western parts.

Question 25.
What are tropical easterly jet streams?
Answer:
An easterly jet stream known as the tropical easterly jet stream blows over peninsular India approximately at 14°N during the summer months.

Question 26.
What are western cyclonic disturbances?
Answer:
These are shallow cyclonic depressions which originate over the east Mediterranean sea, travel eastwards and influence the weather conditions of north western parts of India during winters.

Question 27.
Which warm ocean current replaces the Peruvian cold current?
Answer:
El Nino.

Question 28.
On what basis is the year divided into seasons?
Answer:
On the basis of the generalised monthly atmospheric conditions.

Question 29.
What does the word ‘Monsoon’ refer to?
Answer:
The word ‘Monsoon’ refers to the seasonal reversal in the wind direction during a yean

Question 30.
Where is the monsoonal type of climate found in Asia?
Answer:
In south and southeast Asia.

Question 31.
Name the two elements which are responsible for the regional variations within the country.
Answer:
The two important elements are temperature and precipitation.

Question 32.
What is the temperature in Rajasthan in summer?
Answer:
50°C

Question 33.
Where is Drass located? What are the winter temperatures?
Answer:
Drass is located in Jammu and Kashmir. The winter temperatures are as low as minus 45°C.

Question 34.
Why do the houses in Rajasthan have thick walls and flat roofs?
Answer:
The houses in Rajasthan have thick walls to prevent them from becoming hot. The thick walls keep the interior cool. The flat roofs are used to collect water when it rains and in summer they are used for drying dates and storage purposes.

Question 35.
Why are houses in Assam built on stilts?
Answer:
Assam receives very heavy rain and often water accumulates on the ground. There is a thick undergrowth which makes it difficult for the people to live. So houses are built above the ground level on stilts.

Question 36.
Why do houses in the Terai region, Goa and Mangalore have sloping roofs?
Answer:
All the three regions, the Terai, Goa and Mangalore have very heavy rainfall. The sloping roofs of the houses enable the rainwater to flow off easily.

Question 37.
Why is the climate of India known as having a tropical monsoon character?
Answer:
Because the climate of India is strongly influenced by the monsoon winds.

Question 38.
How did the sailors who came to India in historic times, benefit from the monsoon winds?
Answer:
In the olden times the movement of ships depended on the mercy of winds. The sailors and the Arab traders found the monsoon winds helpful, due to the reversal of the wind system.

Question 39.
What is the duration of the monsoon?
Answer:
100-120 days from June to mid-September.

Question 40.
Explain the term ‘burst’ of the monsoon.
Answer:
Around the time of its arrival, the normal rainfall suddenly increases and it continues to rain for several days. This is known as the ‘burst’ of the monsoon.

Question 41.
Name the two branches of the South West Summer Monsoon.
Answer:
Bay of Bengal Branch
Arabian sea Branch.

Question 42.
What causes the Bay of Bengal branch of the S.W. Summer Monsoons to be deflected towards the west over the Ganga plains?
Answer:
The lofty Himalayas and the low pressure in N.W. India attracts the Monsoons.

Question 43.
Why does the global heat belt shift northwards in the summer season?
Answer:
It shifts northwards due to the apparent northward movement of the sun.

Question 44.
Name any two states which are affected by the TVopical cyclones.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu, Odisha.

Question 45.
Why do the Monsoon winds change their direction? Give any one reason. [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
Monsoon winds change their direction when the lofty Himalayas obstruct their passage. For example, the Himalayas causes the monsoon winds to deflect towards the west over the Ganga Plains.

Question 46.
Give two examples of pre-monsoon showers. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
The two examples of pre-monsoon showers are the ‘mango showers’ in Kerala and Karnataka and the ‘Kaal Baisakhi’ which causes rainfall in West Bengal.

Question 47.
Name the major seasons of India.
Answer:
(a) The cold weather season (winter)
(b) The hot weather season (summer)
(c) Rainy season
(d) Retreating season

Question 48.
Name the three basic elements that one learns about while studying the natural environment of any area.
Answer:
The three basic elements are.
(a) Landforms
(b) Drainage
(c) Atmospheric Conditions

Question 49.
What is the form of precipitation in the upper parts of the Himalayas, Meghalaya and western Rajasthan?
Answer:
(a) Upper parts of the Himalayas – snow.
(b) Meghalaya – Rainfall of over 400 cm.
(c) Western Rajasthan – Rainfall of about 10 cm.

Question 50.
When and how do the following parts of the country get their rainfall: Tamil Nadu, Northern Plains.
Answer:
(a) Tamil Nadu receives its rainfall in winter from the N E Winter Monsoons and tropical cyclones.
(b) The Northern plains receive rainfall between June and September from the South West Monsoons.

Question 51.
What is the duration of the Summer season?
Answer:
March to May.

Question 52.
State the temperature and pressure conditions in the Hot Weather season.
Answer:
The summer months experience rising temperature and falling air pressure.
Deccan: 38°C Gujarat and M.P: 42°C N.W. India: 45°C

Question 53.
Name the local winds blowing in summer.
Answer:
The Loo, Kaal Baisakhi and Mango showers.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 54.
How do the variations in temperature affect the lives of the people in India?
Answer:
(a) They affect the food the people eat.
(b) The clothes the people wear
(c) The kind of houses they live in.

Question 55.
What is the jet stream?
Answer:
(a) These are a narrow belt of high altitude westerly winds in the troposphere.
(b) Their speed varies from about 110 km/h in summer to about 184 km/h in winter.
(c) Of the jet streams that have been identified, the most constant are the mid-latitude and the sub¬tropical jet stream.

Question 56.
What is the ITCZ?
Answer:
(a) The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone is a low pressure trough lying 5° North and South of the Equator.
(b) The North East and the South East Trade winds meet here.
(c) The ITCZ moves north or south of the Equator with the apparent movement of the sun.

Question 57.
Explain the Southern Oscillation.
Answer:
(a) Normally when the tropical eastern South Pacific Ocean experiences high pressure, the tropical . eastern Indian Ocean experiences low pressure.
(b) Sometimes there is a reversal in the pressure conditions.
(c) This periodic change in pressure conditions is known as the Southern Oscillation or S.O. If the pressure differences are negative it would mean late monsoons.

Question 58.
How is the El Nino phenomenon connected with the Southern Oscillation?
Answer:
(a) Normally a cold current flows along the Peruvian Coast.
(b) Every two to five years a warm ocean current takes the place of the cold Peruvian current.
(c) The changes in the pressure conditions are connected to the El Nino, so this phenomenon is referred to as ENSO (El Nino Southern Oscillations).

Question 59.
What do you understand by the ‘Retreating of the Monsoon’? When does it occur?
Answer:
(a) Withdrawal of the monsoon from the country is known as the retreating of the monsoon.
(b) The withdrawal is a gradual process. In September the monsoon withdraws from the north western states and by October from the northern half of the peninsular.
(c) The monsoon finally withdraws from the country by early December.

Question 60.
Describe the main features of the Retreating Monsoon season in India. [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
The main features of the Retreating Monsoon season in India are:
(a) During October-November the monsoon trough becomes weaker. It is gradually replaced by a high pressure system. The south-west monsoon winds starts withdrawing gradually. By beginning of October the monsoon withdraws completely from northern plains.
(b) The months of October and November are a period of change from hot rainy season to dry winter conditions. The land is moist, the sky is clear and the temperature rises. Nights are cool and pleasant. Owing to high temperature and humidity, the heat becomes oppressive during daytime and it is called ‘October heat’.
(c) The low pressure conditions get transferred over the Bay of Bengal by the beginning of November. This shift is associated with the occurence of cyclonic depression, which develops over the Andaman Sea. These cyclones cross the eastern coast and cause heavy rainfall. They are destructive and the deltas of the Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri are often struck by them.

Question 61.
What are the temperate cyclones? How do they influence the climate of India?
Answer:
(a) Temperate cyclone also known as depressions, enter India from the Mediterranean Sea in the cold season.
(b) These cause winter rains over the Northern plains and snowfall in the mountains.
(c) The winter rainfall locally known as ‘mahawat’ is small, but is very important for the cultivation of rabi crops.

Question 62.
Write short notes on the local winds of the Hot/Summer season.
Answer:
(a) Loo: These are strong, gusty, hot dry winds blowing during the day over north and north west India. Dust storms are common.
(b) Kaal Baisakhi: These are the localised thunderstorms, accompanied by violent winds, torrential rain, sometimes accompanied by hail. These occur in West Bengal.
(c) Mango showers: These are the pre-monsoon showers, which occur in Kerala and Karnataka at the end of the summer season. These help in the ripening of mangoes.

Question 63.
How are the TTade Winds related to the Monsoon Winds?
Answer:
(a) The South East Trade winds originate over the warm subtropical areas of the southern oceans.
(b) Due to the intense low pressure over the northwest of India, the Trade Winds cross the equator and blow in a south westerly direction towards the Indian peninsula.
(c) These blow over the warm ocean, pick up moisture and then blow into the Indian peninsula causing heavy rain there. These winds enter India as the South West Monsoon winds.

Question 64.
What is the pattern of annual rainfall distribution in India? Name any two states having heavy rainfall, two states having moderate rainfall and two having low rainfall.
Answer:
The annual rainfall is highly variable from year to year. Parts of western coast and north eastern India receive heavy rainfall. Rainfall is low in Deccan plateau, east Sahyadris, Leh, Rajasthan, Gujarat. The rest of the country receives moderate rainfall. Thus the pattern of annual rainfall distribution is uneven in India.
Heavy rainfall – Meghalaya,
Arunachal Pradesh Moderate rainfall – Uttar Pradesh,
Tamil Nadu Low rainfall – Rajasthan, Gujarat

Question 65.
Explain any three factors which affect the mechanism of monsoons. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
The three factors are:
(a) The presence of land and water causes the differences in temperature. This results in differences in pressure which gives rise to the monsoons. The monsoon winds blow from high pressure to low pressure. This determines the direction of winds.
(b) The movement of the westerly jet stream to the north of the Himalayas and the presence of the easterly jet stream over the peninsula during summer.
(c) The shift of the position of the Inter Tropical Convergence zone in summer over the Ganga plain (normal position is about 5°N of the equator).

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 66.

Study the table given above and answer the following questions:
(a) Calculate the average temperature of this place.
(b) Which are the rainiest month and the driest month of this station?
(c) What is the range of temperature of this station?
(d) What type of climate does the place have and why?
Answer:
(a) 28.6° C
(b) November is the rainiest month. February and March are the driest months.
(c) Range of Temperature is (33.0 – 24.5) = 8.5°C.
(d) The respective station has a maritime climate because there is not much difference between the highest and lowest temperature of the year. In other words it has an equable climate.

Question 67.
Explain any five factors that affect the climate of India.
Answer:
(a ) Pressure: In winter the pressure is high over the land and low over the sea. Therefore cold winds blow from land to the sea. In summer the winds blow from sea to land where the pressure is low.
(b) Distance from the Sea: Places near the sea have a moderate climate due to the influence of land and sea breezes. Places far away in the interior have a continental or extreme climate.
(c) Ocean Currents: Ocean currents affect the coastal regions. Cold currents reduce the temperature of the regions they blow along. Warm currents increase the temperature of coastal regions.
(d) Relief: Mountains lying at right angles to the winds cause heavy rainfall whereas mountains lying parallel to the winds do not cause rain. Windward slopes of mountains cause heavier rain than the leeward slope or the rain shadow area.
(e) Latitude: Due to the spherical shape of the earth the amount of solar energy received by the earth varies according to the latitude. Temperature decreases from the Equator to the poles.

Question 68.
Describe the path of the monsoon winds, after it strikes the West Bengal coast.
Answer:
(a) The Bay of Bengal Branch first strikes the coast of Bangladesh and then proceeds towards Assam in the first week of June.
(b) The high mountains cause the monsoon winds to deflect towards the west over the Ganga plains.
(c) The rainfall keeps on decreasing as the winds move up the Ganga Valley.
(d) By mid-June, the Arabian Sea Branch meets the Bay of Bengal Branch.
(e) The monsoon reaches Delhi by 29th June. Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana and eastern Rajasthan receives rain by the 1st week of July and Himachal Pradesh by mid-July.

Question 69.
Explain the distribution of rain caused by the Monsoons.
Answer:
(a) Heavy rainfall (over 250 cm) is caused on the windward slopes of the Western Ghats.
(b) The Deccan plateau and parts of Madhya Pradesh lie in the rain shadow area of the Ghats and get less rain.
(c) The north eastern part of the country receives very heavy rain (Mawsynram receives the highest rainfall in the world).
(d) Rain in the Ganga plain decreases from the east to the west.
(e) Rajasthan and parts of Gujarat get scanty rainfall.

Question 70.
Explain the four features of the Monsoon rains. [CBSE 2010]
Answer:
(a) The Monsoon is often irregular in its arrival and retreat.
(b) The rainfall is unevenly distributed. Certain regions lying on the windward slopes of the mountains receive heavy rain while those in the rain shadow area receives less.
(c) The amount of rain varies annually.
(d) The rainfall is concentrated within the three months of the year.
(e) The alternation of dry and wet spells vary in intensity. At one place the rainfall is very heavy
causing floods while at another place it might have famines. (any four)

Question 71.
Describe the regional variations in the climatic conditions of India with the help of suitable examples. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
There are great variations in the climate of India.
(a) Certain regions receive very heavy rainfall like the North-east and the Western Coastal plains while others like the Thar Desert receive scanty rainfall.
(b) Places like Ladakh and Kashmir are very cold while others like Rajasthan are very hot.
(c) Coastal regions have an equable climate while places in the interior have an extreme climate.
(d) Areas on the windward slopes of the mountains receive heavy rainfall, while leeward and rain shadow areas receives less rain.
(e) Coastal areas with warm currents flowing past it, will be warmer than those areas which have the cold currents flowing close to it.

Question 72.
Describe the role of El Nino and Southern Oscillation to control the climate of India. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
The periodic change in pressure conditions in eastern Pacific and eastern Indian Ocean is known as the Southern Oscillation. The difference in pressure’in the Indian arid Pacific Oceans is computed to predict the intensity of the monsoons. Negative pressure differences predict below average and late Monsoons. This affects the El Nino, a warm current which flows along the Peruvian current instead of the cold current. The changes in pressure conditions are connected to the EL Nino.

Question 73.
Why is the distribution of rainfall uneven in India? Mention any five factors? [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
The distribution of rainfall is uneven in India because:
(a) Relief: The Western Ghats receives heavy rainfall. The Arabian sea branch of the South-West monsoon, which are moisture laden winds, causes very heavy rainfall when they strike the Western Ghats. Mawsynram gets more rain due to its relief. It gets rain from the Bay of Bengal branch of the South-West monsoon.
(b) Distance from the Sea: Places near the coastal region get more rainfall than the places situated far away from the sea.
(c) Direction of the Winds: Rajasthan get scanty rainfall due to Arabian sea Branch blowing parallel to the Aravalli hills.
(d) Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ): It is also known as monsoon trough during the monsoon season. The trough and its axis keep on shifting, northward or southward, which determines the spatial distribution of rainfall. When the trough lies over the plains, rainfall is over this region. When the axis shift closer to the Himalayas, there is a dry spell over the plains and widespread rainfall in mountainous catchment area.
(e) Cyclonic disturbances: The occurrence of cyclonic depressions, which originate over Andaman Sea, generally cross the eastern coasts of India cause heavy and widespread rain in deltas of the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri, coasts of Odisha and West Bengal.

Question 74.
Differentiate between the North-East Monsoons and South-West Monsoons by explaining five distinctive features of each.
Answer:

South-West Monsoons	North-East Monsoons
They blow in summer from June to September.	They blow in winter from December to February.
They blow from (high pressure) sea to (low pressure) land.	They blow from (high pressure) land to (low pressure) sea.
They are moisture bearing winds.	These are dry as they originate over land.
They blow in two branches Arabian Sea Branch, Bay of Bengal branch and give bulk of rainfall to India from 75% to 90%.	While crossing the Bay of Bengal, they pick up moisture and give rainfall to the Coromandel coast (Tamil Nadu.)
High temperature, low pressure and high humidity	Low temperature, high pressure, low humidity.

Question 75.

Station A	Latitude	Altitude
A	12 degree N	909 m
B	26 degree N	160 m

Study the table given above and answer the following questions:
(a) What type of climate does station A have and why?
(b) What type of climate does station B have and why? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
(a)Since station A is located closer to the equator and at a height bf 909 metres it has a moderate climate.
(b) Station B is located at 26°N in the interior of the country, north of the Tropic of Cancer.

Question 76.
Development of tropical cyclones is a distinguishing feature of the monsoon. How do tropical cyclones influence distribution of rainfall in India? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
The low pressure conditions over north western India slowly get transferred to the Bay of Bengal by early November. The occurrence of cyclonic depression is a result of this shift. The tropical cyclones move westwards towards the east coast of India and cause heavy rainfall there. These cyclones are very destructive and cause great damage to life and property. Most of the winter rain along the east coast is caused by these depressions.

Map Skills

Question 77.
On the outline map of India, locate and label the following cities.
(a) Thiruvananthapuram
(b) Chennai
(c) Jodhpur
(d) Bengaluru
(e) Mumbai
(f) Kolkata
(g) Leh
(h) Sehillong
(i) Delhi
(j) Nagpur
Answer:

Question 78.
Two features are marked on the outline map of India. Identify the features on the basis of information provided and mark them.
(a) Area receiving rainfall less than 20 cm
(b) Area receiving rainfall more than 400 cm.

Answer:

Delve into the extraordinary world of “A Truly Beautiful Mind Class 9 Extra Questions with Answers,” a captivating story that celebrates the power of the human intellect and the indomitable spirit. If you’re curious to explore the depths of this inspiring narrative, you’re in for a treat! We’ve carefully curated a collection of extra questions that will enhance your understanding of the story and ignite your imagination. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 9 English with Answers.

A Truly Beautiful Mind Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What did Einstein’s mother think him to be? Why?
Answer:
Einstein’s mother thought him to be a ‘freak’ or someone with an unusual physical abnormality or behavioural problem. She thought of him as a freak because his head seemed too large to her. This made him look different from the other children of his age.

Question 2.
Einstein showed no early signs of his genius one day. Comment.
Answer:
As a child, Einstein had a large head and did not start to speak till he was two-and-a-half years old. Even when he did start speaking he uttered everything twice. He did not interact well with other children, and always played alone. All this showed the absence of genius.

Question 3.
What did Einstein’s playmates call hm? Why?
Answer:
Einstein’s playmates called him ‘Brother Boring’ as he could not mix up with other children. Neither did he find their games interesting nor did he know how to interact with other children. Also, he did not talk till he was two-and-a-half years old, and even then he repeated each word twice. This made his company boring to his playmates.

Question 4.
What kind of toys attracted the attention of Einstein when he was a child? Why?
Answer:
As a child Einstein was attracted only by mechanical toys. It showed his scientific temperament since mechanical toys work on some kind of scientific principles.

Question 5.
What did Einstein say about his newly born sister? Why?
Answer:
Einstein always played alone with his mechanical toys. He did not have any playmates as the other children found him boring. When his sister, Maja, was born, he looked at his newborn sister and asked “Fine, but where are her wheels?”

Question 6.
What did the headmaster think about Einstein?
Answer:
The headmaster did not think much of Einstein. He once told his father that whatever profession he chose for Einstein, he would never make a success in his life. He thought that Einstein was incapable of achieving anything in life.

Question 7.
Which musical instrument did Einstein begin to learn? Why?
Answer:
Einstein began to learn playing the violin at the young age of six because his mother wanted him to. He kept this interest alive throughout his life and became a gifted amateur violinist.

Question 8.
How did Einstein fare in high school?
Answer:
Although as a young child Einstein was very slow, still while studying in Munich, he showed great progress in almost all the subjects and scored very good marks in almost all the subjects. He had special interest in Maths and Physics. Later on, he became a great scientist.

Question 9.
Why did Albert Einstein leave school in Munich?
Answer:
Albert Einstein left his school in Munich because he was not happy with the education system and he felt stifled by the strict regimentation of the school. He felt the environment suppressed his inquisitive scientific mind and had frequent clashes with his teachers. He felt suffocated and had to leave school.

Question 10.
Why did Einstein hate school?
Answer:
He hated school and the strict regimentation because of its extreme sense of discipline. He felt suffocated in this atmosphere. He often clashed with his teachers.

Question 11.
After leaving his school in Munich, where did Einstein continue his education?
Answer:
Einstein shifted to the German-speaking part of Switzerland to continue his education after leaving his school in Munich midway. This new place was more liberal than Munich and Einstein’s curious and free temperament got a favourable environment over here.

Question 12.
Who was Mileva Marie? Where did Einstein meet her?
Answer:
Mileva Marie was a Serbian student who had come to Zurich University to study because was one of the few universities in Europe where women could get degrees. Einstein met at the University. He found her to be a clever girl. She also shared similar interests in art, literature and music and he developed special interest in her. Later they got married.

Question 13.
Why did Albert Einstein see an ally in Mileva Marie?
Answer:
Einstein saw in Mileva Marie, a fellow student at the Zurich University, an ally against the “Philistines”— those people in his family and at the university who did not like art, literature or music with whom he was constantly at odds. In addition, she was intelligent and he found her to be a “clever creature”.

Question 14.
How was Einstein’s private life unravelling after he finished his studies?
Answer:
Albert had wanted to marry Mileva right after finishing his studies, but his mother was against it. She thought Mileva, who was three years older than her son, was too old for him. She was also bothered by Mileva’s intelligence and found her to be “a book”. Einstein put the wedding off.

Question 15.
Why did Einstein’s mother not want him to marry Mileva?
Answer:
There were two reasons for Einstein’s mother not wanting him to marry Mileva. Firstly, the girl was three years older than Einstein and secondly, in his mother’s opinion, she was much too intelligent—‘a book’just like him.

Question 16.
What did Einstein call his desk drawer at the patent office? Why?
Answer:
Einstein called his desk drawer at the patent office the “bureau of theoretical physics” because he constantly developed new ideas and kept all the papers related to his ideas in the desk in his office in Bern where he was working as a technical expert in the patent office and assessed other peoples’ inventions.

Question 17.
Why did Einstein’s marriage with Mileva not survive long?
Answer:
Although Einstein and Mileva had been in love, their marriage did not survive long because Mileva gradually lost her intellectual ambition. She became a frustrated housewife. There were frequent fights between the couple which resulted in their ultimate divorce in 1919.

Question 18.
Who was Elsa? How did she come into Einstein’s life?
Answer:
Elsa was Einstein’s cousin. He married her within a year of his divorce from Mileva.

Question 19.
“Einstein’s new personal chapter coincided with his rise to world fame”. What new personal chapter in Einstein’s life is the author talking about here? How did he rise to fame?
Answer:
The new personal chapter in Einstein’s life was his marriage to his cousin Eisa in the year 1919 immediately after his divorce from Mileva. This chapter coincided with his rise to world fame when his paper on General Theory of Relativity, published in 1915, was found to be accurate due to the proof that came through the eclipse of the sun in 1919.

Question 20.
What is Einstein’s Special Theory of Relativity?
Answer:
According to Einstein’s special theory of relativity, time and distance are not absolute. From this followed the world’s most famous formula which describes the relationship between mass and energy i.e., E = me2.

Question 21.
When and for what did Einstein gain international fame?
Answer:
Einstein gained international fame when his paper on General Theory of Relativity was found to be accurate in 1919. The calculations made by Einstein in advance about the deflection of light in the solar gravitational field during the eclipse were proven true in line with his theory. This theory was treated as “a scientific revolution.”

Question 22.
How was Einstein honoured for his achievements?
Answer:
Honours came pouring in for Einstein after his theories proved him to be a scientist with exceptional abilities. He was awarded the prestigious Nobel Prize for Physics in 1921. Honours and invitations were conferred on him from all over the world. The newspapers too applauded his genius.

Question 23.
Why did Einstein leave Germany and emigrate to America?
Answer:
Einstein had always loved his freedom and disliked any kind of regimentation, in his personal life or in public. When the Nazi government, with its fascist views, came to power in 1933, he found them very suppressive and autocratic. Therefore, Einstein left German and emigrated to America.

Question 24.
“The discovery of nuclear fission in Berlin had American physicists in an uproar”. Why?
Answer:
The American physicists were disturbed by the discovery of nuclear fission in Berlin because they knew its destructive power. They were afraid that German would make an atom bomb and use it for destructive purposes.

Question 25.
When and why did Einstein write a letter to Franklin Roosevelt?
Answer:
Einstein wrote a letter to Franklin Roosevelt when the Nazis in Germany discovered Nuclear fission. He, and other American physicists were afraid nuclear fission, if used for destructive purposes would cause immense damage. So, Einstein wrote a letter to President Franklin Roosevelt, warning him of the imminent threat.

Question 26.
What was the effect of Einstein’s letter on Roosevelt?
Answer:
The warning sounded by Einstein in his letter to Franklin Roosevelt about the danger of a possible atom bomb made by Germans had an immediate effect on the Americans. They at once swung into action and secretly developed an atom bomb of their own. They then dropped the bombs on the Japanese cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki.

Question 27.
How did Einstein react to the bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki?
Answer:
Einstein was shocked at the extent of destruction caused by the bombing. He wrote a long letter to the United Nations and suggested that there should be a World Government.

Question 28.
Why does the world remember Einstein as a world citizen?
Answer:
The world remembers Einstein as a world citizen as he was deeply hurt by the mass destruction in Japan. He wrote to the United Nations for a world government and campaigned for peace and democracy in the world. He worked for humanity across countries and for the formation of a world government.

Question 29.
What did Einstein campaign for after he got involved in politics?
Answer:
After getting involved in politics, Einstein made sincere efforts for world peace and harmony. He campaigned against the race for armaments and supported the cause of a world government and for peace and democracy.

A Truly Beautiful Mind Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
In what ways was Albert Einstein was an unusual child. How? He was different from others in many ways. Do you think that those who think differently succeed in their life like Einstein? Comment.
Answer:
Albert Einstein was an unusual child. He did not have any indication of his greatness. He had a larger than usual head. His mother thought him to be a freak. He was a late talker, and when he started to speak, he said everything twice. According to historian, Otto Neugebauer, the young Albert broke his silence at the supper table one night to say, “The soup is too hot.” Greatly relieved, his parents asked why he had never said a word before.

Albert replied, “Because up to now everything was in order.” He liked to play by himself and did not enjoy the company of his playmates, who, in turn, called him ‘Brother Boring’. He had special interest in mechanical toys. At school, his headmaster thought that he was a useless fellow and would never succeed in his life. But he proved all the speculations wrong.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Einstein’s education from school to university. Did he show signs of genius intose early years?
Answer:
As a young boy, Einstein did not show any signs of genius. In fact, his headmaster had a very poor opinion about him and he even informed Einstein’s father that his son would never amount to much in life as he wouldn’t make a success in any career that he chose. However, as he grew up and joined a school in Munich, he showed appreciable progress in studies scoring good marks in almost all the subjects.

But the strict discipline of the school was not to his liking. As a result, he had frequent clashes with his teachers. Being a person of liberal ideas, he felt so suffocated that he ultimately left that school for good. He chose to complete his studies in a school in Switzerland where the environment was more liberal as compared to Munich. Highly gifted in mathematics and having a great interest in Physics, Einstein joined the university in Zurich after completing school and from here he graduated in 1900.

Question 3.
Einstein succeeded in his professional life but failed miserably in his personal life. Why could Einstein not balance his family and professional life?
Answer:
At the university in Zurich, Einstein met Mileva Marie. Einstein saw in Mileva Marie, a fellow student at the Zurich University, an ally against the “Philistines”- those people in his family and at the university who did not like art, literature or music with whom he was constantly at odds. In addition, she was intelligent and he found her to be a “clever creature”. Both fell in love and decided to marry. They married a few years later, in 1903, as his mother had at first opposed his marriage to Mileva.

In 1905, Einstein he published his paper on special theory of relativity, followed by the world famous equation
E = me². In 1915, he published his paper on General Theory of Relativity, which gave an absolutely new definition to concept of gravity This theory made him a famous figure, In 1919, during the solar eclipse, his theory came out to be accurate and revolutionized physics.

While Einstein was solving the most difficult problems in physics, his private life was running into problems. Mileva’s intellectual ambition was disappearing. They became an unhappy couple as they fought continuously. Finally, they got divorced in 1919. Albert Einstein succeeded in his professional life but did not have a happy married life. However, the same year Einstein married his cousin, Elsa.

Question 4.
What was Einstein’s contribution to the knowledge of science? Which values in his character made him a ‘global citizen’?
Answer:
Albert Einstein worked on his ideas about relativity and in 1905, he published his ‘Special Theory of Relativity’, according to which time and distance are not absolute. His theory about the relationship between mass and energy was developed into the famous formula E = me², and this equation made him a renowned scientist.

Einstein earned international acclaim with the publication of his General Theory of Relativity which enabled him to calculate in advance the extent of the deflection of light from fixed stars as it passed through the gravitational field of the sun. The theory was declared as “a scientific revolution” by the newspapers. For his contribution to the development of science, Einstein was awarded the Nobel Prize for Physics in 1921.

After this, a number of honours were bestowed upon him. He was against arms build-up. He advocated, peace and democracy in the world. He did not want that his invention should be misused. He thought of humanity, of world peace and democracy. All these values in his character made him a global citizen.

Question 5.
Einstein wrote two letters – to President Roosevelt and to the United Nations. Did his letters have the desired impact? Justify your answer.
Answer:
In 1939, Einstein wrote a letter to the American President, Franklin D. Roosevelt warning him that the atomic bomb if made and used by Germany, could not only destroy the whole port on which it could be dropped, but also the territory surrounding it. The impact of the letter was immediate as the Americans at once developed their own atomic bombs in a secret project. These bombs were dropped on Hiroshima and Nagasaki in Japan in 1945, and as anticipated by Einstein, these bombs caused terrible destruction.

The large scale damage caused by the bombing of Japan perturbed Einstein so much that he wrote a letter to the United Nations. In this letter he proposed that there should be a world government. This would put an end to the enmity between nations and hence stop wars. This letter did not have any impact.

A Truly Beautiful Mind Extra Questions and Answers Reference to Context

Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow.

Question 1.
At the age of two-and-a-half, Einstein still wasn ’t talking. When he finally did learn to speak, he uttered everything twice. Einstein did not know what to do with other children, and his playmates called him “Brother Boring

(a) What did Einstein’s mother think of him when he was a baby? Why?
Answer:
Einstein’s mother thought of him as a freak because to her, his head seemed much too large.

(b) Why does the writer point out that Einstein wasn’t talking till the age of two-and-a-half?
Answer:
The writer points out that Einstein wasn’t talking till the age of two-and-a-half to clarify that his growth parameters were slower as compared to other children of his age.

(c) How did Einstein speak when he finally started talking?
Answer:
When Einstein finally started talking, he used to utter everything twice.

(d) Why was Einstein called “Brother Boring” by his playmates?
Answer:
Einstein’s playmates called him “Brother Boring” because he was an introvert and did not interact with other children.

Question 2.
A headmaster once told his father that what Einstein chose as a profession would not matter, because “he will never make a success at anything ” Einstein began learning to play the violin at the age of six, because his mother wanted him to. He later became a gifted amateur violinist, maintaining this skill throughout his life.

(a) What was the headmaster’s opinion about Einstein?
Answer:
The headmaster’s opinion about Einstein was that he would never be successful in his life.

(b) Why did Einstein leave the school in Munich?
Answer:
Einstein left the school in Munich for good because he hated the school’s regimentation.

(c) Why did Einstein learn to play violin?
Answer:
Einstein learnt to play the violin to fulfil the desire of his mother.

(d) What kind of a violin player was Einstein?
Answer:
He was a gifted violin player.

Question 3.
But Albert Einstein was not a bad pupil. He went to high school in Munich, where Einstein’s family had moved when he was 15 months old, and scored good marks in almost every subject.

(a) What had Einstein’s Headmaster said about him?
Answer:
The headmaster had told his father that Einstein would never make a success at anything.

(b) What were Einstein’s achievements at school?
Answer:
Albert Einstein was not a bad pupil and he scored good marks in almost every subject.

(c) Where did Einstein attend high school?
Answer:
Einstein attended High School in Munich.

(d) What kind of a school did Einstein wish to join?
Answer:
Einstein wanted to join a school which was more liberal and flexible.

Question 4.
Einstein hated the school’s regimentation and often clashed with his teachers. At the age of 15, Einstein felt so stifled there that he left the school for good.

(a) Why did Einstein clash with his teachers?
Answer:
The strict regimentation in the school demanded unquestioning acceptance of the teachers’ words. Hence he often clashed with his teachers

(b) When did Einstein leave his school in Munich and why?
Answer:
Einstein left his school in Munich when he was fifteen years of age because he felt completely suffocated by the rigid atmosphere there.

(c) Where did Einstein go after leaving his school in Munich?
Answer:
Einstein went to the German-speaking part of Switzerland, in a more liberal city than Munich.

(d) What does this tell you about Einstein?
Answer:
Einstein had an independent and inquisitive mind and he did not like unquestioning obedience.

Question 5.
Einstein was highly gifted in mathematics and interested in physics, and after finishing school, he decided to study at a university in Zurich. But science wasn ’t the only thing that appealed to the dashing young man with the walrus moustache.

(a) Where did Einstein want to continue his education? Why?
Answer:
Einstein wanted to continue his education in German-speaking Switzerland because he felt this would be more liberal than Munich.

(b) What were his favourite subjects?
Answer:
His favourite subjects were Mathematics and Physics.

(c) Explain: But science wasn’t the only thing that appealed to the dashing young man.
Answer:
Einstein also felt a special interest in a fellow student, Mileva Marie, whom he found to be a “clever. creature” and whom he married later.

(d) Why did he see Mileva as an ally?
Answer:
Einstein found in Mileva an ally because she disapproved of the “philistines” or the people who did not like art, literature or music.

Question 6.
He worked as a teaching assistant, gave private lessons and finally secured a job in 1902 as a technical expert in the patent office in Bern. While he was supposed to be assessing other people’s inventions, Einstein was actually developing his own ideas in secret.

(a) How did Einstein earn a living before securing a job?
Answer:
Before securing a job. Einstein gave private lessons and worked as a teaching assistant.

(b) When did Einstein secure a job? What was the nature of this job?
Answer:
Einstein secured a job in 1902. This job was in a patent office and Einstein worked here as a technical assistant. In this job he was supposed to assess the inventions of other people.

(c) Why did Einstein develop his ideas in secret?
Answer:
Einstein’s job required him to assess the inventions of other people. Therefore, he had to develop his ideas in secret.

(d) Where did he store his inventions? What did he call it?
Answer:
He stored his inventions in his desk drawer at work which he called the “bureau of theoretical physics.”

Question 7.
One of the famous papers of 1905 was Einstein’s Special Theory of Relativity, according to which time and distance are not absolute.

(a) Explain the term “absolute”
Answer:
The term “absolute” refers to something that is true, right, or the same in all situations and not depending on anything else.

(b) What according to Einstein are not absolute?
Answer:
According to Einstein time and distance are not absolute.

(c) What is described by the formula E=mc2?
Answer:
The relationship between mass and energy is described by this formula. In this formula, ‘E’ stands for energy, ‘m’ for mass and ‘c’ for speed of light in a vacuum.

(d) How did this formula establish Einstein as a scientific genius?
Answer:
This formula, having been proved to be accurate, had become the most famous formula of the world and therefore, Einstein’s reputation as a scientific genius was established.

Question 8.
While Einstein was solving the most difficult problems in physics, his private life was unravelling. Albert had wanted to marry Mileva right after finishing his studies, but his mother was against it. She thought Mileva, who was three years older than her son, was too old for him. She was also bothered by Mileva’s intelligence. “She is a book like you, ” his mother said. Einstein put the wedding off.

(a) Where was Mileva from? Why did she join Zurich University?
Answer:
Mileva was a Serb who had joined Zurich University because it was one of the few places in Europe where women could get degrees.

(b) Why did Einstein’s mother oppose his marriage with Mileva?
Answer:
Mileva was three years older than him and very intelligent.

(c) Why did Einstein put the wedding off?
Answer:
Einstein put his wedding off because his mother was against the marriage.

(d) When did Einstein get married to Mileva?
Answer:
He got married to Mileva in 1903.

Question 9.
The pair finally got married in January 1903, and had two sons. But a few years later, the marriage faltered.

(a) Name the couple being talked about?
Answer:
The couple being talked about is Albert Einstein and Mileva Marie.

(b) What happened to their marriage?
Answer:
With the passage of time, their marriage became weak and failed.

(c) Why did their marriage falter?
Answer:
Their marriage faltered because Mileva, who was losing her intellectual ambition, was becoming an unhappy housewife and the couple were constantly fighting.

(d) Whom did Einstein marry later?
Answer:
Einstein later married his cousin, Elsa.

Question 10.
Many of them had fled from Fascism, just as Einstein had, and now they were afraid the Nazis could build and use an atomic bomb.

(a) What does the word ‘fascism’ mean?
Answer:
Fascism refers to a political system based on a very powerful leader, state control, and being extremely proud of country and race, and in which political opposition is not allowed.

(b) Who does ‘they’ refer to in the above lines?
Answer:
In the above lines ‘they’ refers to the American Physicists who had escaped from dictatorship in their parent countries.

(c) When and where had many of them fled from? Why?
Answer:
Many of them had fled to America when the Nazis came to power in Germany. They had to flee their country, because they feared suppression of their liberal ideas by the dictatorial Nazis.

(d) What were they afraid of and why?
Answer:
They were afraid that the discovery of nuclear fission could be developed by Germany to build and use an atomic bomb which could be misused to cause massive destruction.

Question 11.
Einstein was deeply shaken by the extent of the destruction. This time he wrote a public missive to the United Nations In it he proposed the formation of a world government. Unlike the letter to Roosevelt, this one made no impact.

(a) What ‘destruction’ shook Einstein?
Answer:
When the atom bomb was dropped on Hiroshima and Nagasaki. It caused heavy destruction. Einstein was moved because of the extent of damage to life and environment.

(b) What did Einstein write and to whom?
Answer:
Einstein wrote to the United Nations proposing the formation of a world government.

(c) Who was Roosevelt? Why had Einstein written to him?
Answer:
Franklin Roosevelt was the President of USA. Einstein wrote a letter to Roosevelt in which he warned him by saying, ‘a single bomb of this type might very well destroy the whole part with some of the surrounding territory’, i.e., a letter warning him about the damage the bomb blast could cause.

(d) How had Roosevelt responded?
Answer:
Taking heed of Einstein’s warning, the Americans developed the atomic bomb in a secret project of their own, and dropped it on the Japanese cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki in August 1945.

Question 12.
Unlike the letter to Roosevelt, this one made no impact. But over the next decade, Einstein got ever more involved in politics – agitating for an end to the arms buildup and using his popularity to campaign for peace and democracy.

(a) What does ‘this one’ refer to?
Answer:
‘This one’ refers to Einstein’s letter to the United Nations.

(b) Who had written a letter to Roosevelt and why?
Answer:
Einstein had written a letter to President Roosevelt to warn him against the atom bomb that Germany could make on the principle of nuclear fission.

(c) What had Einstein written in ‘this one’?
Answer:
The letter written by Einstein to the United Nations spoke about the need for forming a world government to counter destructive acts like the use of atom bombs.

(d) Why did Einstein get more involved in politics?
Answer:
Einstein got more involved in politics because he was a supporter of world peace and harmony and in this manner he launched an agitation to end arms buildup and campaigned for peace and democracy.

Step into the poignant world of “The Little Girl Class 9 Extra Questions with Answers,” a touching short story that tugs at the heartstrings and leaves a lasting impact. If you’re eager to explore the depths of this emotional narrative, you’ve come to the right place! We’ve meticulously curated a set of extra questions that will enrich your understanding of the story and evoke introspection. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 9 English with Answers.

The Little Girl Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Why was Kezia scared of her father?
Answer:
Kezia’s father was a busy man and had little time for the little girl. Being a very disciplined man, he was strict with Kezia as well and she would at times get harsh words of scolding and physical punishment from him. He never displated any soft feelings for his little daughter nor did he play with her like Mr Macdonald. All he did was giving her a perfunctory kiss rather than a loving one. Moreover, he was a large man, and his size, too, terrified the little girl. So scared was Kezia of him that she felt relieved when he was gone from home.

Question 2.
Who were the people in Kezia’s family?
Answer:
There were four people in Kezia’s family – her father who was very strict, her mother who was stem and aloof, her soft-hearted and loving grandmother and little Kezia herself.

Question 3.
What was Kezia’s father’s routine before going to office and after coming back in the evening?
Answer:
Before going to office, Kezia’s father would come to her room, give her a perfunctory kiss and leave for work. He would return in the evening and in a loud voice ask for his tea, the papers and his slippers to be brought into the drawing-room. He would wait for Kezia to help him take off his shoes and exchange a few words with Kezia.

Question 4.
What was Kezia’s routine when Father returned from office?
Answer:
When Father returned home from office, mother would tell Kezia to come downstairs and take off her father’s shoes. She would also be told to take the shoes outside. Father would ask her a couple of questions and she would stutter out her replies. He would order her to put his teacup back on the table and then she would make good her escape from his presence.

Question 5.
What was Father’s and Kezia’s morning routine?
Answer:
Before going to his office, Kezia’s father would come to Kezia’s room and give her a perfunctory kiss. She would respond with “Goodbye, Father”. Since she was afraid of him, she always felt relieved after his departure.

Question 6.
Why did Kezia go slowly towards the drawing-room when mother asked her to come downstairs?
Answer:
Kezia was afraid of her dominating father. He always scolded her for one thing or the other and did not display any soft feelings or affection for his little daughter. So frightened was she of him that she went very slowly towards the drawing-room when she was asked to come downstairs to take off his shoes.

Question 7.
Why was Father often irritated with Kezia?
Answer:
Kezia was very scared of her father. She stuttered when he spoke to her. Also, the terrified expression on her face irritated him. In his presence she wore an expression of wretchedness. He felt that with such an expression, she seemed as if she were on the verge of suicide.

Question 8.
What was unusual about Kezia’ stuttering?
Answer:
Kezia was able to speak without stuttering to everyone in the household but her father. In her father’s formidable presence she could barely speak and she stuttered as she attempted to speak to him.

Question 9.
Why did Kezia stutter while speaking to Father?
Answer:
Kezia’s father’s had a loud and domineering personality and he frequently frequent rebuked her for her behaviour and appearance. His constant criticism and scolding shook her self-confidence. Moreover, his large size frightened her. Though Kezia tried her best to please him, she found herself tongue-tied while talking to him. This made her stutter in his presence.

Question 10.
Why did Kezia feel that her father was like a giant?
Answer:
Kezia felt that her father was like a giant because he had very big hands and neck. His mouth seemed big especially when he yawned. He had a loud voice and would often call out orders. In addition, his stem and cold behaviour made the little girl think of him as a giant.

Question 11.
Why did Kezia avoid her father?
Answer:
Kezia avoided her father because she was afraid of him. She saw him as a harsh, emotionless person who never spoke to his daughter alfectionately. He reprimanded Kezia for making mistakes. Kezia stammered in front of her father since he was a very huge and giant-like figure lacking in the warmth of a father.

Question 12.
In what ways did Kezia’s grandmother encourage her to get to know her parents better?
Answer:
Kezia’s grandmother wanted that the little girl to bond with her parents. Therefore, every Sunday afternoon she would encourage Kezia to go downstairs to the drawing-room, have a nice conversation with them, and get to know them better. She also suggested Kezia make a pin-cushion out of a beautiful piece of yellow silk as a gift for her father’s birthday.

Question 13.
What was Kezia’s father’s routine on Sundays?
Answer:
On Sundays, Kezia’s father did not go for work. He would relax in the afternoon. He would stretch out on the sofa in their drawing-room, put handkerchief on his face, feet on the best cushion and sleep snoring soundly. All this while, her mother would be absorbed in reading.

Question 14.
On Sunday afternoons Grandmother sent Kezia down to the drawing-room? What happened when she went there?
Answer:
When on a Sunday afternoon the little girl went to the drawing-room, she always found Mother reading and Father stretched out on the sofa, his handkerchief on his face, his feet on one of the best cushions, sleeping soundly and snoring. Kezia would sit on a stool and gravely watch her father until he woke up and stretched to ask the time. Then, he would look at her and tell her not to stare at him as it made her look like a brown owl.

Question 15.
What did Grandmother ask Kezia to make and why?
Answer:
Grandmother wanted Kezia to bond with her father and to bring them both close to each other. She tried various ways to achieve this end. Once, she asked Kezia to make a pin-cushion out of a beautiful piece of yellow silk as a birthday present for Father. She wanted the little girl to present this pin-cushion as a surprise gift and make her father happy.

Question 16.
In what ways did Kezia’s grandmother encourage her to get to know her father better?
Answer:
Kezia’s grandmother was a mature and understanding woman who realised her granddaughter was afraid of her father. To improve matters better between them she encouraged her to get to know her father better by sending her to the drawing room to talk to her parents on Sundays. She also suggested Kezia to make a pin¬cushion out of a beautiful piece of yellow silk as a gift for her father’s birthday.

Question 17.
What did Kezia make as a birthday gift for her father? How did she prepare it?
Answer:
Kezia made a pin-cushion as a birthday gift for her father out of the beautiful piece of yellow silk that her Grandmother had given her. She laboriously stitched its three sides with a double cotton and stuffed it with papers that she took from the bed-table in her mother’s room. Finally, she sewed up the fourth side and the gift was ready.

Question 18.
That night there was a hue and cry in the house. What night was that? Why was there an uproar?
Answer:
The night Kezia finished making the pin-cushion for her father, there was an uproar in the house. Father could not find his great speech for the Port Authority. Rooms were searched; servants questioned. Finally Mother came into Kezia’s room and, on questioning her, found out Kezia had mistakenly tom the papers and stuffed them in the pin-cushion that was to be a surprise gift for her father on his birthday. The hue and cry at night was for those missing papers.

Question 19.
“Father’s great speech for the Port Authority Iliad been lost.’ What had happened to father’s speech?
Answer:
Father’s speech had been tom to pieces by the little girl, Kezia. She was making a pin-cushion as a gift for her father, to give him on his birthday. As she was not able to find anything to stuff the cushion with, she tore the speech and stuffed it into her cushion.

Question 20.
Who dragged Kezia down to the dining-room at night? Why?
Answer:
Kezia’s father was extremely angry as he had been looking for his important Port Authority speech and he could not find the papers. Her mother dragged her down to the dining-room at night and took her to her father when she came to know that Kezia had tom the papers that had his great speech for the Port Authority.

Question 21.
Why did Father come to Kezia’s room with a ruler? What do you learn about him from the incident?
Answer:
Father was a strict disciplinarian who believed in the use of physical punishment to correct children. He came to Kezia’s room with a ruler because he wanted to punish her and teach her not to touch what did not belong to her. This also shows that he was a firm, unforgiving person.

Question 22.
Kezia’s efforts to please her father resulted in displeasing him very much. How did this happen?
Answer:
On grandmother’s suggestion, Kezia would go to the drawing-room to have a “nice talk with Father and Mother” and sit on a stool waiting for him to wake up and talk to her. He would wake up and look at her staring apprehensively at him. He would be irritated by her scared look and call her a brown owl. On another occasion, on her grandmother’s suggestion, she decided to make a pin-cushion as a birthday gift for her father hoping that it would please him. But instead he was furious because she had inadvertently tom the papers of his Port Authority speech and used them as a stuffing in the pin-cushion.

Question 23.
Do you think Kezia was wrong in tearing her father’s papers? What does it show about her character?
Answer:
Kezia tore up certain papers she found on the bed-side table in her mother’s bedroom. Unfortunately, the papers were an important speech her father had written for the Port Authority. Undoubtedly, Kezia was wrong in having taken his papers without his permission and in tearing them up, even though she had done so with the best of intentions. The incident only shows that she was too innocent and immature to know the wrong she was doing. All she wanted was to please her father with a birthday gift.

Question 24.
Why was Kezia punished by her Father? Was he right in doing so?
Answer:
Kezia wanted to give her father a birthday present she had made for him herself. She decided to make a pin-cushion for him. She stitched it out of piece of yellow silk and stuffed it with some papers that were his speech for the Port Authority. Her father punished her for taking something that did not belong to her without permission. He was not right in punishing her as he did. He should have understoodd her feelings and explained to her the error of her ways.

Question 25.
How did Father punish Kezia? What was the impact of the punishment?
Answer:
Father punished Kezia by hitting her hard on her little, pink palms with a ruler. The impact of this punishment was so strong the Kezia could never forget it. Next time when she saw him, she at once hid her hands behind her back and her cheeks flushed with fear.

Question 26.
How and why did Grandmother comfort Kezia after her father hit her with a ruler?
Answer:
Hours after Kezia’s father hit her with a ruler, her grandmother wrapped the little girl in a shawl and rocked her in the rocking-chair, with the child clinging to her soft body. She gave her a clean hanky to blow her nose and tried to put her to sleep comforting her with loving words.

Question 27.
Kezia asks her grandmother, “What did God make fathers for?” What does she mean by this?
Answer:
Kezia questioned why God made fathers because she was very hurt and traumatised by her father’s behaviour and the punishment he meted out to her. She felt that he had been too harsh and unforgiving with her.

Question 28.
Grandmother tells Kezia, “I tried to explain to Father but he was too upset to listen tonight.” Why does she say that?
Answer:
Kezia’s grandmother wanted Kezia to bond with her parents and always tried to bridge the gap between her and her parents, especially her father. She told Kezia that her father was too upset that night to listen to her because she did not want the little girl to nurture any grudge against her father.

Question 29.
Do you think that Kezia’ father didn’t love her?
Answer:
I think Kezia’s father loved his daughter. Underneath his frightening and strict exterior, beat a father’s loving heart. If at he appeared too strict or lacking in understanding or compassion, it was probably because he was too tired or engrossed in his work, or wanted his daughter to be well-brought up.

Question 30.
Who were Kezia’s neighbours? What did she observe about them?
Answer:
The Macdonalds were Kezia’s neighbours. She saw that Mr Macdonald played with his children. He laughed when they turned the hose on him and ran about the flower-beds with his young son, Mao, on his shoulders and his two little daughters hanging on to his coat pockets.

Question 31.
Who was Mr. Macdonald?
Answer:
Mr MacDonald was Kezia’s neighbour. He loved his five children and played ‘tag’ with them. The father with the baby, Mao, on his shoulders, would run round and round the flower-beds, shaking with laughter, the two little girls hanging on to his coat pockets. Once Kezia saw the boys turn the hose on him—and he tried to catch them laughing all the time.

Question 32.
Kezia felt that Mr Macdonald was a better father as compared to her own father. Why?
Answer:
Kezia observed that Mr Macdonald was a good-humoured cheerful fellow who enjoyed the company of his children and played with them, laughing even when they drenched him with the hose. Contrary to this, her own father was a strict disciplinarian and quite aloof. He did not express any affection or show any leniency towards Kezia, despite her young age.

Question 33.
Why did Kezia like Mr Macdonald?
Answer:
The Macdonalds who lived next door were an exuberant, playful family. Looking through the vegetable garden-wall, Kezia saw the five Macdonald children playing with their father, turning a hose at him and the father tickling the children. When compared with her frightening father who never played with her, Kezia saw the extent of love between father and his children. This made her like Mr MacDonald.

Question 34.
Why was Kezia left alone in the house with the cook Alice?
Answer:
One day Kezia’s mother had suddenly taken ill and had to be hospitalized. Grannie, too, went along to look after her in the hospital. Kezia was left at home with Alice, their cook till her father returned from work.

Question 35.
Why was Kezia afraid to sleep alone?
Answer:
That night, when Alice was putting Kezia to bed, the little girl suddenly felt afraid as she had to sleep alone. She was scared of the dark and often had nightmares at night. Normally, whenever she had a nightmare, Grandmother would take her into her bed but tonight she was not there at home.

Question 36.
What kind of dreams did Kezia usually have?
Answer:
Usually, Kezia had horrible nightmares. In her nightmares, she saw a butcher with a knife and a rope coming closer and closer to her with a dreadful smile while she stood still, unable to move, overpowered by fear.

Question 37.
How did Father comfort the little girl, Kezia, when she got scared in her sleep?
Answer:
When Kezia cried out in her sleep in fear, her father came to her room, lifted her in his arms, took her to his bed and made her sleep close to him. He allowed her to warm her feet against his legs. She felt secure and protected as she snuggled up to him.

Question 38.
When and how did Kezia’s feelings for her father undergo a change?
Answer:
Kezia’s feelings of fear for her father underwent a change when her father came to her rescue when she had a nightmare. He gently carried her to his room, carefully tucked her up and slept beside her. Kezia felt reassured and safe and snuggled up to him. That is when she realised that her father was not a hard-hearted giant but a large-hearted loving father who got extremely tired by the end of the day.

Question 39.
What kind of a person was Kezia’s father?
Answer:
Kezia’s father was a hardworking man, but he was short tempered. He was a strict disciplinarian too. It was only when Kezia’s mother was hospitalized, that ahe realized that her father loved her but didn’t have the art of expressing his love.

The Little Girl Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Write a short note on the relationship between Kezia and her father
Answer:
Initially, the relationship between Kezia and her father was formal and restrained. As a strict disciplinarian and the head of the family Father asserted his authority over everyone, including his little girl. Every morning, before going to office, he perfunctorily kissed her and she as formally said, “Goodbye, Father.”

She was made to take off his shoes and put them outside when he returned from office in the evening. He often scolded her for her sad looks and for stuttering. He even punished her when she unknowingly tore his important papers. He did not give her even one chance to explain herself and failed to see her loving intention behind the mistake. As a result, Kezia feared her father and stayed out of his way.

However, their relationship underwent a drastic change towards the end of the story. Father displayed his love and concern for his daughter when he and Kezia were alone and she was scared by her nightmare. He carried her in his arms to his room, tucked her comfortably in his bed, lay down close to her and provided to her the assurance and security that children seek from parents. This protective, caring and considerate side of her father helped her understand him. She realised that he had a big heart which was full of love for her.

Question 2.
Do you think the Kezia deserved the beating she got for her mistake? What light does this incident throw on her father’s character?
Answer:
Kezia earned her father’s wrath for tearing his speech for the Port Authority to stuff a pin-cushion she was making for him as a birthday present. When Father discovered that Kezia was the culprit, he punished her by beating her little pink palms with a ruler to teach her not to touch what did not belong to her.

I think it was too harsh a punishment for an innocent mistake of a fond daughter who was making a gift for her father. Undoubtedly, the papers were extremely important for him and their loss must have caused him a lot of inconvenience but he should have heard out Kezia’s explanation, and understood and appreciated Kezia’s intentions. A firm but gentle reprimand would have sufficed to teach the sensitive Kezia not to touch things that did not belong to her. This incident shows that Father was a very insensitive and harsh man who demanded a very high standard of discipline from his daughter and did not tolerate any disobedience.

Question 3.
Briefly comment on Kezia’s relationship with her grandmother?
Answer:
The little girl is extremely close to her loving and sympathetic grandmother. Failing to get any expression of affection from her parents, especially her father, Kezia turns to her grandmother for the emotional support and comfort that she needs. She turns to her to fulfill her need for love and protection.

Grandmother too showers love upon the little girl. She keeps trying to help the girl build her bridges with her parents. She advises Kezia to talk to her parents when they would be more relaxed as they sat in the drawing¬room on a Sunday afternoon. Again, she suggests to Kezia suggests that she should make a pin-cushion for her father as a present for his birthday. When Father beats Kezia, it is grandmother who tries first to reason with her son and then consoles and comforts Kezia by covering her with her shawl and allowing the child to cling to her soft body.

We also learn that, at night, when Kezia is scared by the dark or by her nightmares, it is for her grandmother that the little girl calls out, and it is grandmother who takes her into her own bed. Hence, her love and support make Kezia look upto her for everything.

Question 4.
What impression do you form of Kezia’s mother?
Answer:
Kezia’s mother is very unapproachable, aloof figure, quite unlike a loving mother a young girl desires and needs. Perhaps her ill-health and her strict and domineering husbands demands leave her with very little room to pay the desired attention to her daughter. Her relationship with her daughter is distant. She treats the little girl in accordance with her husband’s expectations. She orders her to take off her father’s shoes and put them outside as this would indicate obedience. On Sunday afternoons, she spends her time engrossed in her reading, rather than talking to her daughter.

When Kezia innocently tears her father’s papers, she drags her downstairs to face Father’s wrath. She does not try to reason with Father when he reprimands and beats the little girl. She neither defends nor protects her in any way. She does not even go to assuage her traumatised daughter’s physical and emotional hurt. Little wonder then that Kezia turns to her grandmother to fulfill her need for motherly care and affection.

Question 5.
Kezia decides that there are “different kinds of fathers.” Comment on Kezia’s remark in the light of her relationship with her father and that of the Macdonald children with their father?
Answer:
Kezia’s father was a busy man. He was so lost in his business that he had no time for his family. Being a very strict disciplinarian, he was strict with Kezia as well. He did not display any soft feelings for his little daughter through word or deed. All he did was give her a perfunctory kiss rather than a loving one as he left for work each morning. His presence at home frightened Kezia and she was relieved when he was gone. Kezia was unable to speak without stuttering in her father’s presence. Yet, despite all this, Kezia’s father had a loving heart as Kezia discovered when she had her nightmare and she was alone with him.

At once, Father came and took her to his room, made her lie with him and comforted her. He asked her to rub her feet against his legs for warmth. This showed the little girl her father truly loved her and it brought her close to her father. Mr Macdonald, Kezia’s next door neighbour, had five children and Kezia would often see them playing in their garden. One day, when Kezia looked through the gap in the fence she saw the Macdonalds playing ‘tag’.

It was evening, and Mr Macdonald had just returned from work but unlike her father, he looked happy to be playing with his children. He had baby Mao was on his shoulders, and the two girls were hanging on to his coat pockets. The party ran around the flower beds, shaking with laughter. Mr. Macdonald’s sons turned the hose on him and he tried to catch them laughing all the time.

This happy scene made Kezia conclude that there were different sorts of fathers. Mr Macdonald was so different from her own father. He was not at all strict, was always happy and thoroughly enjoyed the company of his children. In contrast, her own father was often in an angry mood and remained much too busy in his work. She dreaded him and avoided his company as much as she could. Whenever she was with him, she would stautter and look silly, like “a brown owl”. His strict discipline and his domineering nature made Kezia wonder what God made fathers for.

Question 6.
How does Kezia begin to see her father as a human being who needs her sympathy?
Answer:
Kezia was scared of her father as he looked like a giant. Every morning he came to her room and gave her a perfunctory kiss before leaving for work, but even that contact with him left her feeling uneasy. She was relieved when her father left home for work. Kezia’s father often mocked or rebuked her and once he even beat her for tearing some of his important papers. So great was her fear of him that she stuttered while answering him.

However, a nightmare one night made Kezia discover the tender, caring and loving side of her father. One night when she was alone at home with her father, and she cried out in fear, he came at once to her room, lifted her in his arms and took her to his room. He comforted her and tucked her up nicely and slept next to her. He asked her to rub her feet against his legs for warmth. This incident brought her close to her father.

She felt sorry for him as he had to work so hard that he had no time to play with her. She even realized that her father loved her but didn’t have the art of expressing it. Thus, her attitude towards her father changed and became more understanding and sympathetic.

Question 7.
Why did Kezia’s father punish her? Was he right in doing so?
Answer:
Kezia wanted to give a present to her father for his birthday. She decided to make a pin -cushion for him. She took a beautiful piece of yellow silk and stitched it on three sides. Now, she needed something to fill it. She went into her parents’ room. There, she found some sheets of fine paper lying on the table. She tore them up into pieces and used them to stuff them into pin cushion. Then she sewed up its fourth side.

What she didn’t know was that the papers were her father’s important speech for the Port Authority. When her father came to know about Kezia’s misdeed, he became very angry. He took a ruler and beat her. He was not right in punishing her. He should have realized that she was innocent. Her intention was good. He should have explained to’ her the error of taking someone’s things without permission and warned her gently but firmly.

Question 8.
What were the circumstances that forced Kezia to change her opinion about her father?
Answer:
When Kezia’s mother was hospitalized, her grandmother went to stay with her. Kezia was’alone at home with her father. As Alice, the cook, put Kezia to bed at night, the child was terrified of the dark and of being alone. She was afraid of the nightmares which she usually saw. On other occasions she was comforted by her grandmother, but tonight Grannie wasn’t there.

That night, Kezia again had the horrible dream and she woke up shivering and crying for her grandma. However, her father stood beside her bed with a candle in his hand. He gently took her in his arms and carried her to his room. He tucked her nicely in his bed and made her sleep close to him. She felt secure with him near her. That was when she realized that her father was busy with work and had no time to play with her. She even realized that her father loved her but didn’t have the art of expressing it. Thus, her attitude towards her father changed.

Question 9.
Kezia’s efforts to please her father resulted in displeasing him. Elaborate.
Answer:
Kezia was very scared of her father and stuttered while answering his casual queries because she was trying so hard to say the words properly. This annoyed him and he rebuked her for looking wretched and on the brink of suicide. When she was sent to talk to him on Sunday afternoons, she always found her mother absorbed in reading and father sleeping on the sofa in their drawing-room. She would sit on a stool and wait for him to wake up.

He would then mockingly call her “a brown owl.” Once she unknowingly destroyed some of his important papers while stuffing a pin-cushion which she wanted to present to him on his birthday. This made him very angry and he beat her up badly. Therefore, Kezia’s efforts to please her father often resulted in displeasing him very much.

The Little Girl Extra Questions and Answers Reference to Context

Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow.

Question 1.
To the little girl he was a figure to be feared and avoided. Every morning before going to work he came into her room and gave her a casual kiss, to which she responded with “Goodbye, Father And oh, there was a glad sense of relief when she heard the noise of the carriage growing fainter and fainter down the long road!

(a) Who does ‘he’ refer to in this extract?
Answer:
He refers to the father of the little girl, Kezia.

(b) What kind of a person was Kezia’s father?
Answer:
He was a strict disciplinarian with a harsh exterior.

(c) What were the feelings of the little girl towards him?
Answer:
The little girl was afraid of him and tried to avoid him.

(d) How did she feel when her father left for office?
Answer:
She heaved a sigh of relief after he left for his office.

Question 2.
To the little girl he was a figure to be feared and avoided. Every morning before going to work he came into her room and gave her a casual kiss, to which she responded with “Goodbye, Father”. And oh, there was a glad sense of relief when she heard the noise of the carriage growing fainter and fainter down the long road!

(a) Who is the little girl?
Answer:
The little girl is Kezia.

(b) Who were the people in Kezia’s family?
Answer:
Kezia’s family consisted of her father, mother, grandmother and herself.

(c) What did ‘he’ do before going to work every morning?
Answer:
Before going to work every morning, he came to Kezia’s room and casually kissed her.

(d) What does this gesture show about him?
Answer:
This gesture shows that he loved her girl but was not very expressive in his affection.

Question 3.
She never stuttered with other people – had quite given it up – but only with Father, because then she was trying so hard to say the words properly.

(a) Who is ‘she’ in this extract?
Answer:
‘She’ is Kezia, the little girl who was afraid of her father.

(b) What had she “quite given up”?
Answer:
She had quite given up the occasional stuttering in front of other people.

(c) How did ‘she’ speak in the presence of her father?
Answer:
In the presence of her father, Kezia stuttered while speaking and displayed lack of confidence.

(d) Why did ‘she’ stutter in her father’s presence?
Answer:
Kezia was afraid of her father and hesitated to speak to him, also whenever she had to speak to him, she would stutter because then she was trying so hard to say the words properly.

Question 4.
‘‘What’s the matter? What are you looking so wretched about? Mother, I wish you taught this child not to appear on the brink of suicide … Here, Kezia, carry my teacup back to the table carefully. ” He was so big – his hands and his neck, especially his mouth when he yawned. Thinking about him alone was like thinking about a giant.

(a) Who is the speaker in these lines?
Answer:
The speaker is Kezia’s father.

(b) Where are they at the moment? What time is it?
Answer:
They are in the drawing room. It is evening and Father has just returned from work.

(c) How does Kezia look in her father’s presence? Why?
Answer:
Kezia looks miserable and gloomy in his presence because she is scared of him.

(d) Why was she scared of her father?
Answer:
She was scared of him because he was a large, loud man and he often reprimanded her.

Question 5.
Slowly the girl would slip down the stairs, more slowly still across the hall, and push open the drawing – room door.

(a) What time of the day is it?
Answer:
It is evening and Father is back from work.

(b) Where is the little girl going?
Answer:
The little girl is going to the drawing room, where her father is sitting.

(c) Why is she going there?
Answer:
She is going there to help him take off his shoes.

(d) Why does she go slowly?
Answer:
She goes slowly because she is afraid of her father and is reluctant to go in his presence.

Question 6.
He was so big – his hands and his neck, especially his mouth when he yawned. Thinking about him alone was like thinking about a giant.

(a) Who is ‘he’ in the above extract?
Answer:
In this extract, ‘he’ refers to the father of Kezia, who was a very strict disciplinarian.

(b) Why does the speaker find him so big?
Answer:
The speaker is his little daughter, Kezia, who is very scared of him. Hence she finds a really big and giant-like with big hands, neck and mouth.

(c) Why does the speaker think of him as a giant?
Answer:
The speaker, Kezia, thought of him as a giant because to a small girl like her, his big body structure was as frightening as that of a giant of children’s stories.

(d) When did his mouth especially appear big?
Answer:
His mouth especially appeared big when he opened it wide while yawning.

Question 7.
On Sunday afternoons Grandmother sent her down to the drawing-room to have a “nice talk with Father and Mother”. But the little girl always found Mother reading and Father stretched out on the sofa, his handkerchief on his face, his feet on one of the best cushions, sleeping soundly and snoring.

(a) Where did Grandmother send ‘her’? Why?
Answer:
Grandmother would send her to the drawing room to talk to her parents.

(b) What would ‘her’ parents be doing?
Answer:
Her mother would be reading and her father would be sleeping.

(c) What do you learn about Mother from this passage?
Answer:
Mother is unconcerned and not very loving as she would ignore Kezia and continue to read.

(d) What would Father say to the little girl when he got up?
Answer:
When he got up Father would ask why Kezia was looking at him like a brown owl.

Question 8.
One day, when she was kept indoors with a cold, her grandmother told her that father’s birthday was next week, and suggested she should make him a pin-cushion for a gift out of a beautiful piece of yellow silk.

(a) Who had a cold? What was the result of the cold?
Answer:
Kezia had a cold and so she could not go out, but had to stay indoors.

(b) What was the occasion next week?
Answer:
It was Kezia’s father’s birthday next week.

(c) What did her grandmother want her to do?
Answer:
Grandmother wanted Kezia to make a gift for her father, a pin-cushion.

(d) What did Kezia use for stuffing the pin-cushion?
Answer:
Kezia used some papers she found on a bed-table in her parents’ bedroom for stuffing the pin-cushion. Unfortunately, the papers were an important speech written by her father.

Question 9.
“Mother, go up to her room and fetch down the damned thing – see that the child’s put to bed this instant. ”

(a) Who speaks these lines and to whom?
Answer:
Kezia’s father speaks these lines to his mother.

(b) What is the mood of the speaker in these lines?
Answer:
The speaker, Kezia’s father, is very angry while speaking.

(c) What does the speaker refer to as the ‘damned thing’?
Answer:
The ‘damned thing’ referred to by the speaker, Kezia’s father, is the pin-cushion Kezia had made for him.

(d) Who is the ‘child’ here? Why does the speaker wish the child to be put to bed immediately?
Answer:
The ‘child’ here is Kezia. Her father, the speaker, wishes her to be put to bed immediately because he is furious at the damage caused by her. He wants to punish her for tearing up his papers.

Question 10.
“Sit up, ” he ordered, “and hold out your hands. You must be taught once and for all not to touch what does not belong to you. ”

(a) Who is the speaker? Who is he talking to?
Answer:
Kezia’s father is talking to Kezia.

(b) Where are they at the moment?
Answer:
They are in Kezia’s bedroom where she had been sent for tearing up her father’s papers.

(c) Why does the speaker want the listener to hold out her hands?
Answer:
Kezia’s father wanted her to hold out her hands so that he could punish her by hitting her on the palms

(d) What do you learn about the speaker from these lines?
Answer:
He is a strict disciplinarian and is punishing his little daughter for tearing up his important papers. He is also unforgiving.

Question 11.
“But it was for your b-b-birthday. ”
Down came the ruler on her little, pink palms.

(a) Who speaks these words? To whom?
Answer:
Kezia speaks these words to her father.

(b) Where are they at the moment?
Answer:
They are in Kezia’s bedroom at the moment.

(c) Why does she speak these words?
Answer:
She speaks these words to try and explain to her father why she had cut up the papers.

(d) Who brought down ‘the ruler on her little, pink palms’? Why?
Answer:
Kezia’s father brought down the ruler on her palms to punish her for touching his papers without permission.

Question 12.
“Here’s a clean hanky, darling. Blow your nose. Go to sleep, pet; you ’ll forget all about it in the morning. I tried to explain to Father but he was too upset to listen tonight. ”

(a) Why does the speaker offer the listener a clean hanky?
Answer:
Grandmother, the speaker, offers a clean hanky because Kezia had been crying after she was punished by her father for tearing up his important papers. She needed a clean hanky to blow her running nose.

(b) What did the speaker want the listener to forget?
Answer:
Grandmother, the speaker, wanted Kezia, the listener to forget about the beating that she had got from her Father.

(c) Why did she want the listener to forget it?
Answer:
She wanted her to forget it because the punishment was not given to hurt but to make her understand that things belonging to others must not be touched.

(d) What do you think had the speaker tried to explain to Father?
Answer:
Grandmother, the speaker, tried to explain to Father that Kezia had not destroyed the papers intentionally and that she had been trying to complete his surprise birthday gift.

Question 13.
But the child never forgot. Next time she saw him, she quickly put both hands behind her back and a red colour flew into her cheeks.

(a) What did the child never forget?
Answer:
The child, Kezia, never forgot how her father had punished her and hit her.

(b) Why did she put her hands behind her back?
Answer:
Father had hit her on her palms with a ruler. She remembered the pain, and was afraid of being punished again.

(c) What had she done to get punished by her father?
Answer:
She had tom up his important speech in order to stuff the pin-cushion she was making as a surprise gift for him.

(d) What did she wish her father to be?
Answer:
She wished for her father to be more like Mr Macdonald

Question 14.
Looking through a gap in the fence the little girl saw them playing ‘tag ’ in the evening. The father with the baby, Mao, on his shoulders, two little girls hanging on to his coat pockets ran round and round the flower¬beds, shaking with laughter. Once she saw the boys turn the hose on him-and he tried to catch them laughing all the time.

(a) Who is ‘them’?
Answer:
‘Them’ refers to Kezia’s neighbours, Mr Macdonald and his five children.

(b) What is the little girl doing at the moment?
Answer:
The little girl is looking at her neighbours, the Macdonald’s through a gap in the fence. The family are playing together.

(c) How is the relationship of the children with their father different from the little girl’s with hers?
Answer:
Unlike Kezia, the Macdonald children were not at all afraid of their father. In fact they were all playing and laughing together.

(d) What did she wish as she saw the family?
Answer:
As she the children laughing and playing with their father, the little girl wished for her father to be like Mr Macdonald.

Question 15.
“What’ll 1 do if I have a nightmare? ” she asked. “I often have nightmares and then Grannie takes me into her bed—I can’t stay in the dark- gets ‘whispery ’…”.

(a) Who is the speaker in these lines? Who is being addressed?
Answer:
In these lines, the speaker is Kezia, the little girl and she is addressing Alice, the cook.

(b) What happens when the speaker has nightmares?
Answer:
When Kezia has nightmares, she is comforted by her grandmother who takes the little girl into her bed

(c) Where was Grannie right now?
Answer:
Kezia’s Grannie was at the hospital with Kezia’s mother who is unwell.

(d) Who was beside her bed when she woke shivering that night?
Answer:
Kezia’s father came to her when she had her nightmare and cried out in her sleep. He took her to his bed with him.

Question 16.
Oh, a butcher – a knife – I want Grannie. ” He blew out the candle, bent down and caught up the child in his arms, carrying her along the passage to the big bedroom. A newspaper was on the bed – a half-smoked cigar was near his reading-lamp. He put away the paper, threw the cigar into the fireplace, then carefully tucked up the child. He lay down beside her.

(a) Who wanted Granny? Why?
Answer:
Kezia wanted Granny because whenever she had a nightmare Granny would soothe her and take her into her bed with her.

(b) Who blew out the candle? Why?
Answer:
Father blew out the candle because he wanted to carry Kezia to his room.

(c) Where was the butcher?
Answer:
The butcher was in Kezia’s nightmare.

(d) What does her father’s behaviour in the passage show?
Answer:
He was a loving and caring father.

Question 17.
Then the dark did not matter; she lay still.

(a) When did the dark not matter? Why?
Answer:
The dark did not matter because Kezia’s father had brought her to his bed. She felt safe now.

(b) Why had she been afraid in the dark?
Answer:
She was afraid of the dark because of her nightmare.

(c) What nightmare did she have?
Answer:
Kezia dreamt of a butcher with a knife and a rope, who came nearer and nearer, smiling a dreadful smile, while she could not move, could only stand still, crying out in fear.

(d) What did her father do? What does her father’s behaviour show?
Answer:
Her father got her to his bed and tucked her in nicely next to himself. This shows he was a loving, caring father.

Question 18.
He was harder than Grandmother, but it was a nice hardness. And every day he had to work and was too tired to be a Mr Macdonald… She had torn up all his beautiful writing … She stirred suddenly and sighed.

(a) Who was harder than Grandmother?
Answer:
Kezia’s father was harder than her grandmother.

(b) Explain “harder than Grandmother”.
Answer:
Her father was more strict and firm than her grandmother was.

(c) Who was Mr Macdonald? Why could “he” not be like him?
Answer:
Mr Macdonald was Kezia’s neighbour. He had five children and Kezia had seen him laughing and playing with his children. “He” could not be like mr Macdonald as was a hard working man and was too tired to play with her.

(d) Why did she sigh?
Answer:
She sighed in understanding and happiness. She had understood her father and his love for her. She was no longer afraid of him.

Question 19.
“Oh, ” said the little girl, “my head’s on your heart. I can hear it going. What a big heart you’ve got, Father dear. ”

(a) Where is the little girl at this time? Why?
Answer:
The little girl is in bed with her father. He had picked her up and got her here after she had cried out because of her nightmare.

(b) Where has she put her head? Why?
Answer:
Kezia has put her head on the big heart of her father. She has done so because she is free from her fears and is happy to discover the tender and loving side of her otherwise strict father.

(c) What can the little girl hear?
Answer:
Kezia can hear the heartbeat of her father. She has realised that her father loves her.

(d) How does the little girl feel at this time?
Answer:
Kezia is no longer afraid of her father. In fact, she feels happy and safe at this time.

Embark on an enlightening journey through the concept of “People as Resource,” exploring the transformative potential of human capital and the role of education and skill development in fostering socio-economic growth. Have you ever wondered about the significance of human resources in a nation’s development, and the importance of investing in the well-being and capabilities of its people? In this article, we present you with a People as Resource Class 9 Extra Questions with Answers. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers.

People as Resource Class 9 Extra Questions with Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]

Question 1.
What is people as a resource?
Answer:
People as a resource means people are an asset rather than a liability, i.e., the work population of a country.

Question 2.
When does population becomes human capital?
Answer:
Population becomes human capital when investment is made in the form of education, training and medical care. It adds up to the productive power of a country.

Question 3.
What is the positive side of a large population?
Answer:
A large population, from productive aspect, contributes to Gross National Product.

Question 4.
What is human capital?
Answer:
When investment is made in the form of education, training and medical care, the quality of population improves and becomes a great asset. It is known as human capital.

Question 5.
How can investment be made in humans?
Answer:
Investment can be made in humans by means of education, training and provision of health care facilities.

Question 6.
How does the society benefit from investment in humans?
Answer:
The benefit of society from investment in humans is an indirect way that is the benefits of educated and healthier population spreads to those who are not educated or healthy.

Question 7.
How is human capital superior to other resources?
Answer:
Human capital is superior to other resources because other resources can be developed only by human beings with their skills and knowledge. They can not be developed and become useful on their own.

Question 8.
Why do educated parents invest heavily in the education of their children?
Answer:
Educated parents invest more in the health and education of their children because they are aware of the benefits of higher education.

Question 9.
How illiterate parents create a vicious cycle for their children?
Answer:
Illiterate parents who are not aware of the advantages of education and hygiene, deprive their children of these which in turn results in their children falling in the trap of a vicious circle.

Question 10.
What are different types of primary activities?
Answer:
Primary activities include agriculture, forestry, animal husbandry, mining, quarrying and poultry farming etc.

Question 11.
What are tertiary activities?
Answer:
Tertiary activities include services like education, health, communication, banking, trade, transport, tourism, insurance etc. These services help in the smooth functioning of primary and secondary activities.

Question 12.
A person is making envelopes with the help of paper. In which sector should his activity be included?
Answer:
Secondary sector

Question 13.
What are economic activities?
Answer:
The activities which help to earn money for the country or add value to the national income are known as economic activities.

Question 14.
What are non-economic activities?
Answer:
Non-economic activities are those activities which do not add to the national income such as an individual performing domestic chores.

Question 15.
Define market activities.
Answer:
Market activities are those activities for which the people, who perform these activities, are paid or have profits such as production of goods and services.

Question 16.
What are non-market activities?
Answer:
Non-market activities are those activities which are carried out for self-consumption such as consumption and processing of primary products and own account production of fixed assets.

Question 17.
In which case women get paid for their work?
Answer:
Women are paid for their work when they enter into the labour market.

Question 18.
What are the major determinants of earnings?
Answer:
Education and skill are the two major determinants of earnings.

Question 19.
What is an unorganised sector?
Answer:
It is a sector where the income of people is low and irregular. The basic facilities such as maternity leave, childcare and other social security systems are also absent in an unorganised sector.

Question 20.
What kinds of jobs in the organised sector attract women?
Answer:
In the organised sector, teaching and medicine attract the women most.

Question 21.
Mention two factors on which quality of population depends.
Answer:
The two factors are the literacy rate and the health of a person indicated by life expectancy and skill formation of the people.

Question 22.
Which factor decides the growth rate of a country?
Answer:
The growth rate of a country is decided by the quality of population.

Question 23.
How is education useful to an individual?
Answer:
Education is useful in making better use of the economic opportunities available to an individual.

Question 24.
What are Navodaya Vidyalayas?
Answer:
Navodaya Vidyalayas are the schools started for the talented children in the rural areas.

Question 25.
Why have vocational streams been developed?
Answer:
Vocational streams have been developed to equip large number of high school students with occupations related to knowledge and skills.

Question 26.
Mention the literacy rates of population in 1951 and 2010-11.
Answer:
18% in 1951 and 74% in 2010-11.

Question 27.
What differences have been noted in literacy among different sections of the society and states?
Answer:
The differences are higher between males and females, more in urban areas than rural areas and higher in Kerala than Bihar.

Question 28.
Even though primary schools have expanded largely in villages, mention the reasons for their diluted result?
Answer:
The poor quality of schooling and high dropout rates are the reasons for their diluted results.

Question 29.
What do you know about Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan?
Answer:
It is a significant step towards providing elementary education to all children in the age group of 6-14 years by 2010.

Question 30.
What is the main aim of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan?
Answer:
It is a time-bound initiative of the central government in partnership with the states, the local government and the community for achieving the goals of universalisation of elementary education.

Question 31.
Why have mid-day meal scheme been launched by the government in the schools?
Answer:
Mid-day meal scheme has been launched by the government in schools to encourage attendance and retention of children and to improve their nutritional status.

Question 32.
What are the strategies adopted in the 12th plan for education and literacy?
Answer:
The strategies include increasing access, quality, adoption of states-specific curriculum modification, vocationalisation and networking on the use of information technology. It is also focussed on convergence of formal, non-formal, distance and IT education institutions.

Question 33.
Mention two things necessary for good health.
Answer:
The two things which are necessary for good health are:

• Balanced and nutritious diet
• Health care facilities

Question 34.
What is the aim of National Health Policy of India?
Answer:
The National Health Policy aims at improving the accessibility of healthcare, family welfare and nutritional services with special focus on the underprivileged segment of the population.

Question 35.
What is infant mortality rate?
Answer:
The infant mortality rate (IMR) refers to the number of deaths of infants per thousand live births before completing one year.

Question 36.
What do you mean by birth rate?
Answer:
The birth rate is the total number of live births per 1,000 people during a particular period of time.

Question 37.
Define death rate.
Answer:
The death rate is the total number of people dying per 1,000 people during a particular period of time.

Question 38.
What are the two indicators for assessing the future of a country?
Answer:
The two indicators for assessing the future of a country are increase in life expectancy and improvement in childcare.

Question 39.
How many medical colleges and dental colleges are in India?
Answer:
There are 381 medical colleges in the country and 301 dental colleges.

Question 40.
What do you mean by the term ‘unemployment’?
Answer:
It is a situation when people, who are willing to work at the existing wages, are not able to find jobs for themselves.

Question 41.
How does rural areas differ from urban areas in terms of unemployment?
Answer:
In rural areas, there is seasonal and disguised unemployment whereas in urban areas, there is educated unemployment.

Question 42.
What is meant by seasonal unemployment?
Answer:
It is a situation when people are not able to find jobs during the particular months of a year especially in agriculture.

Question 43.
What is disguised unemployment?
Answer:
It is a situation when people appear to be employed but in reality they are not such as in agriculture if five people are working but only three are required, then two people are disguised unemployed.

Question 44.
What is educated unemployment?
Answer:
It means unemployment among the educated people. It usually occurs in cities where there are educated or skilled people but no job opportunities.

Question 45.
Mention two consequences of unemployment.
Answer:
The two consequences of unemployment are:

• It leads to wastage of manpower resources.
• It tends to increase in economic overload.

Question 46.
‘Unemployment rate is low in India.’ Why? [HOTS]
Answer:
In India, the unemployment rate is low because large number of people with low income and productivity are counted as employed.

Short Answer Type Questions [3 Marks]

Question 47.
Define Human capital and human capital formation. Name any two sources of human capital formation.
Answer:
When investment is made in the form of education, training and medical care, the quality of population improves and becomes a great asset. It is known as human capital.

When the investment is made in the existing human resource for further development by becoming more educated and healthy is termed as human capital farmatipn. The two sources of human capital formation are education and health.

Question 48.
Mention three sectors of economic activities with examples.
Answer:
The three sectors of economic activities are:

1. Primary sector. It produces goods by exploiting natural resources. It includes agriculture, forestry, mining, animal husbandry and fishing.
2. Secondary sector. It converts all raw material into finished goods such as manufacturing industries and construction activities.
3. Tertiary sector. It includes trade, transportation, communication, education, health, tourism and insurance etc. It helps in the smooth functioning of primary and secondary sectors.

Question 49.
Define economic activities. Highlight the two types of economic activities.
Or
What is an economic activity? What are the different types of economic activities?
Answer:

1. Economic activities are those activities which add value to the national income. The two types of economic activities are:
2. Market activities. These are those activities which involve remuneration to those who perform the activities for wages or profit.
3. Non-market activities. These activities refer to production activities which are performed for self-consumption and processing of primary products and own account production of fixed assets.

Question 50.
Distinguish between market and non-market activities with three points of distinction.
Answer:

Market Activities	Non-market Activities
(a) Market activities are those activities which include the production and consumption of goods.	(a) Non-market activities include things which are not economic and comprises of exchange system.
(b) These activities are performed for pay or profits.	(b) These activities are performed for self-consumption.
(c) Example: A teacher teaching in a school and a man working in a bank.	(c) Example: Subsistence farming and processing of primary products.

Question 51.
How are the children of educated parents are different from those of uneducated ones?
Answer:

Children of Educated Parents	Children of Uneducated Parents
(a) Children of educated parents are also educated because their parents know the value of education.	(a) Children of uneducated parents are also uneducated because their parents do not know the value of education.
(b) They maintain high health and nutritional standards.	(b) They do not maintain high nutritional standards because of lack of awareness.
(c) They get better jobs because they are well educated.	(c) They are generally employed in household works as their parents fail to realise the importance of education.
(d) Educated parents are able to help their children in their self-studies.	(d) Uneducated parents are not able to help their children in their self-studies.

Question 52.
Mention any three features of National Health Policy.
Answer:
The three features of National Health Policy are:

• It aims at improving the accessibility of healthcare and family welfare.
• It aims at improving the nutritional services with special focus on under-privileged segment of the population.
• It has improved the ratio of nurses, doctors and beds in the country.

Question 53.
What is the health status of the population in India?
Answer:

• India has built a vast health infrastructure and has also developed the manpower required at primary, secondary and tertiary sector in government, as well as, in the private sector.
• Life expectancy have been increased to over 68.3 years in 2014.
• Infant mortality rate has come down from 147 in 1951 to 37 in 2015.
• Crude birth rates have dropped to 20.8 and death rates to 6.5 within the same duration of time.

Question 54.
Why is health of people a matter of major concern for the Indian government?
Answer:
Health is an important determinant of the quality of production and in turn affects the overall growth and development of a country. In spite of improvement in health, medical facilities, decline in infant mortality rate etc. it continues to remain a matter of concern because:

Safe drinking water and basic amenities are still only available to one-third of the rural population.
The per capita calories consumption is still much below the recommended levels.

Question 55.
“Unemployment leads to low income and low savings and hence low demand and low production. This is the identification of a depressed economy.” Support the statement with three arguments.
Answer:
Unemployment has negative effects on the economic development of a country in the following ways

• It is a wastage of manpower resource. It increases the economic overload and the number of dependent on population.
• The quality of life of an individual as well as the society is adversely affected. There is a feeling of hopelessness among the youth.
• The time period lost in the unemployment is an irrecoverable loss. It is the loss of productive period and the loss can not be compensated.
• Thus, increase in unemployment is an indicator of a depressed economy.

Long Answer Type Questions [5 Marks]

Question 56.
In what way is human capital superior to other sources like physical capital? How a large population is turned into a productive asset? Explain.
Answer:
Human capital is superior to other sources like physical capital as it can make use of other sources like land and physical capital. Human capital can develop land and physical capital according to his skill and education because they could not develop on their own.
A large population is turned into a productive asset by the following ways:

• Proper investment in developing skills.
• Emphasis on academic and vocational aspects of students.
• Making available opportunities accessible to large section of people like technological know how.

Question 57.
Describe the employment scenario in the three sectors of the economy in India in recent years.
Answer:
Agriculture is the most labour absorbing absorbing sector sector of the economy. In recent years, there has been a decline in the dependence of population on agriculture partly because of disguised unemployment. Some of the surplus labour in agriculture has moved to secondary or tertiary sectors. Small-scale manufacturing is the most labour absorbing sector in secondary sector. The tertiary sector has seen a remarkable improvement in its employment in recent years. In this sector, various new services are now appearing such as biotechnology, information technology and so on.

Question 58.
Analyse the role of education in the formation of human capital formation.
Answer:
The role of education in human capital formation is as follows:

• Educated people earn more than the uneducated people.
• Literate population is an asset to an economy.
• It leads to higher productivity.
• It opens new avenues for a person.
• It provides new aspirations and develops values of life. if) It contributes to the growth of society.
• It enhances the national income, cultural richness and the efficiency of the governance.

Question 59.
Describe five main features of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.
Answer:
The five main features of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan are:

• It is a significant step towards providing elementary education to all children in the age group of 6-14 years.
• It is a time-bound initiative of the central government, in partnership with the states, the local government and the community for attaining the goal of universalisation of elementary education.
• In this, bridge courses and back-to-school camps have been introduced to increase the enrolment in elementary education.
• Mid-day meal scheme has been introduced to encourage attendance in schools and increase their nutritional status.
• These type of polices of the government could add to the literate minds and further the economic development.

Question 60.
Describe the policy of government on higher education as per 12th Five Year Plan.
Answer:
The policy of the Indian government under the 12th Five Year Plan is as follows:

• It focusses on improving the education sector.
• It focusses on increasing access, quality and adoption of state-specific curriculum, modification, vocationalisation and networking on the use of information technology.
• It focusses on distance education, convergence of formal and non-formal distance and IT education institutions.
• It aims at reducing gender gaps in literacy and to increase the literacy rates within the time period.
• It aims at increasing the enrolment in higher education of 18 to 23 years age to 25.2% by 2017-18 and to reach the target of 30% by 2020-21.

Question 61.
Why will a firm not like to employ a worker with ill-health? How does it affect the working environment?
Answer:
A firm will not like to employ an ill-healthy worker because:

• An unhealthy worker would not be able to contribute to the overall productivity of an organisation.
• An unhealthy worker is a liability rather than an asset for an organisation.
• An unhealthy worker cannot contribute to the growth of the organisation.
• An unhealthy worker does not work regularly and remains on leaves due to sickness.
• It creates a gloomy atmosphere in the surroundings.

Question 62.
Describe different types of unemployment found in India.
Answer:
The different types of unemployment found in India are:

1. Disguised unemployment. This is the phenomenon where too many workers are working in a specific job. It happens in small agricultural farms where the whole family is working on the same farm but so many workers are not required to cultivate the farm efficiently.
2. Seasonal unemployment. It occurs when workers can find work in a specific season. For example, agricultural workers may find work only during busy agricultural seasons when sowing, harvesting, weeding and threshing are done.
3. Educated unemployment. This type of unemployment is common in urban areas. There is unemployment among the educated and technically skilled workers because they are not able to find the jobs for themselves.

Question 63.
Explain any five effects of unemployment on the overall growth of the economy.
Or
How does unemployment affect the overall growth of an economy?
Answer:
The five effects of unemployment on the overall growth of an economy are:

• It leads to wastage of manpower resource.
• The people who are an asset become a liability.
• It creates a feeling of hopelessness and despair among the young people. ‘
• It increases economic overload, i.e., the dependence of unemployed on the working population.
• The quality of life of an individual gets affected.

The Fun They Had Class 9 Extra Questions with Answers, you will find a diverse range of extra questions covering various aspects of the narrative. From character motivations and technological advancements to the story’s underlying themes, these thoughtfully crafted questions will stimulate your mind and leave you with a deeper appreciation for Asimov’s storytelling prowess. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 9 English with Answers.

The Fun They Had Class 9 Extra Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Who are Margie and Tommy? How old are they?
Answer:
Margie and Tommy are students from the year 2157. Tommy is a thirteen-year-old boy and Margie is an eleven-year-old girl. Both are neighbours and good friends who like to spend time together like children of their age usually do.

Question 2.
What did Margie write in her diary?
Answer:
On 17 May 2157 Margie recorded in her diary about the discovery of a “real” book by Tommy. It was a very old book printed on paper and had yellow and crinkly pages, unlike the telebooks of the twenty-second century.

Question 3.
Where had Tommy found the book? How was it different from the books Margie and Tommy were used to?
Answer:
Tommy found a real book in the attic of his house. The book was at least two hundred years old so pages had turned yellow and crinkly. It was a different from the books Margie and Tommy were used to because they had teiebooks to read from while the book Tommy found was printed on paper.

Question 4.
Had Margie ever seen a real book before? Did she know about such books?
Answer:
No, Margie had never seen a book before till she saw the one Tommy found in the attic of his house. She had only heard about books from her grandfather who himself had not seen any. He too had heard about a printed book from his own grandfather.

Question 5.
What things about the book did Margie and Tommy find strange?
Answer:
Margie and Tommy read telebooks where words moved on a screen. Books were stored in a machine that could store a million books on it and still be good for plenty more. So they found it strange that the words in the printed book remained fixed unlike the moving ones on their television screen.

Question 6.
“What a waste!” What is Tommy referring to as a ‘waste’? Is it really a waste? Why/Why not?
Answer:
Tommy thought the paper book he found in his attic with words that were printed and did not move was a waste. Once a book had been read, it became useless and must be thrown away because it had the same content.

Yes: Printed books are a waste as telebooks are more accessible. They can be stored in a television and read again and again. They occupy very little space as compared to the printed books and need not be discarded once they have been read. In addition, paper books consume resources like trees from which paper is made and water that is consumed in the process of making paper.

No: Printed books are not a waste as they can be read by many people over and over again and can be preserved for future generations. Moreover, the data in a telebook can be lost or stolen, but in a printed book, the data printed on a page remains for ever.

Question 7.
What do you think a telebook is?
Answer:
A telebook is a book made available in text on a television screen. Many books can be stored and read in this manner. (The telebook is the author’s imagined version of an e-book as this story was written in 1951, long before their advent.)

Question 8.
Did Margie like the printed book? Why/Why not?
Answer:
Margie was really excited to see the ‘real’ book Tommy found as it was unlike the telebooks the two were used to reading. It was such a novelty that she recorded the discovery in her diary. As she turned the yellow and crinkly pages of the book with Tommy, she found it quite fascinating, unlike Tommy who found it a waste. In fact, she was really reluctant to stop reading the book and go to study. She wanted to read the book again after school.

Question 9.
Where was Margie’s school? Did she have any classmates?
Answer:
Margie’s school was a room next to her bedroom in her house. No, she did not have any classmates as her school was a customised school, set up exclusively for her according to her level and needs.

Question 10.
What kind of teachers did Margie and Tommy have? How were they different from teachers in the book?
Answer:
Margie and Tommy had mechanical teachers, which were large and black and ugly, with a big screen on which all the lessons were shown and the questions were asked. There was a slot where they had to put homework and test papers and the mechanical teacher calculated the marks in no time. Margie and Tommy’s teachers were different from the teachers in the book as the teachers in the book were men and not mechanical teachers.

Question 11.
Why had Margie started hating her school?
Answer:
Margie never liked school. But lately she had come to hate it more than ever because of her poor performance in geography. The mechanical teacher had been giving her test after test in the subject and she had been doing worse and worse.

Question 12.
How were Margie and Tommy assessed in their subjects?
Answer:
Margie and Tommy were given assignments by their mechanical teachers. They wrote their answers in a punch code they were trained in. Then they inserted their special answer sheets in the slot in the mechanical teacher. The teacher corrected their assignments and calculated their marks in no time.

Question 13.
What did Margie hate the most about her school?
Answer:
The part that Margie hated most about her school was the slot where she had to put homework and test papers. She always had to write them in a punch code that she was made to leam at the age of six. The mechanical teacher calculated her marks in no time leaving no time for Margie to relax after submitting the assigned tasks.

Question 14.
Write a brief note on Margie’s school routine.
Answer:
Although Margie was taught by a large black television screen installed in a room next to her bedroom, Margie followed a strict routine and had regular days and hours for school. She studied from Monday to Friday at the same time every day as her mother thought that young girls learnt things better if they studied them at regular hours.

Question 15.
Margie’s mother was very particular about her studies. Justify with evidence from the story.
Answer:
Margie’s mother was very particular about her studies and made sure that Margie attended her tele-school regularly and at fixed times as she felt little girls learned better if they learned at regular hours. She took a keen interest in Margie’s performance and when she felt she was not doing too well in a particular subject, she called the County Inspector to have a look at the mechanical teacher.

Question 16.
Who was the County Inspector? What did he do to improve Margie’s performance?
Answer:
The County Inspector was a technical expert who identified and rectified errors in the functioning of the mechanical teachers. When the County Inspector examined the working of Margie’s mechanical teacher, he found that the geography sector had been geared too quick. He slowed it up to an average 10-years level. He found the overall pattern of Margie quite satisfactory.

Question 17.
Write a brief note on the County Inspector.
Answer:
The County Inspector was a round little man with a red face and a whole box of tools with dials and wires. He was certainly a kind-hearted man and he put Margie at ease by giving her an apple and telling her mother that if Margie was not performing well, it was not her fault, but the fault of the mechanical teacher. He aligned the speed of the geography sector keeping in mind the level of the girl. Before leaving, he patted Margie on the head and expressed satisfaction at her performance.

Question 18.
Why was Margie not doing well in geography? What did the County Inspector do to help her?
Answer:
Margie was not doing well in geography. In fact, her performance was getting worse day by day. Her mother sent for the County Inspector to look into the problem. He told Mrs Jones that the geography sector in Margie’s mechanical teacher was geared up a little too quick for her and that he had slowed it up to the level of an average ten-year-old.

Question 19.
Why did Margie get disappointed after the geography sector of her teacher was set right?
Answer:
Margie’s mechanical teacher had been giving her test after test in geography and her mother had asked the County Inspector to look into it. Margie had hoped that her mechanical teacher would be taken away for some time as Tommy’s had been when it had malfunctioned. But she was disappointed when the County Inspector set the mechanical teacher right there and then.

Question 20.
What had once happened to Tommy’s teacher?
Answer:
Once, Tommy’s mechanical teacher had developed a fault and its history sector had blanked out absolutely. The teacher had to be taken away for repairs and it had taken almost a month to put it in order.

Question 21.
What does Tommy tell Margie about the old kind of school?
Answer:
Tommy describes the old school as a special building where all the children went to study together. Students of the same age-group were taught the same things which by human teachers. These teachers taught various things to boys and girls, gave them homework and also asked them questions.

Question 22.
What was Margie’s reaction when Tommy told her that twentieth-century schools had human teachers?
Answer:
When Margie heard Tommy mention that children were taught by human teachers in the times gone by, she could not believe the truth of Tommy’s statement. She believed that a human teacher could not match the mechanical teacher in intelligence and knowledge. This was because she had been taught by a mechanical teacher and had never seen any human teacher.

Question 23.
Why could Margie and Tommy finish reading the book Tommy found?
Answer:
When Margie and Tommy were reading the book Tommy had found in his attic, Margie’s mother interrupted them and told Margie to go to her schoolroom to study. She even suggested Tommy too went to attend school.

Question 24.
What did the teacher teach Margie when she went to her school?
Answer:
When Margie went to school the mechanical teacher taught an arithmetic lesson on the addition of proper fractions. It taught her how to add the fractions xh and 1/4.

Question 25.
Why was Margie not able to concentrate on the Arithmetic lesson?
Answer:
Margie could not concentrate on the arithmetic lesson because her mind was pre-occupied with the thoughts about the school that Tommy had just described her. She was fascinated by the fact that in olden days all the kids from the whole neighbourhood came, laughing and shouting in the schoolyard, sitting together in the schoolroom, going home together at the end of the day. They learned the same things, so they could help one another with the homework and talk about it.

Question 26.
Why did Margie think that children in olden days had fun while studying in school?
Answer:
Margie attended a tele-school, which was just a machine in the room next to her bedroom and she studied alone unlike the students of the schools in the bygone times. She found her present school much too mechanical, boring, monotonous and demanding, and she hated it. She felt that learning was more fun in those days because hundreds of children had the opportunity of congregating and studying together with the help of human teachers and printed books. Schools were large buildings where students learned the same things, so they could help one another with the homework and talk about it.

The Fun They Had Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type
Question 1.
How did Margie and Tommy react to the book Tommy found in his attic? Why?
Answer:
Margie and Tommy were neighbours and friends. They lived in 2157, in an age of technology when going to school meant sitting in a room by oneself, being taught by a mechanical teacher that was adjusted to fit the learner’s mind and reading from a telebook with moving words.

Then on the Then one da7 May 2157, Tommy found an old paper book wit yellow and crinkled pages fn the attic of his house. He shared the exciting news with his friend Margie and together they are wonderstruck, for they had before that never seen or heard about a book that had no screen but only fixed text on pages.

The book was quite different from the tele-books they were used to. As Margie and Tommy read the book, they were amazed by its contents. They discovered that hundreds of years ago schools were huge buildings where hundreds of children went to study and where children of the same age studied together and carried out the same activities and tasks. They were taught by real human teachers with the help of real books.

Question 2.
Describe the old school as described in the book? How did it influence Margie?
Answer:
The book which Tommy found was about school. However, it was not the kind of school Margie and Tommy were used to, but the old kind of schools that were there hundreds and hundreds of years ago. School was a special building and all the kids went there. Children went to these schools to study and were taught by a ‘regular’ teacher, a man who told the boys and girls things and gave them homework and asked them questions.

At school, all children of the same age studied together and carried out the same activities and tasks. Margie thought about the old kind of school. She was thinking about all the kids from the whole neighbourhood came, laughing and shouting in the schoolyard, sitting together in the schoolroom, going home together at the end of the day. They learned the same things, so they could help one another with the homework and talk about it. Margie thought about the old school system and how much fun the children must have had, learning and spending time together.

Question 3.
Write a short note on the school system in “The Fun They Had”.
Answer:
Margie and Tommy are young school going children in the year 2157. Schools and teachers in the twenty- second century are entirely different from the ones in present day. Margie and Tommy’s school is not in a separate special building but a room in their respective houses where the television or the mechanical teacher is placed. Each student has to sit and study alone with the help of mechanical teacher, a large and black and ugly machine, with a big screen on which all the lessons are shown and the questions are asked.

The ‘teacher’ assigns tests to the students and assesses their progress. The speed of the different subject sectors is fixed according to the age level of each student. There is a special slot in the tele-teacher where students have to insert their homework or tests. If the mechanical teacher develops any fault, there are engineers to repair it.

Sometimes the fault may be a major one and it takes long to repair it, as was the case when Tommy’s history teacher developed a snag and it took a month to repair it. Thus, the mechanical teachers and schoolrooms of Margie and Tommy are fully computerised and are completely different from the present day schools.

Question 4.
Do you agree that schools today are better than the schools in the story ‘The Fun They Had’. Give reasons for your choice.
Answer:
Yes: In the story The Fun They Had writer Isaac Asimov talks about the schools of the future. In this future, school is a room in the house where each child is taught by a mechanical teacher and there are telebooks on television screens.

After reading the story, I think that we pupils in the present should be satisfied. I agree an individual teacher for each child can work better and more intensively with the pupil and when the parents set the school time a child can have flexible school hours. If the school(room) is at home, the children do not have to walk or drive so far and this saves time and money.

But on the other hand, we lose an opportunity for social contacts. The most important advantage we have today is we have contact with other kids, in the breaks we can talk to each other and we have fun with them. Pupils solve problems together – very important for the later life and the development of a child. And a human teacher is definitely a better educator than a machine because he knows the problems of humans and children. A machine will never be able to feel like a human. Moreover, a human teacher can provide valuable guidance and values that a mechanical teacher cannot.

No: The Fun They Had by Isaac Asimov is a science-fiction story schooling in the twenty-second century. Margie, an eleven-year-old girl, and Tommy, who is thirteen, live in the year 2157, where school means learning from a machine teacher at home. Both kids have never seen a printed book, because they read telebooks.

The author shows us how school could be in two hundred years, when everything is managed by computers and other technology. In his story, in spite of the advances in technology, the two children are still like kids today. Isaac Assimov shows very clearly the typical behaviour of an eleven-year-old girl and a thirteen-year- old boy, so in his story their characters are not influenced by the technical advancement.

An advantage of a mechanical teacher is that the mechanical teacher can be geared to the mental level of the student. Thus, it becomes easier for the child to understand the lessons. Different styles of learning of students can be addressed using mechanical teacher and technology. Mechanical teachers can analyze the specific mistakes that students make and give instant feedback which would prove helpful for the students.

Question 5.
Do you think Asimov is warning us about the dangers of too much computerisation?
Answer:
In his short story “The Fun They Had” Isaac Asimov depicts the school system in 2157 which is based on technical advancement. Thirteen-year-old Tommy and eleven-year-old girl Margie both study with a computer teacher at home. While the individual teaching can train the personal talents and it is a perfect way to give every child knowledge and information baed on the child’s capacity, but there are some disadvantages, too.

Pupils do not learn like a computer. Learning has to be fun, otherwise the probability of forgetting is higher. Another disadvantage is that there are no social relationships like at school today. Learning with friends at school can be a motivation. Students improve their communication skills and their behaviour in a group. A mechanical teacher cannot give moral values to the children.

I think Asimov is trying to warn us that the school system which is being followed in 2157 is a good way of giving children knowledge and information for jobs, but it is not good at giving ability for interpersonal relationships. In my opinion the disadvantages are more serious than the advantages and I feel this is a warning given by Isaac Asimov that this kind of schooling may not, in fact, be an ideal option for students.

The Fun They Had Extra Questions and Answers Reference to Context
Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow.

Question 1.
“Today Tommy found a real book! ”
It was a very old book. Margie’s grandfather once said that when he was a little boy his grandfather told him that there was a time when all stories were printed on paper.

(a) Who are Margie and Tommy?
Answer:
Tommy is a thirteen-year-old boy and Margie an eleven-year-old girl who live in the twenty second century.

(b) Where had Tommy found the book?
Answer:
Tommy had found the book in the attic of his house.

(c) What is meant by “real book”?
Answer:
The book is “real” as it is printed on paper rather than a telebook.

(d) How had Margie heard of such a book?
Answer:
Margie’s grandfather had told her that he had heard from his grandfather about a time when all stories were printed on paper.

Question 2.
It was a very old book. Margie’s grandfather once said that when he was a little boy his grandfather told him that there was a time when all stories were printed on paper. They turned the pages, which were yellow and crinkly, and it was awfully funny to read words that stood still instead of moving the way they were supposed to-on a screen, you know.

(a) Why were the pages of the book yellow?
Answer:
The pages of the book were yellow because the book was quite old.

(b) What kind of books did Margie and Tommy read?
Answer:
Margie and Tommy read telebooks

(c) What do you think a telebook is?
Answer:
A book that is not printed on paper, but one that can be read on a screen. Words move on the screen for the students to read.

(d) Why did Tommy find the book a “waste”?
Answer:
Unlike their telebooks, the words on the page stayed the same and did not change. He felt when one was through with the book, one would just throw it away.

Question 3.
They turned the pages, which were yellow and crinkly, and it was awfully funny to read words that stood still instead of moving the way they were supposed to-on a screen, you know.

(a) Who are ‘they’ in this extract?
Answer:
‘They’ are Margie and Tommy, the young children who are reading the book.

(b) Which book had yellow and crinkly pages?
Answer:
The book that Tommy found in the attic of his house had yellow and crinkly pages.

(c) What do the yellow and crinkly pages reveal about the book?
Answer:
The yellow and crinkly pages reveal that it was a very old book and had not been lying in the attic for a long time.

(d) What did ‘they’ find funny? Why?
Answer:
The children found the fixed and still words in the book funny because they were used to reading electronic books on the television screen in which the words kept moving.

Question 4.
“I wouldn’t throw it away. ”

(a) Who says these words?
Answer:
Tommy, a thirteen-year-old boy says these words.

(b) What does ‘it’ refer to?
Answer:
‘It’ refers to the television screen of the computer on which Tommy reads books. It has a million books . and space for a lot more.

(c) What is it being compared with, by the speaker?
Answer:
‘It’ is being compared with the paper book that Tommy had found in the attic of his house.

(d) Why would the speaker not throw it away?
Answer:
The speaker, Tommy, wouldn’t throw the television screen on which he read books away because it had a million books on it and it could be used many times.

Question 5.
“What’s it about? ”
“School. ”
Margie was scornful. “School? What’s there to write about school? I hate school. ”

(a) What does ‘it’ refer to?
Answer:
‘It’ refers to the book Tommy found in his attic.

(b) Why was Margie scornful about the book?
Answer:
Margie was scornful about the book as it was about school. She hated her school and felt school would not be an interesting enough topic to read about.

(c) Why did Margie not like school?
Answer:
Margie had never liked her school, but now she hated her mechanical teacher so she disliked school even more.

(d) Why did Margie hate her mechanical teacher?
Answer:
The mechanical teacher had been giving her test after test in geography and she had been doing worse and worse.

Question 6.
He was a round little man with a red face and a whole box of tools with dials and wires. He smiled at Margie and gave her an apple, then took the teacher apart.

(a) Who is ‘he’?
Answer:
He is the County Inspector.

(b) Why had he been called?
Answer:
Margie’s mother, Mrs Jones, had called him because Margie’s mechanical teacher had been giving her test after test in geography and she had been doing worse and worse. She wanted the County Inspector to fix the teacher.

(c) Why did he give Margie an apple?
Answer:
He smiled at Margie and gave her an apple to reassure her.

(d) How did he fix the teacher?
Answer:
The County Inspector found that the teacher’s the geography sector was geared a little too quick. He slowed it up to an average ten-year level.

Question 7.
He said to her mother, “It’s not the little girl’s fault, Mrs Jones. I think the geography sector was geared a little too quick. Those things happen sometimes. ”

(a) Who is ‘he’ and which ‘little girl’ is he talking about?
Answer:
He is the County Inspector. He is talking about Margie.

(b) What, according to him, is not the girl’s fault?
Answer:
According to him, the girl’s continuous poor performances in Geography tests was not her fault.

(c) What was wrong with the geography sector of the mechanical teacher?
Answer:
He finds that the pace of the geography sector has been a bit too fast for the girl’s level.

(d) What does the County Inspector do to correct the fault?
Answer:
The County Inspector took apart the mechanical teacher and slowed it up to an average ten-year level.

Question 8.
“Actually, the overall pattern of her progress is quite satisfactory. ” And he patted Margie’s head again. Margie was disappointed. She had been hoping they would take the teacher away altogether.

(a) Who is the speaker? Whose progress is being talked about?
Answer:
The speaker is the County Inspector. He is talking about Margie’s progress.

(b) Why was Margie disappointed?
Answer:
Margie was disappointed as her teacher was not taken away as she wished for.

(c) Whose teacher had been taken away? Why?
Answer:
Tommy’s teacher had been taken away for nearly a month because the history sector had blanked out completely.

(d) What subjects did Margie and Tommy learn?
Answer:
Margie and Tommy learnt geography, history and arithmetic.

Question 9.
Tommy looked at her with very superior eyes. “Because it’s not our kind of school, stupid. This is the old kind of school that they had hundreds and hundreds of years ago. ” He added loftily.

(a) What does Tommy mean by “our kind of school”?
Answer:
They study in classrooms in their own homes with mechanical teachers.

(b) Why did Tommy call Margie stupid?
Answer:
Tommy called Malgie stupid because she was ignorant about schools of the past.

(c) Whom does ‘they’ here refer to?
Answer:
‘They’ here refers to the students of centuries ago who were mentioned in the book.

(d) How was ‘their’ school different?
Answer:
Their school was a special building that they went to and they learned the same thing if they were the same age. They had a person as a teacher who taught the whole class.

Question 10.
“Sure they had a teacher, butit wasn ’t a regular teacher. It was a man. ”

(a) Who speaks these words and about what?
Answer:
Tommy speaks these words about the schools in the olden times.

(b) Who does ‘they’ refer to in these lines?
Answer:
‘They’ refers to the students from the schools of the olden times.

(c) What does ‘regular’ mean here?
Answer:
Here ‘regular’ means a mechanised teacher like the ones Margie and Tommy had.

(d) What is ‘regular’ contrasted with?
Answer:
‘Regular’ is contrasted with the teachers from the olden days who were real men and not programmed machines.

Question 11.
“A man? How could a man be a teacher? ”
“Well, he just told the boys and girls things and gave them homework and asked them questions. ”

(a) Who feels a man cannot be a teacher? Why?
Answer:
Margie feels a man cannot be a teacher as a man is not smart enough. Moreover, she was used to being taught by a mechanical teacher.

(b) What does ‘he’ refer to here?
Answer:
‘He’ refers to a man, a human teacher of the twentieth century.

c) What job did ‘he’ do?
Answer:
His job was to teach boys and girls and give them work to do at home and ask them questions.

d) Where had the speaker got this information?
Answer:
The speaker, Tommy, had found this information in the old book that he had found in the attic of his house.

Question 12.
Tommy screamed with laughter. “You don’t know much, Margie. The teachers didn ’t live in the house. They had a special building and all the kids went there. ”

(a) Why did Tommy scream with laughter?
Answer:
Tommy screamed with laughter at the ignorance of Margie who thought that in old times the human teacher lived in the house of a student and taught him there.

(b) What did Margie not know? Why?
Answer:
Margie did not know about the functioning of the schools of olden times because she lived in the year 2157 when education had been made fully computerized.

(c) What ‘special building’ does the speaker refer to?
Answer:
By ‘special building’ Tommy means the buildings that housed schools in olden times.

(d) How is the special building a unique place for Margie and Tommy?
Answer:
Margie and Tommy are the students of the year 2157. They are taught at home by mechanical teachers. Their television screen is their school. Therefore, a special building for teaching children is a unique thing for them.

Question 13.
Margie went into the school room. It was right next to her bedroom and the mechanical teacher was on and waiting for her. It was always on at the same time every day except Saturday and Sunday because her mother said little girls learned better if they learned at regular hours.

(a) What was ‘it’? Where was ‘it’?
Answer:
‘It’ in these lines is Margie’s schoolroom. It was next to her bedroom.

(b) Why was ‘it’ next to ‘her’ bedroom?
Answer:
It was next to her bedroom because in the twenty-second century students were taught through a customized education system under where students were taught at home by mechanical teachers.

(c) Why was the mechanical teacher on and waiting for her?
Answer:
The mechanical teacher was on and waiting for her because it was a programmed machine that worked . as per a fixed time-plan and Margie’s mother wanted her to follow a fixed time plan.

(d) Why did Margie not like the mechanical teacher?
Answer:
Margie did not like the mechanical teacher because it was very boring and demanding. She had to sit in front of it regularly at fixed hours.

Question 14.
Margie did so with a sigh. She was thinking about the old schools they had when her grandfather’s grandfather was a little boy. All the kids from the whole neighbourhoods came, laughing and shouting in the schoolyard, sitting together in the school room going home together at the end of the day. They learned the same things, so that they could help one another with the home work and talk about it.

(a) What did Margie do with a sigh?
Answer:
Margie put her homework into the slot of her mechanical teacher with a sigh.

(b) Which school is Margie thinking about in the above lines?
Answer:
Margie was thinking about the old schools of centuries ago as written about in the book Tommy had found.

(c) Where was Margie’s school? Did she have any classmates?
Answer:
Margie’s school was in her home itself. It was right next to her bedroom. No, she did not have any classmates.

(d) How is the school under reference different from the present ones?
Answer:
The present schools were located in the student’s house, where a mechanical teacher taught the student as per the child’s individual capacity. The schools under reference had a separate building where all children of a certain age were taught together by human teachers.

We go beyond the questions to provide you with detailed answers that offer insightful explanations and fascinating facts about population dynamics. Our answers draw from the expertise of demographers and researchers, ensuring accuracy and reliability. Whether you’re studying for exams or seeking a deeper understanding of the world’s population trends, Population Class 9 Extra Questions with Answers are best. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers.

Population Class 9 Extra Questions with Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why are people considered an important part of society?
Answer:
People are considered an important part of society as they develop the economy and the society, make and use resources. People are both producers and consumers of the resources.

Question 2.
‘Population is the pivotal element in social studies’. How?
Answer:
Population is the point of reference from which all other elements are observed and from which they derive meaning and significance.

Question 3.
After how many years is the census held?
Answer:
After 10 years.

Question 4.
What do you mean by size and distribution of population?
Answer:
Population size means number of people at a particular time and place. Population distribution means how are they located in various regions.

Question 5.
Mention the different components of population quality.
Answer:
Age, sex composition, literacy levels, occupational structure and health condition are the different components of population quality.

Question 6.
According to the 2011 census which was the most populous state of India?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh.

Question 7.
Name the biggest Indian state in terms of area.
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 8.
How is the density of population calculated?
Answer:
The density of population is calculated by the number of persons per unit area.

Question 9.
What position does India hold in the world with regard to its population density?
Answer:
India hold the third position after Bangladesh and Japan.

Question 10.
What was the population density of India in the year 2011?
Answer:
382 persons per sq km.

Question 11.
Give two reasons why the population density is low in some areas.
Answer:
Rugged terrain and unfavourable climate are the two reasons.

Question 12.
Which Indian regions have moderate population density?
Answer:
The North eastern and peninsular regions have moderate population density

Question 13.
Give reasons for moderate population density in peninsular states.
Answer:
Shallow and less fertile soil, moderate to low rainfall, hilly, rocky and dissected nature of the terrain are some factors.

Question 14.
Which regions of India have high population density?
Answer:
The Northern Plain have high population density.

Question 15.
Identify the three states of the Northern Plains with high population densities.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal

Question 16.
Mention two reasons responsible for the high density of population in the Northern Plains.
Answer:
Flat plain with fertile soils and abundant rainfall.

Question 17.
What was the annual growth rate of India’s population in 2011?
Answer:
1.64%

Question 18.
What are the process involved in population change?
Or
What are the three processes involved in the change of numbers, distribution and composition of the population?
Answer:
Births, deaths and migrations are the processes involved in population change.

Question 19.
Mention two ways through which population change could be expressed.
Answer:
The two ways to express population change include absolute number and percentage change per year.

Question 20.
Which is the major component of population growth in India? Why?
Answer:
Birth rate is the major component of growth in India because birth rates have always been higher than death rates.

Question 21.
Mention two types of migration.
Answer:
The two types of migration are internal and international migration.

Question 22.
What is international migration?
Answer:
International migration is the movement of people between countries.

Question 23.
Which movement of the people across regions and territories does not change the size of the population? [CBSE 2010]
Answer:
Internal migration.

Question 24.
Which population factor is influenced by internal migration size or distribution? [HOTS]
Answer:
The distribution of population within a country is influenced by internal migration.

Question 25.
What is the sex ratio in India according to 2011 census?
Answer:
943 females per 1000 males

Question 26.
What is the sex ratio of Kerala, Puducherry, Delhi and Haryana as per 2011 census?
Answer:
(a) Kerala – 1084 females per 1000 males.
(b) Puducherry – 1038 females per 1000 males.
(c) Delhi – 866 females per 1000 males.
(d) Haryana – 877 females per 1000 males.

Question 27.
What is the pattern of internal migration in India?
Answer:
From rural to urban area.

Question 28.
What do you understand by the term ‘age composition’?
Answer:
The age composition of a population refers to the number of people in different age groups in a country.

Question 29.
What benefits have to be provided to children below 15 years?
Answer:
Children below 15 years are economically unproductive and need to be provided with food, clothing, education and medical care.

Question 30.
Which age groups are considered ‘non-producers’?
Answer:
The children below 15 years and the aged above 59 years are considered non-producers.

Question 31.
In whose favour has the sex ratio been in the country?
Answer:
The sex ratio in the country has always remained favourable to males and unfavourable to females.

Question 32.
What do you understand by the term ‘literacy’?
Answer:
Literacy relates to quality of being able to read and write in any language.

Question 33.
What is the literacy rate of India as per the 2011 census?
Answer:
73% (80.9% for males and 64.6% for females).

Here is a simple online age difference calculator on how to find age difference between two people.

Question 34.
Why do difference exsist in literary level of males and females in India?
Answer:
Because more preference is given to males as compared to females. Males are considered as earning members, so they are more literate.

Question 35.
Name one social indicator and one economic indicator of population composition. [HOTS]
Answer:
One important social indicator is sex ratio and economic indicator is occupational structure

Question 36.
What is occupational structure?
Answer:
The distribution of the population according to different types of occupations is referred to as the occupational structure.

Question 37.
Mention the classification of occupations.
Answer:
Occupations are classified in primary, secondary and tertiary activities.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 38.
What are the three major issues inculcate through the census?
Answer:
The three major issues inculcated through census are:
(a) Population size and distribution. It explains how many people are there in a specific region and where they are located.
(b) Population growth and processes of population change. It means how the population has grown and changed with the times.
(c) Characteristics or qualities of the population. The age, sex, composition, literacy levels, occupational structure and health conditions can be known.

Question 39.
Define census. What is the importance of the study of population?
Answer:
Census is the counting of population of a country. In India, it takes place after every ten years. In census, various kinds of information is collected about the members of the households. On the basis of this information, the government provides details about birth rate, death rate, sex ratio, literacy and other important features of population. The importance of studying population is mainly in estimating the total manpower available for production and total amount of goods and services required for their consumption.

Question 40.
Describe the distribution of population in India. [CBSE 2015, 2016]
Answer:
(a) The population of India, as on March 2011, stood at 1,210.6 million. These 1.21 billion people
are unevenly distributed over 3.28 million square km.
(b) The population is divided into:
Very densely population – Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh. Very sparsely population—Sikkim Lakshadweep, Rajasthan, Arunachal Pradesh.
Moderately population – States like Assam and Peninsular states.
(c) The dense population is due to fertile, flat land and favourable climate. On the other hand, hilly areas or regions with low rainfall do not allow people to settle there.

Question 41.
What were the causes of uneven population in India? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
The population of India is unevenly distributed in India because of the following reasons:
(a) Relief of the land: Where there are mountains and rugged relief the population is sparse. Flat and fertile land favours the population density.
(b) Climate: Less people live in cold climate, in very hot climate and where it is dry. More people live in areas where the climate is favourable.
(c) In regions where the industrial development is more the population is dense as occupations are more. Moreover, the transport facilities also favour the growth of population.

Question 42.
How does migration play an important role in population growth? Explain the ‘pull’ and ‘push’ factors of migration.
Answer:
Migration leads to steady increase in the percentage of population especially in the cities and town. It not only changes the population size but also the population composition.
The ‘pull’ factor of the city is the movement or migration of people to the cities due to increased employment opportunities, education and better living conditions.
The ‘push’ factor is associated with the migration from rural to urban area due to unfavourable conditions like unemployment and poverty in the villages.

Question 43.
What has been the impact of urbanisation in India? Mention three features.
Answer:
The impact of urbanisation in India:
(a) Rapid urbanisation has led to lack of facilities like housing, sanitation, water, power and education, etc. Slums and other social tensions are created. Crime rate has increased.
(b) It has put heavy pressure on transport. Heavy rush on roads creates transport problems like traffic jams, accidents, etc. High urbanisation has created congestion and pollution.
(c) Rural areas are being neglected.

Question 44.
Why is ‘Age Composition’ considered as one of the most basic characteristics of population? Explain. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
(a) Age composition is considered as the most basic characteristics of population as age influences what a person needs, buys and his capacity to perform.
(b) The number and percentage of a population found within the children, working age and aged groups are an important factor to determine the society’s social and economic structure.
(c) The age structure in India gives more weightage to adults-58.7%, aged 6.9% and children-34.4%.

Question 45.
How are the categories of people according to age composition advantageous to India?
Answer:
The categories of people according to age composition are advantageous to India in the following manner:
Children (generally below 15 years) are economically unproductive and have to be provided with food, clothing, education and medical care as the future of the country depends upon them. Adults (15-59 years) form the working population of the country, the progress and development of the country depends upon them.
Aged (above 59 years) They may have retired but they may work voluntarily.

Question 46.
Explain any three differences between dependent and productive population.
Answer:

Dependent Population	Productive Population
(a) It comprises of population below 15 years and above 60.	(a) It comprises of population between age group of 16-59 years.
(b) They are not actively engaged in productive occupation.	(b) The population is engaged in productive occupation.
(c) They do not contribute to the national income.	(c) They contribute to the national income.
(d) They are supported by productive population. High dependency ratio has socio-economic implications.	(d) The age group is economically independent and supports dependent population of non-workers and children.

Question 47.
Give reasons for low sex ratio in India.
Answer:
India’s sex ratio according to 2011 census is 943 females per thousand males. It is unfavourable due to:
(a) early marriages and social evils like dowry deaths. Female children are neglected.
(b) illiteracy among females is high. They have no knowledge about pre-natal and post-natal care.
(c) low economic and political status of females.

Question 48.
“In India, literacy rate among women is still low.” Justify the statement. [HOTS]
Answer:
(a) In India, women generally look after domestic work and are left with no time to get educated
mostly in the villages. Therefore the literacy rate is low.
(b) Lack of awareness and economic backwardness is another reason for the low literacy rate,
(c) Neglect of the child, especially a girl child, is very common. They are not given proper education, nutrition and medical care.

Question 49.
Who is treated as literate according to the Census of 2001? Why is literacy an important quality of a population?
Answer:
According to the 2011 census, any person aged 7 years and above, who can read and write with understanding in any language, is treated as literate.
Literacy is an important quality of a population as only an informed and educated citizen can make intelligent choices and undertake research and development project. Not much economic development can take place with low literacy levels.

Question 50.
Explain the occupational structure of India.
Answer:
India has the following occupational structure:
(a) Primary-Agriculture: Majority of population in India is engaged in agriculture. This has given rise to disguised unemployment.
(b) Secondary-Industries: A little more than 10% of Indian population is engaged in secondary sector which is for less than countries of Europe. Production activities and not equally developed.
This leads to heavy dependence on primary sectors which itself is not so developed. This
leads to unbalanced economy.
(c) Tertiary: Population engaged in banking, communication and transport is only 29%.

Question 51.
What are the advantages of having a healthy population? In spite of the efforts of the government, the health situation in India is a matter of great concern. Why?
Answer:

• A healthy population only can provide welfare and well-being of a society.
• A healthy population only bear healthy mind to have responsible citizens and to contribute economic development of the country.
• Despite the achievements made a large percentage of the population still suffers from malnutrition.
• Safe drinking water and basic sanitation facilities are available to a very small percentage of the rural population.

Question 52.
Why is too much attention and care required for adolescent population?
Answer:
For the following reasons too much attention and care is required for adolescent population:
Adolescent population constitutes l/5th of the total population of India. Adolescents are generally grouped in the age group of 10-19 years. They are the most important resources of the future. Nutrition requirement of adolescents are higher than those of a normal child or adult.
Poor nutrition can lead to deficiency and stunted growth but in India, the diet available to adolescents is inadequate in all nutrients. A large number of adolescent girls suffer from anemia. Their problems have so far not received adequate attention in the process of development.

Question 53.
Explain how the quality of people is more important than quantity of people. [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
Quality of people refers to the education, knowledge, skills of the people. The people are healthy and lead an active life. They put in more working hours and contribute more to the national income of the country. Quantity of people refers to the total population of the country. Many do not get adequate health facilities, per capita calorie consumption is much below the recommended level Safe drinking water and sanitation may not be available to them. Many may not get education and mostly are manual workers. Therefore a small mentally-developed population with a healthy body is more important than a large population.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 54.
Why is population very important in a country? [HOTS]
Or
Why is population a pivotal element in social studies?
Answer:
(a) The people are important to develop the economy and society.
(b) The people make and use the resources and are themselves resources with varying quality.
(c) It is the point of reference from which all other elements observed and from which they derive significance and meaning. ‘Resources’, ‘calamities’ and ‘disasters’ are all meaningful only in relation to human beings.
(d) Their numbers, distributions, growth and characteristics or qualities provide the basic background for understanding and appreciating all aspect’s of the environment.
(e) Human beings are producers and consumers of earth’s resources. Therefore, it is very important to know how many people are there in a country, where do they live, how and why are their numbers increasing and what are their characteristics.

Question 55.
Define the following terms:
Answer:
(a) Population. The total number of people living in a country at a given point of time.
(b) Census. Process of collection, compilation and publication of information relating to different aspects of people living in a country at a specific point of time.
(c) Million plus cities/Mega Cities. Cities with a population of one million and above. There are 53 million plus cities in India, e.g. Delhi, Chennai, Mumbai, Bengaluru.
(d) Urban Agglomeration. Around the core of each town or city, cluster of urban settlements have developed which are linked to the economy of the country .They are known as urban agglomeration. They are extension of cities but are not covered by defined municipal limits.
(e) Sex Ratio. Number of females per thousand males in the population.

Question 56.
What is meant by annual growth rate of population? Why is even low annual growth rate of population considered not good for India? [HOTS]
Answer:
It is the percentage increase in the growth of population per year. The rate or pace of population increase is studied in per cent per year. Rate of increase of 2% per annum means that in a given year, there was an increase of two persons for every 100 persons in the base population. This is referred as annual growth rate. India’s population has been steadily increasing from 361 million in 1951 to 1210 million in 2011.
It is essential to realise that India has a very large population. When a low annual rate is applied to a large population, it becomes a very high absolute number. When more than a billion people increase even at a lower rate, the total numbers being added becomes very large.

Question 57.
Describe the classification of occupational structure. How does occupational structure indicate economic development of a country?
Answer:
It is generally classified into primary, secondary and tertiary activities.

• Primary activities include agriculture, animal husbandry, forestry, fishing, mining, quarrying etc.
• Secondary activities include manufacturing industry, building and construction work etc.
• Tertiary activities include transport, communications, commerce, administration and other services.
• Developed nations have a high proportion of people in secondary and tertiary activities because it is more productive and profitable.
• Developing countries tend to have a higher proportion of their workforce engaged in primary activities because these are not as productive and profitable as the other sectors.
• In India, about 64% of the population is engaged only in agriculture. The proportion of population dependent on
• secondary and tertiary sectors is about 13 to 20% respectively.

Question 58.
What are the factors affecting health status of people of India? What are the improvements made in the health status of people of India?
Answer:
The factors affecting health status of people of India are as follows.
(a) The per capita calorie consumption is much below the recommended levels in India and malnutrition affects a large percentage of population.
(b) Safe drinking water and basic sanitation amenities are available to only l/3rd of the rural population.
The improvements made in the health status of people of India are.
(a) Death rates have declined from 25 per 1000 population in 1951 to 7.2 per 1000 in 2011.
(b) Life expectancy at birth has increased from 36.7 years in 1951 to 67.9 years in 2012.
(c) The substantial improvement is the result of many factors including improvement in public health, prevention of infectious diseases and application of modern medical practices in diagnosis and treatment of ailments.

Question 59.
What are the significant features of NPP 2000? What are the measures taken by the NPP 2000 to protect adolescent population?
Answer:
The NPP 2000 provides a policy framework for imparting free and compulsory education for school upto 14 years of age, reducing infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live births, achieving universal immunisation of children against all vaccine preventable diseases, promoting delayed marriage for girls, and making family welfare a people-centered programme.

• Besides nutritional requirements, the policy puts greater emphasis on other important needs of
  adolescence including protection from unwanted pregnancies and sexually transmitted diseases (STD).
• It called for programmes that aim towards encouraging delayed marriage and child bearing,
  education of adolescence about the risks of unprotected sex, making contraceptive services accessible and affordable, providing food supplements, nutritional services, strengthening legal measures to prevent child marriage.

MAP SKILLS

Question 60.
Locate and label the following in an outline map of India.
(a) The state having highest and lowest density of population.
(b) The state having highest and lowest sex ratio.
(c) Largest and smallest state according to area.
Answer:
(a) The state having highest density of population – Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal (any one)
The state having lowest density of population – Arunachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Sikkim (any one)

(b) The state having highest sex ratio – Kerala
The state having lowest sex ratio – Haryana
(c) Largest state according to area – Rajasthan
Smallest state according to area – Goa

In this article, we present a collection of delve into the depths of “The Sound of Music Class 9 Extra Questions with Answers.” From character analysis and musical themes to the historical context and production insights, these thoughtfully crafted questions will add a new dimension to your appreciation of this iconic masterpiece. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 9 English with Answers.

The Sound of Music Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What were Evelyn’s feelings as she stood on the platform waiting for the London underground?
Answer:
As she stood on the platform Evelyn felt both nervous and excited because she was waiting for a train in London to take her to her dream destination – to join the prestigious Royal Academy for Music. She was apprehensive as she was a young, seventeen-year-old from Scotland going to join such a prestigious music institute. Moreover, she was profoundly deaf and despite her disability, she had made it to the Music Academy.

Question 2.
How old was Evelyn when she went to the Royal Academy of Music? Why was she nervous on her way to the academy?
Answer:
Evelyn was only seventeen years of age when she was selected to the Royal Academy of Music, London. She had come straight from a farmland in Scotland, she had not experienced much of the world. In addition, she was profoundly deaf and was going to a big institute like The Royal Academy of Music. Her nervousness was the result of her young age, her lack of exposure and her hearing disability.

Question 3.
Why was Evelyn “nervous yet excited” as she waited for the train?
Answer:
While leaving for the Royal Academy of Music, Evelyn was excited despite her nervousness as going to the Royal Academy of Music, London was a dream come true for her. She was going to join a three-year course in an institute she had dreamed of joining. It excited her to think that despite her hearing impairment she had made her way to such a prestigious institute.

Question 4.
Why was Evelyn Glennie going to face a bigger challenge at the prestigious Royal Academy of Music in London?
Answer:
Evelyn Glennie was passionate about music, and would not let anything stand in her way, but studying music at the prestigious Royal Academy of Music in London was a challenge for her for two reasons: in the first place she was deaf and in the second, she was brought up on a Scottish farm. It was a challenge for a deaf village girl to compete with other singers who had perfect hearing.

Question 5.
When and how was Evelyn’s hearing problem noticed?
Answer:
Evelyn was only eight-year-old when her hearing problem was noticed by her mother when she was eight years old and she did not respond to a call for a performance on piano. However, her loss of hearing was gradual and her deafness was confirmed at the age of eleven when her poor academic performance forced her parents to consult a specialist.

Question 6.
Who advised Evelyn’s parents to take her to a specialist? Why?
Answer:
Evelyn managed to hide her growing deafness from students and teachers for some time. However, by the time she was eleven years old, her performance in school deteriorated and her marks began to fall. It was then that the headmistress advised her parents to consul a specialist.

Question 7.
When was Evelyn’s deafness confirmed? What advice was given to her?
Answer:
Evelyn’s deafness was gradual. By the time she was eleven, her marks had deteriorated. Her teachers advised her parents to take her to a specialist. The specialist discovered that her hearing was badly impaired because of gradual nerve damage. He advised her parents that she should be fitted with hearing aids and sent to a school for the deaf.

Question 8.
“Everything suddenly looked black”. Why did Evelyn feel this way?
Answer:
When Evelyn was advised to use hearing aids and join a school for the deaf, she felt that her future was bleak and dark. She was depressed, as she felt she would not be able to lead a normal life nor pursue her interest in music.

Question 9.
How did Evelyn Glennie respond to the discovery of her deafness?
Answer:
On learning about her deafness due to gradual nerve damage, Evelyn Glennie, felt at first that her future was dark and bleak. However, instead of giving up, she decided to lead a normal life like other children and pursue her dream of learning music.

Question 10.
How did Evelyn’s teachers respond when she expressed her desire to play a xylophone?
Answer:
Evelyn had always loved music and despite her deafness, she expressed a desire to play the xylophone when she saw another girl playing it. However her teachers felt that she would not be able to play it because of her impaired hearing and they discouraged her from doing so.

Question 11.
Most of the teachers discouraged her but percussionist Ron Forbes spotted her potential. How did he respond to it?
Answer:
When her teachers discouraged her from pursuing a career in music, Ron Forbes, the percussionist, encouraged and helped Evelyn to continue with music. He noticed her potential and decided to help her develop it. He told Evelyn to train different parts of her body to sense musical notes. He tuned two drums with different notes to make her sense the higher ones from the upper part of her body and the lower ones from her waist down.

Question 12.
“I had learnt to open my mind and body to sounds and vibrations,” says Evelyn. How did she do this?
Answer:
Guided by Ron Forbes, Evelyn leamt to listen through different parts of her body other than her ears. Her mind and body became sensitized to notice and differentiate various sounds and vibrations of music. Her body compensated for the loss of hearing with her awakened and sharpened senses in other parts of her body.

Question 13.
What kind of recognition did Evelyn get at the Royal Academy of Music?
Answer:
When Evelyn was seventeen, she joined the Royal Academy of Music. She scored the highest marks in the history of the academy. She was one of the most brilliant students of the academy and won many top awards during her three-year course.

Question 14.
Why did Evelyn say, “Men with bushy beards give me trouble”?
Answer:
Evelyn could understand what others were saying by reading the movement of lips and by watching faces and eyes. It was difficult for her to read the movement of lips of the men with bushy beards in order to grasp what they were saying. She jokingly remarked that men with bushy beards gave her trouble.

Question 15.
Which qualities of character enabled Evelyn to achieve unprecedented success in life?
Answer:
Unfaltering determination and hard work enabled Evelyn to move ahead in life. Instead of yielding to her handicap, she decided to overcome it and lead the life of a normal person. She was devoted to music and her sincere efforts helped her achieve unprecedented success.

Question 16.
She never looked back from that point onwards. Explain.
Answer:
Evelyn learnt to feel the vibrations and sensations in every part of her body, she leant to open her body and mind to the sounds and vibrations. These tingled in her skin, her cheekbones and even in hair. After that, she never looked back, because from that time on she was very successful in her chosen career.

Question 17.
How did Evelyn get admission in the Royal Academy of Music, London?
Answer:
Evelyn gave audition for admission to Royal Academy of Music, London. Her score in the audition was one of the highest in the history of the academy. Therefore, she got selected for a three-year course.

Question 18.
Evelyn continued to work hard at the Royal Academy of Music. Do you agree?
Answer:
At the Royal Academy of Music, London, Evelyn began as one of the performers in orchestra. But gradually she moved on to give solo performances. At the end of her three-year course, she had bagged the biggest awards in the Academy. This shows Evelyn did not rest on her laurels but continued to work hard.

Question 19.
What did James Blades say about Evelyn’s music?
Answer:
James Blades remarked that God may have taken away her sense of hearing but He has given her something extraordinary. What we hear, she feels, far more deeply than any of us. She is a talented musician who expresses music so beautifully.

Question 20.
How is Evelyn a source of inspiration to people who are in any way disabled?
Answer:
Evelyn’s achievements, gained through determination and hard work, are an example for other handicapped people. They gain confidence from her example and believe that they too can achieve them goals in life by overcoming their challenges and disabilities with firm determination.

Question 21.
How does Evelyn regard her own success?
Answer:
Evelyn is extremely modest and does not consider her achievements to be heroic deeds. She feels that if one is focussed on the goal and puts in hard work, one is sure to succeed. She says, “If you work hard and know where you are going, you’ll get there.”

Question 22.
Name the various places and causes for which Evelyn performs.
Answer:
Evelyn performs in concerts internationally. In addition, she also gives concerts free of charge in prisons and hospitals. In addition, she holds classes for young musicians.

Question 23.
What is Evelyn’s contribution to percussion?
Answer:
Evelyn has contributed to percussion by securing for it a front place in orchestra. She has shown how the music of the percussion instruments is deeply moving and touches the hearts and emotions of people.

Question 24.
What are Evelyn’s main achievements?
Answer:
Evelyn has brought percussion to the front of the orchestra. She has given inspiration to those who are handicapped. Besides this, she has brought great pleasure to millions.

The Sound of Music Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Evelyn did not succumb to her disability. Comment.
Answer:
Evelyn Glennie was always interested in music. In fact, her mother realised she was having problems with her hearing when at the age of eight years Evelyn was to give a piano recital and she didn’t hear her name being called. By the age of twelve, Evelyn had lost her hearing. However, she did not let this stand in the way of her pursuing her passion music.

Though she was advised to wear a hearing aid and to attend a special school for the deaf, Evelyn did not give up. Despite facing discouragement from her teachers, she wanted to lead a normal life and play xylophone. However, Ron Forbes, a great percussionist, trained her to listen to the musical sounds and vibrations not through ears, but through other parts of her body.

He created two drums with different sounds to make her hear the higher beats from the upper part of her body and the lower beats from below her waist. The experiment was so effective that Evelyn opened her mind and body to the fine sounds of music. Evelyn now believes that music penetrates into her through every part – through her skin, cheekbones and even her hair.

When she plays xylophone, she feels that the sounds move from the stick into the tips of her fingers. When the drums are played, she can feel the resonant sounds pouring into her body. She takes off her foot wears on a wooden stage and the vibrations of the instruments pass from her bare feet into her legs. Thus, Evelyn has sensitized the different parts of her body to the different sounds of music.

Question 2.
“If you work hard and know where you are going, you’ll get there,” remarks Evelyn Glennie. What does it reveal about her character?
Answer:
Evelyn’s firm determination, her hard work and her focus on her goal are well revealed in her statement. These values of her character have enabled her to successfully overcome her handicap of deafness. Though she developed hearing impairment at the young age of eight, and became profoundly deaf by the age of twelve, she has never let it become a stumbling block in her way to success.

Firmly determined to pursue music and to lead a normal life, Evelyn did not let her disability stand in her way. The encouragement and training provided by percussionist Ron Forbes paved the way for her advancement and she stuck to the path with unshakeable self-confidence. It was this confidence and faith in herself that made her dare to audition for the Royal Academy of Music, London where she received the top most awards.

Evelyn is very hard working. She has worked hard, in fact much harder than the other classical musicians to bring percussion to the front stage in orchestra. She believes that no goal is unachievable for those who work hard and are focussed on the goal. With her earnest efforts, she moved from orchestra to solo performances and eventually became an internationally renowned percussionist owing to her command over a large number of instruments. Her courage and confidence to rise above her disability has made her a soprce of inspiration for all.

Question 3.
Evelyn is very down-to-earth and does not succumb to hero worship. Comment.
Answer:
Evelyn Glennie did not let her loss of hearing get her down. She was determined to make a career in music, and with the help of percussionist Ron Forbes, she trained herself to feel music through every part of her body. She never looked back from that point onwards. She toured the United Kingdom with a youth orchestra and by the time she was sixteen, she had decided to make music her life. She auditioned for the Royal Academy of Music and scored one of the highest marks in the history of the academy.

She gradually moved from orchestral work to solo performances. At the end of her three-year course, she had captured most of the top awards. And for all this, Evelyn doesn’t accept any hint of heroic achievement. “If you work hard and know where you are going, you’ll get there.” And she got right to the top, the world’s most sought-after multi-percussionist with a mastery of some thousand instruments, and hectic international schedule.

Question 4.
Evelyn is an inspiration to all. Justify.
Answer:
Despite her disability, Evelyn rose to great heights as a musician. When talking of music, she explains, “It pours in through every part of my body. It tingles in the skin, my cheekbones and even in my hair.” When she plays the xylophone, she can sense the sound passing up the stick into her fingertips. By leaning against the drums, she can feel the resonances flowing into her body. On a wooden platform, she removes her shoes so that the vibrations pass through her bare feet and up her legs.

Not surprisingly, Evelyn delights her audiences. In 1991 she was presented with the Royal Philharmonic Society’s prestigious Soloist of the Year Award. Says master percussionist James Blades, “God may have taken her hearing but he has given her back something extraordinary. What we hear, she feels — far more deeply than any of us. That is why she expresses music so beautifully.”

Evelyn confesses that she is something of a workaholic. “I’ve just got to work … often harder than classical musicians. But the rewards are enormous.” Apart from the regular concerts, Evelyn also gives free concerts in prisons and hospitals. She also gives high priority to classes for young musicians. Ann Richlin of the Beethoven Fund for Deaf Children says, “She is a shining inspiration for deaf children. They see that there is nowhere that they cannot go.”

Evelyn Glennie has already accomplished more than most people twice her age. She has brought percussion to the front of the orchestra, and demonstrated that it can be very moving. She has given inspiration to those who are handicapped, people who look to her and say, ‘If she can do it, I can.’ And, not the least, she has given enormous pleasure to millions.

The Sound of Music Extra Questions and Answers Reference to Context

Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow.

Question 1.
It was her first day at the prestigious Royal Academy of Music in London and daunting enough for any teenager fresh from a Scottish farm. But this aspiring musician faced a bigger challenge than most.

(a) Who is referred to as the ‘aspiring musician’?
Answer:
Evelyn Glennie is referred to as the aspiring musician.

(b) How old was this ‘aspiring musician’ when she went to the Royal Academy of Music?
Answer:
She was seventeen years old when she went to the Royal Academy of Music in London.

(c) What was likely to ‘daunt any teenager’?
Answer:
The first day in a great and renowned institute like The Royal Academy of Music, London was likely to daunt any teenager.

(d) Why did she “a bigger challenge than most”?
Answer:
She faced a ‘bigger challenge’ than most as she was profoundly deaf and was yet joining a music academy.

Question 2.
Evelyn Glennie’s loss of hearing had been gradual. Her mother remembers noticing something was wrong when the eight-year-old Evelyn was waiting to play the piano.
“They called her name and she didn ’t move. I suddenly realised she hadn ’t heard, ” says Isabel Glennie.

(a) Who is Isabel Glennie?
Answer:
Isabel Glennie is Evelyn Glennie’s mother.

(b) Why did Evelyn Glennie not move to play the piano?
Answer:
Evelyn did not move because she had not heard her name being called.

(c) When was her deafness first noticed?
Answer:
Evelyn’s deafness was first noticed when she was eight years old.

(d) How did Evelyn lose her hearing?
Answer:
Evelyn’s hearing impairment happened as a result of gradual nerve damage.

Question 3.
They were advised that she should be fitted with hearing aids and sent to a school for the deaf.

(a) Who are ‘they’? By whom were they advised?
Answer:
‘They’ are the parents of Evelyn Glennie. They were advised by the specialist to whom Evelyn’s parents had taken her for a check-up.

(b) Who is ‘she’?
Answer:
‘She’ is Evelyn Glennie.

(c) What was the course of action recommended for her?
Answer:
It was recommended that she should be provided with hearing aids in order to be able to hear and that she be sent to a school for the deaf.

(d) How had her mother realised that Evelyn was having problems with her hearing?
Answer:
Evelyn’s mother realised she was having problems with her hearing when Evelyn did not go for her piano recital when her name was called.

Question 4.
But Evelyn was not going to give up. She was determined to lead a normal life and pursue her interest in music. One day, she noticed a girl playing a xylophone and decided that she wanted to play it too. Most of the teachers discouraged her but percussionist Ron Forbes spotted her potential.

(a) Evelyn was not going to give up. Why was she not going to give up?
Answer:
She was not going to give up because of her interest in music. Music was her passion.

b) What did she want to do?
Answer:
She wanted to learn to play the xylophone.

(c) Why did her teachers not encourage her?
Answer:
They did not encourage her because they felt it was impossible for a deaf girl to pursue her career in music.

(d) Who encouraged her? What did he say?
Answer:
Ron Forbes, who saw her potential and capabilities, encouraged her. He suggested she ‘hear’ with the whole of her body.

Question 5.
She never looked back from that point onwards. She toured the United Kingdom with a youth orchestra and by the time she was sixteen, she had decided to make music her life.

(a) Who is ‘she’?
Answer:
She refers to Evelyn Glennie.

(b) What does ‘that point’ refer to?
Answer:
‘That point’ refers to the time when Evelyn learnt to listen to music by feeling the vibrations through her body.

(c) Where did she go with a youth orchestra?
Answer:
She toured United Kingdom with a youth orchestra.

(d) What was her age when she decided to make music her life?
Answer:
She was just sixteen when she decided to make music her life.

Question 6.
She gradually moved from orchestral work to solo performances. At the end of her three-year course, she had captured most of the top awards.

(a) How did Evelyn advance in her career?
Answer:
Initially Evelyn performed in a group of orchestra. Gradually, she started giving solo performances.

(b) Where did she pursue her three-year course?
Answer:
She pursued her three-year course in the most prestigious institute of music in England, The Royal Academy for Music, London.

(c) What were her achievements at the end of her course?
Answer:
At the end of her course, she had bagged the biggest awards in her field.

(d) What made her achievements so great?
Answer:
The fact that she had won the awards despite her hearing disability made her achievements so great.

Question 7.
And for all this, Evelyn won’t accept any hint of heroic achievement. “If you work hard and know where you are going, you ’ll get there. ”

(a) What does ‘all this’ refer to?
Answer:
“All this” refers to the fact that by the end of her three-year course at the Royal Academy she had captured most of the top awards

(b) Why is it a heroic achievement?
Answer:
It is a heroic achievement as she has achieved success in music despite being profoundly deaf.

(c) To what does Evelyn give credit for her achievement?
Answer:
Evelyn gives credit for her achievements to her focus on her aims and her hard work.

(d) What quality of Evelyn’s character is reflected in this?
Answer:
This shows Evelyn is a humble and down-to-earth person.

Question 8.
In our two-hour discussion she never missed a word. “Men with bushy beards give me trouble, ” she laughed. “It is not just watching the lips, it’s the whole face, especially the eyes. ”

(a) Who is ‘she’? Why is it strange that she never missed a word?
Answer:
She refers to Evelyn Glennie. She is profoundly deaf yet she heard each word.

(b) How does she hear the words?
Answer:
She hears the words by reading lips and by studying the whole face and eyes of the speaker.

(c) Why do men with bushy beards give her trouble?
Answer:
She is unable to read their lips and their face.

(d) Which are the languages that she speaks?
Answer:
She has managed to leam French and master basic Japanese.

Question 9.
As for music, she explains, “It pours in through every part of my body. It tingles in the skin, my cheekbones and even in my hair. ’’ When she plays the xylophone, she can sense the sound passing up the stick into her fingertips. By leaning against the drums, she can feel the resonances flowing into her body.

(a) Who is the speaker in the first line?
Answer:
In the first line, the speaker is Evelyn Glennie, the famous multi-percussionist.

(b) What is it that pours in through every part of her body?
Answer:
Music and its vibrations pour in through every part of her body.

(c) How was she able to hear sounds and vibrations?
Answer:
She was able to hear sounds and vibrations by sensing them through her body and her mind. Being deaf, she could not hear with her ears so she had trained and sensitized her body and mind.

(d) How did Ron Forbes help her to continue with music?
Answer:
Percussionist Ron Forbes tuned two large drums to different notes. He asked her not to listen to them through her ears but to try and sense the sound in some other manner.

Question 10.
“I’ve just got to work… Often harder than classical musicians. But the rewards are enormous. ’’Apart from the regular concerts, Evelyn also gives free concerts in prisons and hospitals. She also gives high priority to classes for young musicians. Ann Richlin of the Beethoven Fund for Deaf Children says, “She is a shining inspiration for deaf children. They see that there is nowhere that they cannot go. ”

(a) Evelyn works harder than classical musicians. What does it imply?
Answer:
Classical music needs a lot of practice. However, Evelyn works even harder than the others.

(b) For whom does Evelyn perform for free?
Answer:
Evelyn gives free concerts in prisons and hospitals.

(c) “ … there is nowhere that they cannot go.” Who are they here?
Answer:
They are deaf children.

(d) What quality of Evelyn’s character is shown by her actions?
Answer:
Evelyn is committed to music. She is also compassionate and generous towards those in need.

The Shehnai of Bismillah Khan

The Sound of Music Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Why did Aurangzeb ban the playing of the pungi?
Answer:
Aurangzeb banned the playing of musical instrument pungi because it had a loud, shrill, and unpleasant sound. He prohibited its play in the royal court.

Question 2.
Why did the pungi become a generic name for “reeded noisemakers”?
Answer:
The pungi was made from a reed and it produced noisy, unpleasant sounds. It became a generic name for “reeded noisemakers”.

Question 3.
How is a shehnai different from a pungi?
Answer:
Shehnai has a better tonal quality than pungi. It is a natural hollow stem pipe with holes on its body and is longer and broader than the pungi. When some of the holes are closed and opened while it is played on, soft and melodious sounds are produced instead of the loud, jarring sound of a pungi. Thus, shehnai is, in a way, an improvement upon the pungi.

Question 4.
How was the pungi revived?
Answer:
After Aurangzeb had banned the playing of the pungi in the royal residence, a barber who belonged to a family of professional musicians revived it by taking a wider and longer hollow stem and making seven holes in it. The opening and closing of these holes in the improved pungi produced soft and sweet sounds.

Question 5.
How did the improved and modified pungi get its new name?
Answer:
It is believed that the barber (nai) who improved the pungi, played his improved and modified instrument in the chamber of the emperor {shah). From the combination of the two words shah and nai, the new instrument got is new name shehnai.

Question 6.
Where was the shehnai played traditionally? Why?
Answer:
The music of the shehnai was melodious and soft. It was made a part of the naubat or or traditional ensemble of nine instruments found at royal courts. Soon, it came to be believed that it was auspicious. Therefore, it came to be played in the holy temples and on the happy auspicious occasions of weddings.

Question 7.
Although the shehnai was played in temples and at weddings. How did Bismillah Khan change this?
Answer:
The shehnai was traditionally played in royal courts, temples and weddings. Ustaad Bismillah Khan, an undisputed shehnai maestro, brought the instrument onto the classical stage by adding new raagas and modifying old ones.

Question 8.
Where and how did Bismillah Khan begin his career in music?
Answer:
Bismillah Khan began his career in music at the age of five by singing the Bhojpuri Chaita in the Bihariji temple regularly in his native town Dumraon in Bihar. At the end of the song the local Maharaja would give him a big laddu weighing 1.25 kg as a prize.

Question 9.
How did Bismillah Khan inherit music from his paternal and maternal ancestors?
Answer:
Bismillah Khan hailed from a family of musicians in Bihar. His paternal grandfather Rasool Bux Khan was a shehnai player in the royal court of the king of Bhojpur. His father Paigambar Bux and many paternal and maternal uncles were also shehnai vaadaks. In fact, Bismillah Khan was apprenticed with his maternal uncle Ali Bux to learn how to play the shehnai.

Question 10.
Write a short note on Ali Bux.
Answer:
Ali Bux was the maternal uncle of Bismillah Khan. He was a great shehnai player and was employed to play the shehnai in the Vishnu temple of Benaras. In fact, at a very young age Bismillah was apprenticed to his uncle. Bismillah Khan started accompanying him and got lessons in playing the shehnai from him. The young boy would sit for hours listening to his uncle and later practise throughout the day. As such he and may be regarded as his mentor and trainer.

Question 11.
What significance did the Ganga have in Bismillah Khan’s life?
Answer:
The young Bismillah Khan often sat on the banks of the Ganga to practice his music there in solitude. The flowing waters of Ganga inspired him to improvise and invent raagas which were earlier considered beyond the range of the shehnai. In fact, when much later, his student invited him to head a shehnai school in the USA, Khansaab asked him if he would be able to transport River Ganga as well, implying thereby that he could not live without the Ganga.

Question 12.
When and how did Bismillah Khan get his big break?
Answer:
Bismillah Khan got his big break in 1938. All India Radio opened in Lucknow and Bismillah Khan played shehnai on radio. He soon became an often-heard player on radio. He became the first Indian to greet the nation with his shehnai from the Red Fort on 15 August, 1947.

Question 13.
Where did Bismillah Khan play the shehnai on 15 August 1947? Why was the event historic?
Answer:
On 15 August 1947, Bismillah Khan played the Raag Kaafi on his shehnai from the Red Fort prior to the speech of Pandit Nehru. The event was historical because it was on the occasion of the declaration of India’s Independence from British Rule. On that day, Bismillah Khan was the first Indian to greet the nation and he poured his heart out while playing the melodious raaga on his shehnai.

Question 14.
What honours and awards were bestowed upon Ustad Bismillah Khan in foreign countries?
Answer:
His first trip abroad was to Afghanistan where King Zahir Shah, taken in by the maestro, gifted him priceless Persian carpets and other souvenirs. In fact, an auditorium in Teheran was named after him —Tahar Mosiquee Ustaad Bismillah Khan. The King of Afghanistan was also fascinated with Bismillah’s music. He was the first Indian to be invited to perform at the prestigious Lincoln Centre Hall in the United States of America. He also took part in the World Exposition in Montreal, in the Cannes Art Festival and in the Osaka Trade Fair.

Question 15.
How did the film director Vijay Bhatt honour Bismillah Khan?
Answer:
The film director, Vijay Bhatt, once heard the shehnai recital of Bismillah Khan in a festival. He was so fascinated by the performance that he decided to name his next film after the instrument and called it Gunj Uthi Shehnai. The film also had a song that was composed by Bismillah Khan.

Question 16.
Why did Bismillah Khan leave the glamour of the film world and return to Benaras? What does this tell you about him?
Answer:
Bismillah Khan returned to Benares after providing music for two films – Vijay Bhatt’s Gunj Uthi Shehnai and Vikram Srinivas’s Kannada venture, Sanadhi Apanna. This was because he disliked the artificiality and glamour of the film world. He said, “I just can’t come to terms with the artificiality and glamour of the film world.” This incident indicates that truthfulness and simplicity of Bismillah Khan’s character.

Question 17.
How did India honour and reward the great musician, Bismillah Khan?
Answer:
India honoured Bismillah Khan by conferring on him the greatest national awards – the Padmashri, the Padma Bhushan, and the Padma Vibhushan. He was also awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2001, the highest civilian award in India.

Question 18.
What advice did Bismillah Khan give Indian youth?
Answer:
Bismillah Khan had a great regard for Indian music and the rich heritage of Hindustani music. He wanted that children must not cut off their bond from this grand tradition which was fascinating even for the people of the west. He advised Indians to teach their children music, as it was Hindustan’s richest tradition.

Question 19.
What offer did Bismillah Khan’s student make to him? What was his reply?
Answer:
Bismillah Khan’s student, who himself was settled in the USA, wanted that the great maestro to head a shehnai school in the UAS. He promised that he would create the ambience of Benaras by erecting the temples like those in India. Bismillah Khan refused the proposition because he would not live away from Hindustan, specifically, from Benaras, the River Ganga and Dumraon.

Question 20.
How does Bismillah Khan embody India’s rich cultural and secular tradition?
Answer:
Indian culture has always displayed a liberal attitude to all communities and religions. The society and its cultural heritage is a blend of various religious and ethnic groups. Bismillah Khan’s life perfectly represents this blend. Although he was a devout muslim, he began his singing career by singing Chiaf in Bihariji temple and practicing shehnai in Vishnu temple and Mangala Maiya temple of Varanasi. He practised the shehnai on the banks of the Ganga and played it in the Kashi Vishwanath temple every morning.

Question 21.
Find at least two instances in the text which tell you that Bismillah Khan loves India and Benaras.
Answer:
The first instance is when he turned down his student’s offer to start a shehnai school in USA. The second instance is when Khansaab was asked by Shekhar Gupta about moving to Pakistan during the partition, he said that he would never leave Benaras.

The Sound of Music Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Why did Emperor Aurangzeb ban the playing of the pungi and how was it improved?
Answer:
Emperor Aurangzeb banned the playing of the pungi in the royal residence because it had a shrill and unpleasant sound. But a barber belonging to a professional family of musicians was able to improve it. He chose a reed pipe with a natural hollow stem that was longer and broader than the one used for the pungi. He made seven holes on the body of the pipe. He played the instrument in the royal chambers of Emperor Aurangzeb.

Everyone was impressed by the new instrument and the shehnai was made a part of the naubat or traditional ensemble of nine instruments found at royal courts. Its sweet and melodious notes caused it to be played only in temples and weddings and other auspicious occasions. Since it was first played in the Shah’s chambers and was played by a nai (barber), the instrument was named the shehnai.

Question 2.
How was Bismillah Khan associated with the film world?
Answer:
Film director Vijay Bhatt heard Bismillah Khan at a festival. He was so impressed by Bismillah Khan that he named a film after the shehnai – Gunj Uthi Shehnai. The film was a huge hit and one of Bismillah Khan’s compositions Dil ka khilona hai toot gaya turned out to be very popular. In spite of his great success in the film world, Bismillah Khan’s experience in the film world was limited to two films – Vijay Bhatt’s ‘Gunj Uthi Shehnai’ and Vikram Srinivas’s ‘Sanadhi Apanna’. Bismillah Khan, however, made it clear that he could not come to terms with the artificiality and glamour of the film world and returned to Benaras.

Question 3.
Write a note on the life and achievements of Bismillah Khan as a ‘shehnai vaadak’. What values of life do you derive from his story?
Answer:
Bismillah Khan’s journey as a shehnai maestro embodies the moral values of dedication, simplicity and patriotism. It started at the young age of three and continued up to the age of ninety. The journey ranged from playing the instrument in the temples to getting international fame.

Hailing from a family of musicians, Bismillah Khan inherited an interest in the shehnai. At a young age of three, he started accompanying his maternal Uncle Ali Bux to the Vishnu temple in Benaras and learnt a lot from him. He would sing scriptures like the Bhojpuri ‘chaita Bismillah Khan got an important break when he started playing for the All India Radio, Lucknow in 1938.

His music was so admired that he was invited to play at the historic moment of Indian independence on 15 August, 1947. In recognition of his talent, he was conferred upon with the greatest awards of India – the Padmashri, the Padma Bhushan, and the Padma Vibhushan. He was awarded the Bharat Ratna, the highest civilian award in India, in 2001. Bismillah Khan ventured into the film world but abandoned it after he found it to be too artificial and glamorous. On the international level, he mesmerized the King of Afghanistan with his shehnai music.

He was the only Indian to be invited to play shehnai in the Lincoln Central Hall, USA. He also played in international events like the World Exposition, Montreal, the Cannes Art Festival and the Osaka Trade Fair. As a token of appreciation, the Teheran government has named an auditorium after Bismillah Khan. Bismillah Khan had a deep devotion to his motherland and was proud of its heritage of music. Hence, he declined the offer to settle down in foreign countries. The journey of his life teaches the values of dedication to one’s talent and persistent efforts to reach the greatest heights of excellence.

Question 4.
What important lesson does the life of Evelyn Glennie and Bismillah Khan teach us?
Answer:
Evelyn Glennie and Bismillah Khan, the two eminent music maestros, through their achievements, have proved to the world that the values of determination, hard work and unwavering efforts are always rewarded. Evelyn Glennie became an internationally admired multi-percussionist only because of her untiring work which helped her rise above her handicap.

Instead of yielding to her deafness, she worked hard to sensitise her body to sense the vibrations and sounds of music through different parts of her body and never looked back. With her persistent efforts, she made it to the Royal Academy of Music, London and bagged the most prestigious awards. Her sincere devotion to her art has given percussion a new place on the international stage.

Bismillah Khan, like Evelyn, was dedicated to his art and attained greatest heights as a shehnai player. He, too worked diligently and transformed the shehnai into a classical instrument. He added enormously to what he had inherited by widening the range of the shehnai. He invented many new raagas.

Starting with playing in the temples of Benaras and on the banks of Ganga, he achieved international acclaim. His hard work enabled him to win the most prestigious awards in India and in the world. Thus, the lives of both Evelyn Glennie and Bismillah Khan are perfect examples of how dedicated efforts and persistent hard work lead to grand achievements.

The Sound of Music Extra Questions and Answers Reference to Context

Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow.

Question 1.
Emperor Aurangzeb banned the playing of a musical instrument called pungi in the royal residence for it had a shrill unpleasant sound. Pungi became the generic name for dreaded noisemakers. Few had thought that it would one day be revived. A barber of a family of professional musicians, who had access to the royal palace, decided to improve the tonal quality of the pungi.

(a) Why did the Emperor Aurangzeb ban the pungi?
Answer:
He banned the pungi because it had a shrill and unpleasant sound

(b) How was the pungi revived?
Answer:
The pungi was revived after its tonal quality was improved.

(c) Who revived the pungi?
Answer:
It was revived by a barber who belonged to a family of musicians.

(d) What was its new name? Why?
Answer:
The pungi s new name was shehnai. It was played in the Shah’s (Emperor’s) chambers by a nai (barber).

Question 2.
Few had thought that it would one day be revived. A barber of a family ofprofessional musicians, who had access to the royal palace, decided to improve the tonal quality of the pungi.

(a) What does ‘it’ refer to?
Answer:
It refers to a reeded musical instrument called the pungi.

(b) Why did ‘it’ need to be revived?
Answer:
The Mughal emperor Aurangzeb had banned the pungi as he found its sound to be shrill and unpleasant. Therefore, it needed to be revived.

(c) Why did the barber have an interest in ‘it’?
Answer:
The barber hailed from a family of professional musicians. That is why he had interest in the reeded musical instrument, the pungi.

(d) Did he succeed in improving ‘it’? If yes, how?
Answer:
Yes, he succeeded in improving the tonal quality of the pungi. He took a reed or a pipe with natural hollow stem which was wider and longer than the pungi. He made seven holes in it. When he played on it, closing and opening some of these holes, it produced soft and melodious music.

Question 3.
As the story goes, since it was first played in the Shah’s chambers and was played by a nai (barber), the instrument was named the shehnai.

(a) What does ‘it’ refer to?
Answer:
‘It’ refers to the shehnai – a musical instrument, made with a hollow stem with seven holes in it.

(b) What is the significance of the instrument being played in the royal court?
Answer:
The pungi had been banned by the emperor Aurangzeb in the royal residence. Therefore, concerts of the shehnai in the royal court made it a significant instrument.

(c) How is a shehnai different from a pungi ?
Answer:
A shehnai is a pipe with a natural hollow that is longer and broader than a pungi. It has seven holes on the body of the pipe.

(d) Where was the instrument traditionally played?
Answer:
The instrument was traditionally played in temples and at weddings.

Question 4.
Till recently it was used only in temples and weddings. The credit for bringing this instrument onto the classical stage goes to Ustad Bismillah Khan.

(a) Which instrument is being referred to as ‘it’ in the extract?
Answer:
The instrument being referred to as ‘it’ in the extract is the shehnai.

(b) When and where was ‘it’ generally played? Why?
Answer:
The sounds of shehnai were so melodious that they were considered to be auspicious. Therefore, it was played in temples and weddings.

(c) What was the naubat? Where was it played?
Answer:
Naubat was the name given to the traditional ensemble of nine instruments found at royal courts. The shehnai was part of these nine instruments.

(d) How did Bismillah Khan bring the shehnai to the classical stage?
Answer:
Bismillah Khan did a great service to shehnai as it came to be regarded as an instrument of classical music because of the new melodies produced by him.

Question 5.
As a five-year old, Bismillah Khan played gilli-danda near a pond in the ancient estate of Dumraon in Bihar. He would regularly go to the nearby Bihariji temple to sing the Bhojpuri Chaita, at the end of which he would earn a big laddu weighing 1.25 kg, a prize given by the local Maharaja.

(a) Where did Bismillah Khan grow up?
Answer:
Bismillah Khan grew up in Dumraon in Bihar.

(b) How did Bismillah Khan spend his childhood?
Answer:
Bismillah Khan spent his childhood playing gilli-danda and singing in the temple.

(c) Why did Bismillah Khan go to the nearby Bihariji temple daily?
Answer:
He used to visit the temple daily to sing the Bhojpuri Chaita for which he was given a big laddu by the local maharaja.

(d) Which musical instrument did Bismillah Khan play? From whom did he learn it?
Answer:
Bismillah Khan played the shehnai. He learnt to play it from his maternal uncle, Ali Bux.

Question 6.
For years to come the temple of Balaji and Mangala Maiya and the banks of the Ganga became the young apprentice’s favourite haunts where he could practise in solitude. The flowing waters of the Ganga inspired him to improvise and invent raagas that were earlier considered to be beyond the range of the shehnai.

(a) Who does “the young apprentice” refer to?
Answer:
“The young apprentice” refers to Bismillah Khan.

(b) Why is he referred to as the young apprentice?
Answer:
An apprentice is one someone who has agreed to work for a skilled person for a particular period of time and often for low payment, in order to leam that person’s skills. He is referred to as the young apprentice because from a very young age he had been getting lessons in playing the shehnai from his Uncle, Ali Bux.

(c) What kind of impact did the waters of the Ganga have on ‘him ‘?
Answer:
The waters of the Ganga inspired him to improvise the old raagas and invent new ones for the shehnai.

(d) How did he widen the range of the shehnai?
Answer:
There were certain raagas or musical notations which were considered to be outside the range of the shehnai. He modified those raagas and invented and played new ones on the shehnai and made its range wider.

Question 7.
When India gained Independence on August 15, 1947, Bismillah Khan became the first Indian to greet the nation with his Shehnai. He poured his heart out into Raag Kafi from the Red Fort to an audience which included Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, who later gave his famous Tryst with Destiny speech.

(a) Who was the first Indian to greet the nation?
Answer:
Bismillah Khan was the first Indian to greet the nation with his Shehnai on 15th August 1947.

(b) What was the occasion? Which raaga did he play on the occasion?
Answer:
He played Raag Kafi just before Jawaharlal Nehru’s speech declaring India’s independence.

(c) Why was he chosen to play on the occasion?
Answer:
He was chosen to play on the occasion as he played upon the shehnai, the music of which is considered auspicious in India.

(d) Explain the expression: “He poured his heart out.”
Answer:
The expression implies that the music played on the shehnai came from the depths of the heart of Bismillah Khan who, as a true patriot, was excited at the declaration of the independence of India.

Question 8.
Despite this huge success in the celluloid world, Bismillah Khan’s ventures in film music were limited to two: Vijay Bhatt’s Gunj Uthi Shehnai and Vikram Srinivas’s Kannada venture, Sanadhi Apanna. “Ijust can’t come to terms with the artificiality and glamour of the film world, ” he says with emphasis.

(a) What is meant by celluloid world? Why is it so called?
Answer:
The term celluloid world refers to the film world because celluloid is a name for film used in shooting movies. Because of its use in making films, this term came to stand for movies in general.

(b) What did Bismillah Khan do in the celluloid world?
Answer:
Bismillah Khan provided music for two films.

(c) Which two characteristics of the film world did he dislike?
Answer:
He disliked the artificiality and glamour of the film world.

(d) What do you leam about his character from this incident?
Answer:
It indicates that truthfulness and simplicity were two significant traits of Bismillah Khan’s character.

Question 9.
A student of his once wanted him to head a shehnai school in the U.S.A., and the student promised to recreate the atmosphere of Benaras by replicating the temples there.

(a) Why did Bismillah Khan’s student want of him?
Answer:
Bismillah Khan’s student wanted him to shift to USA and head a shehnai school there.

(b) What did he promise to do?
Answer:
He promised to recreate the atmosphere of Benaras in the USA by building similar temples as the ones in Benaras there.

(c) What was Bismillah Khan’s reply?
Answer:
Bismillah Khan refused to accept the offer as he did not wish to leave the Ganga.

(d) What do you leam about him from this?
Answer:
It reveals that Bismillah Khan was a true patriot, who passionately loved the Ganga and never wanted to live away from it.

Embark on an enlightening journey through the concept of food security in India, exploring the challenges, policies, and efforts to ensure access to adequate and nutritious food for all. Have you ever wondered about the complexities of food security, the factors that influence it, and the measures taken by the government to address hunger and malnutrition? In this article, we present you with a Food Security in India Class 9 Extra Questions with Answers. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers.

Food Security in India Class 9 Extra Questions with Answers

Question 1.
What is food security?
Answer:
Food is as essential for living as air is for breathing. Food security means something more than getting two square meals.

Question 2.
Why food security is necessary?
Answer:
The poorest, section of the society might be food insecure most of the times while persons above the poverty line might also be food insecure when the country faces a natural disaster like earthquake, drought, flood, tsunami, widespread failure of crops causing famine, etc.

Question 3.
How is food security affected during a calamity?
Answer:
Due to a natural calamity, total production of food grains decreases. It creates a shortage of food in the affected areas.

Question 4.
Who are food-insecure?
Answer:
Although a large section of people suffers from food and nutrition insecurity in India, the worst affected groups are landless people with little or no land depend upon, traditional artisans, providers of traditional services, petty, self-employed workers and destitute including beggars.

In the urban areas, the food-insecure families are those whose working members are generally employed in ill-paid occupations and casual labour markets.

Question 5.
What is Buffer stock?
Answer:
Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice procured by the government through Food Corporation of India.

Question 6.
What is minimum support price?
Answer:
The FCI purchases wheat and rice. from the farmers in states where there is surplus production. The farmers are paid a pre-announced price for their crops. This price is called minimum support price.

Question 7.
Why buffer stock is created by the government?
Answer:
Buffer stock is created by the government to distribute food-grains in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society at a price lower than the market price also known as issue price This also helps resolve the problems of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or during the periods of calamity.

Question 8.
Give the factors responsible for rising maintenance cost of food grains.
Answer:
The rising minimum support prices have raised the maintenance cost of procuring food grains by the government. Rising transportation and storage costs of the FCI ‘ are other contributing factors in this increase.

Question 9.
Write a short note on National Food for Work Programme.
Answer:
National Food for Work Programme was launched on November 14, 2004, in 150 most backward districts of the country with the objective of intensifying the generation of supplementary wage employment and desire to do manual unskilled work. It is implemented as a 100 per cent centrally sponsored scheme and the food grains are provided to states free of cost.

The collector is the nodal officer at the district level and has the overall responsibility of planning implementation, coordination, monitoring and supervision. For 2004-05, Rs. 2020 Crore have been allocated for the programme in addition to 20 lakh tonnes of food-grains.

Question 10.
Write a short note on Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY).
Answer:
AntyodayaAnna Yojana was launched in December 2000. Under the scheme, one crore of the poorest among the BPL families covered under the targeted public distribution system were identified by the respective state rural development departments through a below poverty line (BPL) survey. Twenty-five kilograms of food-grains were made available to each eligible family at a highly subsidised rate of Rs. 2 per kilogram for wheat and Rs. 3 per kilogram for rice.

This quantity has been enhanced from 25 to 50 kilograms with effect from April 2002. The scheme has been further expanded twice by additional 50 lakhs BPL families in June 2003 and in August 2004. With this increase, 2 crore families have been covered under the AAY.

Question 11.
Give any four drawbacks of public distribution system?
Answer:
The four drawbacks of PDS are as follows:

• Deaths due to hunger- Many instances of death due to hunger are prevalent despite overflowing granaries. FCI godowns are overflowing with grains with some rotting. away and some being eaten by rats.
• High carrying costs- The high level of buffer stocks are responsible for high carrying costs. The rising minimum support price has raised the maintenance cost of procuring food grains by the government.

Question 12.
Hunger indicates food insecurity. Explain?
Answer:
Hunger is not just an expression of poverty, it brings about poverty. The attainment of food security, therefore, involves eliminating current hunger and reducing the risks of future hunger. Hunger has chronic and seasonal dimensions. Chronic hunger is a consequence of diets persistently inadequate in terms of quantity and/or quality. Poor people suffer from chronic hunger because of their tew income and in turn instability to buy food even for survival.

Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food growing and harvesting. This is prevalent in rural areas because of the seasonal nature of agricultural activities and in urban areas because of the casual labour e.g. there is less work for causal construction labour during the rainy season.

This type of hunger exists when a person is unable to get work for the entire year. The percentage of seasonal, as well as chronic hunger, has declined in India. Seasonal hunger has declined to 0.6 in urban areas and 2.6 in rural areas. Chronic hunger is 0.3 in urban areas and 2.7 in rural areas.

Question 13.
Critically examine public distribution system.
Answer:
Supply of essential commodities to the people by the government through ration shops is called public distribution system. PDS is the most important step taken by the government of India towards ensuring food security. It is the most important instrument, of government policy over the years for stabilizing prices and making food available to consumers affordable prices.

It has been successful in avoiding widespread hunger and famine by supplying food from surplus regions of the country to the deficit ones. In addition, the prices have been under revision in favour of poor households in general. The system including the minimum support price and procurement has contributed to an increase in food-grain production and provided income security to farmers in certain regions.

In the beginning, the coverage of PDS was universal with no discrimination between the poor and non-poor. Over the years the policy has been revised to make it more efficient and targeted. In 1992Revamped Public, Distribution was started in 1700 blocks in the country. Its target was to provide the benefits of PDS to remote and backward areas. Then in June 1997, Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) was introduced to adopt the principle of targeting the poor in all areas.

For the first time, differential price polity was adopted for poor and non-poor. Further in 2000, two special schemes were launched, viz. Antyodaya Anna Yojana and Annapurna Scheme with special target groups of the poorest of the poor and indigent senior citizens. The functioning of the above schemes was linked with the existing network of the PDS.

Criticism-However; the Public Distribution System has faced severe criticism, on several grounds. Substances of hunger are prevalent despite over-flowing granaries. FCI godowns are overflowing with grains with some rafting away and some being eaten by rats. The storage of massive food stocks has been responsible for high carrying costs, in addition to wastage an,d deterioration in grain quality.

The average consumption of PDS grain at all Indian levels is only 1 kg. per person per month. This is much lower than the consumption pattern which is 3-4 kgs per month. As a result, the poor have to depend on markets rather than the ration shops for their food needs. PDS dealers are sometimes found resorting to malpractices like diverting the grains to open market to get better margin by selling poor quality grains.

Natural vegetation refers to the plant life that grows in a specific region without any human interference. From the dense rainforests of the tropics to the sparse vegetation of arid deserts, each region boasts a unique array of plant species that adapt to their surroundings. In this article, we present you with a Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Class 9 Extra Questions with Answers. Read this also Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers.

Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Class 9 Extra Questions with Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What position does India occupy in the world with regards to plant diversity?
Answer:
Tenth place.

Question 2.
What position in Asia, does India hold in plant diversity?
Answer:
Fourth place.

Question 3.
What is the number of flowering plants in India?
Answer:
15,000 flowering plants.

Question 4.
What percentage of flowering plants does India contribute to the world’s total?
Answer:
6%.
Question 5.
What is Natural Vegetation?
Answer:
Natural vegetation refers to the plants which have grown naturally without human aid and have been left undisturbed by humans for a long time.

Question 6.
Give another name for natural vegetation.
Answer:
Virgin vegetation

Question 7.
Why are cultivated crops, fruits and vegetables not considered as natural vegetation?
Answer:
They are grown with the help of man.

Question 8.
What is the difference between flora and fauna?
Answer:
Flora refers to the plants of a particular region or period. The species of animals are referred to as fauna.

Question 9.
Why is there a great diversity in flora and fauna?
Answer:
Differences in land, soil and climate cause a great diversity in the flora and fauna of a region.

Question 10.
What is the main occupation of people where land is fertile and level?
Answer:
Agriculture.

Question 11.
Which occupation can be carried on in grasslands and woodlands?
Answer:
Cattle grazing.

Question 12.
Why do trees grow faster in summer?
Answer:
Due to longer duration of sunlight.

Question 13.
Why are the southern slopes of the Himalayas covered with thicker vegetation as compared to northern slopes?
Answer:
The southern slopes of the Himalayas get direct sunlight while the northern slopes receive indirect rays or oblique rays.

Question 14.
Name the two winds which cause rainfall in the major part of the Indian subcontinent.
Answer:

South West Monsoons in Summer.
North East Monsoons in Winter.
Question 15.
Why do the windward or western slopes of the Western Ghats have a denser vegetation than the eastern or leeward slopes?
Answer:
Rainfall is heavier on the windward or western slopes than the eastern or leeward slope.

Question 16.
Which areas in India have been untouched by man or have not been modified?
Answer:
Inaccessible regions of the Himalayas and the hilly region of Central India and the marusthali.

Question 17.
According to the Indian State of Forest Report 2011, what is the percentage of forest cover in India.
Answer:
21.05%.

Question 18.
‘When the vegetation is altered, the animal life also changes’. How?
Answer:
This happens because plants occur in distinct groups of communities in areas having similar climatic conditions. The nature of the plants in an area, to a large extent, determines the animal life in that area. All the plants and animals in an area are interdependent and inter-related to each other in their physical environment. Therefore when the vegetation changes, the animal life is affected.

Question 19.
How do the human beings influence the ecology of a region?
Answer:
Human beings utilise the vegetation and wildlife. They cut the trees for their own benefit and kill the animals for various purposes. The ecological balance is disturbed.

Question 20.
What is a biome?
Answer:
A very large ecosystem on land having distinct types of vegetation and animal life is called a-biome.

Question 21.
How are the biomes identified?
Answer:
Biomes are identified on the basis of plants.

Question 22.
What is the other name of Tropical Rain Forests? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
These forests are also known as the Tropical Evergreen Forests.

Question 23.
Name two regions, one in the north of the Tropic of Cancer and one in the south of the TTopic of Cancer, where TTopical Evergreen Forests are found.
Answer:

North – Northern parts of Assam
South – Windward slopes of the Western Ghats.
Question 24.
Name any four commercially important trees of the Evergreen Forests.
Answer:
Ebony, mahogany, rosewood and rubber.

Question 25.
For what purpose did the people in the forests use bamboo?
Answer:
The people in the forests used bamboo for commercial purposes especially for the construction of houses and for carrying the water from the higher regions of heavy rainfall to the lower areas.

Question 26.
Name any four common animals found in the Tropical Evergreen Forests?
Answer:
Elephants, monkeys, rhinoceros and snakes.

Question 27.
Name the most widespread forests of India. By what other name are they also known as?
Answer:
Tropical Deciduous Forests. These forests are also known as Monsoon Forests.

Question 28.
What are the sub-divisions of the Tropical Deciduous Forests?
Answer:
Dry Deciduous – (70-100 cm of rain)
Wet Deciduous – (100-200 cm of rain)

Question 29.
Why are thorny trees and shrubs found in Gujarat and Rajasthan?
Answer:
Rainfall is less than 70 cm

Question 30.
When was the Wildlife Protection Act implemented in India? [HOTS]
Answer:
1972.

Question 31.
Name the natural habitat of the Indian lion.
Answer:
Gir forest in Gujarat.

Question 32.
Name any two bird sanctuaries in India.
Answer:

Vedanthangal
Ranganathittu
Question 33.
Name any three common animals each of thorn forests and the mangrove forests found in India.
Answer:
The wild ass, camels and horses are the common animals of the thorn forest.
Tigers, crocodiles and gharials are found in coastal areas where mangrove forests exist.

Question 34.
How many species of animals and birds does India have?
Answer:
India has approximately 90,000 of animal species and 2,000 species of birds.

Question 35.
Name any three animals found in rivers, lakes and the coastal areas of India.
Answer:
Turtles, crocodiles and gharials.

Question 36.
Name any three animals which live in the Himalayas due to its cold climate.
Answer:
The yak lives in Ladakh’s freezing high altitudes. The shaggy horned wild ox and the Tibetan antelope also live in the cold regions of Elimalayas.

Question 37.
Differentiate between endemic and exotic plants.
Answer:
The Virgin vegetation which is purely Indian is known as endemic, while those plants which have come from outside India are known as exotic plants.

Question 38.
How does the vegetation change with the change in the soil?
Answer:
Different types of soils have different characteristics and minerals, therefore it is suited to those plants which can grow well under those conditions.

Question 39.
What type of vegetation is supported by the following soils?
Answer:
Sandy soils of the desert – cactus and thorny bushes
Marshy or deltaic soils – mangroves
Hill soils – conical trees or coniferous trees

Question 40.
What are the causes for the variation of sunlight at different places?
Answer:

Differences in latitude
Differences in altitude
Season and duration of the day
Question 41.
Which forest is the most widespread forest of India? What is its other name? Give an example of any two species of trees of these forests.
Answer:
The Tropical Deciduous Forest is the most widespread forest of India. These forests are also called the Monsoon Forests. Shisham and sal are two important species of these forests.

Question 42.
In which regions are the following animals found?
Answer:
Lion: Gir forest in Gujarat Tigers: Forests of Madhya Pradesh Leopards: Himalayas.

Question 43.
Name four bioreserves in India which have been included in the world network of biosphere reserves.
Answer:
(a) Sundarbans
(b) Nanda Devi
(c) Gulf of Mannar
(d) Nilgiris .
(e) Nokrek
(f) Great Nicobar
(g) Manas
(h) Simlipal
(i) Pachmarhi
(j) Achanakmar-Amarkantak (Any four)

Question 44.
What are migratory birds?
Answer:
Migratory birds visit a warmer country during the winters as in their native country the temperature falls below freezing point. These birds return to their native area in summer.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 45.
Give reasons why India’s natural vegetation has undergone many changes?
Answer:
India’s natural vegetation has undergone many changes due to the:
growing demand for cultivated land
development of industries and mining
urbanisation and overgrazing of pastures

Question 46.
Where are mangrove forests found? How are they formed? Which is the most important tree of the Ganga Delta?
Answer:
Mangrove forests are found in the coastal areas mainly in the deltas of the rivers. These forests are also known as the tidal forests as they are formed by the tides which bring in mud and silt and accumulate it on the coasts. The most important tree of the Ganga Delta is the Sundari tree which is hard and durable.

Question 47.
Name any three medicinal plants of India and mention for what they are used.
Answer:
Jamun: The juice has digestive properties. The powder of the seed is used for curing diabetes.
Arjun: The fresh juice of leaves is a cure for earache and regulate blood pressure.
Tulsi Plant: It is used to cure cough and cold.

Question 48.
‘Bird life in India is colourful’. Explain.
Answer:
(a) The country has about 2,000 species of birds. Some of the wetlands of India are popular with migratory birds.
(b) Peacocks, pheasants, ducks, parakeets, cranes and pigeons are some of the birds inhabiting the forests and the wetlands of the country.
(c) In places where the desert merges with the sea, like the Rann of Kachchh, flamingoes with their pink plumage, come in large numbers.

Question 49.
How many National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries have been set up by the government to take care of the natural heritage of India? Why have these been established by the government?[CBSE 2016]
Answer:
103 National Parks and 535 Wildlife Sanctuaries have been set up to take care of the natural heritage of India. These have been established to protect and save the flora and fauna, and maintain the balance of the ecosystem.

Question 50.
A great variety of flora is found in India. Give three geographical factors responsible for this diversification of flora. [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
India has a great variety in flora because of:
(a) Varied relief of mountains, plains, plateaus and desert. They have their own different types of flora. In the mountainous regions, wet temperate forests are found between the height of 1000-2000 m, coniferous forests are found between 1500 and 3000 m. Trees like the pine, deodar, spruce and cedar are found. In regions of less rainfall (less than 70 cm) and in semi-arid regions the vegetation consists of acacias, palms and cacti.
(b) In areas of heavy rainfall like the Western Ghats, which receive more than 200 cm of rainfall, tropical evergreen forests are found.
(c) Different types of terrain and soil – like alluvial, black, red, laterite support different types of vegetation e.g., black soil is good for growing cotton.

Question 51.
Distinguish between Thorn Forests and Mangrove Forests. [CBSE 2010]
Answer:

Thorn Forests	Mangrove Forests
(a) Located in regions having 70 cm of rainfall. The natural vegetation consists of thorny trees and bushes.	(a)The Mangrove tidal forests are found in coastal regions influenced by tides.
(b) Found in semi-arid regions, e.g., Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh.	(b)Mangrove tidal forests are found in the deltas of Ganga, Mahanadi, Krishna, Godavari and Kaveri.
(c)Babool, kikar, palms, cacti and acacia are the main plant species.	(c) The Sundari is an important tree found here. These have hard durable wood. Other examples are agar, keora.

Question 52.
Write three measures to conserve Ecosystem. [HOTS] [CBSE 2010]
Answer:
Ecosystem can be conserved by:
(a) avoiding cutting of trees indiscriminately.
(b) checking rapid growth of population. Otherwise overcrowding will result in imbalances and the pollution of the environment.
(c) checking the smoke from the chimneys and vehicles. Waste from farms, factories and cities should be scientifically treated so that we can save our ecosystem and preserve it for the benefit of mankind.

Question 53.
Write the main characteristics of tropical deciduous forests. [CBSE 2010]
Answer:
Main characteristics of tropical deciduous forests are:
(a) They form the natural cover almost all over India, hence they are also called ‘monsoon forests’.
(b) Rainfall needed is between 75-200 cm. They are sub-divided into (/) moist deciduous (ii) dry deciduous. Examples are sal, teak, shisham, sandalwood, bamboo, etc.
(c) Trees shed their leaves for about six to eight weeks in summer.
(d) Located on the eastern slopes of Western Ghats, Uttar Pradesh, Chattisgarh, northeastern states
Bihar, West Odisha, along the Shiwaliks and rainier pans of peninsular plateau.
(e) These forests are economically most important. They have been commercially exploited, providing the most valuable timber and other forest products.

Question 54.
Explain ‘natural ecosystem’. Why is any attempt to tamper with the ecosystem fraught with grave risks? [CBSE 2010]
Answer:
(a) An ecosystem consists of all species of plants and animals in a given area which are interdependent.
(b) It is the ecosystem which helps the man to survive and lead a comfortable life. It provides man with food, raw material for industries and clothing. The natural resources should be used carefully so that they are not exhausted in a short time.
(c) Ecosystem can be conserved by avoiding cutting of trees indiscriminately. Checking on rapid growth of population, otherwise overcrowding will result in the imbalances and pollution of environment.

Question 55.
Describe the major vegetation zones of the Himalayan region. [CBSE 2010]
Answer:
In mountainous areas (Himalayas), the decrease in temperature and increase in altitude leads to
the corresponding changes in natural vegetation. The major vegetation zones are:
(a) Wet temperate type of forests are located between a height of 1000-2000 metres. Evergreen broad-leaf trees such as chir, chill, ash, oak, chestnuts are found in this region.
(b) Between 1500-3000 metres above sea-level, coniferous forests such as pine, deodar, silver fir, spruce and cedar are found.
(c) At high altitude, Alpine vegetation comprising Silver fir, junipers, pines and birches is found.
(d) Tundra vegetation of moss and lichen prevails at higher altitude. (any three)

Question 56.
Write three measures to protect wildlife. [CBSE 2010]
Answer:
The measures taken by the Government for the protection and conservation of our biological diversity are:
(a) Periodic census are conducted to find out the latest position and trends in this regard.
(b) Tiger reserves have been set up. Project Tiger is a great success.
(c) Rhinos in Assam and elephants in Periyar are being conserved.
(d) Several national parks and bird sanctuaries have been set up.

Question 57.
Describe the vegetation and the wildlife found in the Ganga and Brahmaputra delta. [CBSE 2010
Answer:
Mangrove tidal forests are found in coastal regions, influenced by the tides. The roots of the plants
are submerged under water. They are found in the deltas of Ganga and Brahmaputra. The Sundari trees are found here. They have hard durable wood. Other examples are agar, keora. The Tigers are found in the Sundarbans of West Bengal. Turtles, crocodiles, gharials and snakes are also found in these forests.

Question 58.
Name two states where thorn forests and scrubs vegetation are found. Which are the common animals found in these forests? Why is there absence of trees in these forests?
Answer:
Thorn forests and scrubs vegetation are found in Gujarat and Rajasthan. Camels, rats, wild ass are the common animals found in these forests. There is absence of trees because rainfall is less than 70 cm in these regions.

Question 59.
Mention the ways in which the desert plants adapt themselves to their surroundings.
Answer:
(a) Trees are scattered.
(b) Have long roots which go deep into the soil to get moisture.
(c) The stems are succulent to conserve water.
(d) Leaves are thick and small to prevent excessive evaporation of moisture. (any three)

Question 60.
Which migratory bird visits the Rann of Kachchh in winter? Why? How do we benefit from these birds?
Answer:
Siberian Crane is the migratory bird which visits the Rann of Kachchh in winter. It becomes extremely cold in Siberia so they come here and build nest mounds from the salty mud and raise their young ones.
The visit of the Siberian Crane is one among many extraordinary sights in the country. Many tourists and visitors come here to see them.

Question 61.
Compare the wildlife of the Himalayas and the wetlands of our country. [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
The animals of the Himalayas can survive in the extreme cold where the temperatures are very low.
These include shaggy horned wild ox, the Tibetan antelope, the bharal, wild sheep and the Tibetan wild ass. Rare animals like the snow leopard and the red panda are found in certain areas.
In the wetlands, animals like the crocodiles, gharial and turtles are commonly found. A number of reptiles and birds inhabit the wetlands of the country.

Question 62.
What is the meaning of flora and fauna? How is India rich in its fauna? Explain. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
The term ‘flora’ is used to denote plants and the term ‘fauna’ is used to denote animals. India has
approximately 90,000 of animal species. The country has about 2,000 species of birds. There are 2546 species of fish, which account for nearly 12% of the world’s stock. It also shares between 5 and 8 per cent of the world’s amphibians, reptiles and mammals. India is the only country in the world that has both tigers and lions. In the rivers, lakes and coastal areas, turtles, crocodiles and gharials are found. Peacocks, Pheasants, ducks and cranes are some of the birds inhabiting the forests and wetlands of the country.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 63.
Why are the forests important to man? What has been the result of man’s interference with nature?
Answer:
The importance of forests are as follows:

• Forests increase the quality of environment.
• They modify the climate.
• They control the erosion of the soil.
• Control soil erosion.
• Regulate stream flow.
• They support many industries and thus provide a livelihood for the rural population.
• Forests provide humus to the soil and shelter to the wildlife.

The interference of man with nature has resulted in the extinction of many plants and animals.

Question 64.
Complete the following table: Name any two common animals found in these forests.

	Height	Trees
(a) Wet temperate (b) Temperate forests (c) Alpine (d) Tundra

Answer:

	Height	Trees
(a) Wet temperate	1,000-2,000 metres	Oaks, Chestnuts
(b) Temperate forests	1,500-3,000 metres	Pine, deodar, spruce, cedar
(c) Alpine	(High altitude) 3,600 metres above sea-level	Silver fir, junipers, pines

The common animals found in these forests are the Kashmir stag and the spotted dear.

Question 65.
Mention the steps taken by the government to protect the flora and fauna. [HOTS]
Answer:
(a) Eighteen biosphere reserves have been set up for the protection of the flora and fauna.
(b) Financial and technical assistance is provided to many Botanical Gardens since 1992.
(c) Many eco-developmental projects have been introduced e.g., Project Tiger, Project Rhino, Project Great Indian Bustard etc.
(d) 103 National Parks and 535 Wildlife Sanctuaries set up to take care of the natural heritage.
(e) Setting up of Zoological gardens.

Question 66.
Describe the features of the Mangrove forests? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:

• Mangrove forests are found in the coastal regions which are affected by tides.
• Dense mangroves are the common varieties of trees.
• The roots of the plants are submerged in water and can be seen only during low tide.
• The Sundari trees found in the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta provide durable hard timber.
• Palm, coconut, keora, agar also grow in some parts of the delta.
• Royal Bengal Tiger is the famous animal in these forests. (any five)

Question 67.
Give a brief account of the wildlife in India in five points.
Answer:
(a) India is rich in its wildlife. It has about 90,000 animal species, about 2000 species of birds and about 2546 species of fish.
(b) Elephants are found in the hot wet forests of Assam, Karnataka and Kerala. One-horned rhinoceros live in swampy and marshy lands of Assam and North-west Bengal.
(c) Rann of Kutch and Thar desert are habitat of wild asses and camels. Lions are found in Gir hills of Gujarat and Tigers in the Sundarbans of West Bengal.
(id) The Himalayas harbour a wide wild variety of animals, e.g., yaks, snow-leopards, bear, Tibetan antelope [bharal (blue sheep), musk-deer, kiang (Tibetan wild ass)], etc.
(e) In rivers, lakes and coastal areas, turtles, crocodiles and gharials are found.

Question 68.
Distinguish between TVopical Evergreen and Deciduous Forests. [CBSE 2010]
Answer:

Tropical Evergreen Forests	Deciduous Forests
(a)Located in regions of heavy rainfall more than 200 cm of rainfall.	(a)The Mangrove tidal forests are found in coastal regions influenced by tides.
(b) Luxuriant vegetation of all kinds, trees, shrubs and creepers. Trees reach height of 60 metres.	(b)These are most widespread forests of India. They are divided into moist and dry deciduous forest.
(c)There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves. These forests generally appear green all the year round.	(c) Trees of this forest type shed their leaves for about 6-8 weeks in dry summer.
(d) These forests are found in Western Ghats, Assam, Tamil Nadu, Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar.	(d) Wet deciduous are found in regions between 100-200 cm of rainfall, e.g., Jharkhand, Odisha and Chattisgarh. Dry deciduous are found in regions between 70-100 cm of rainfall, e.g., Bihar. Uttar Pradesh.
(e) Some important trees of this forest are ebony, mahogany, rosewood, cinchona. Trees, shrubs and creepers give it a multi-layered structure.	(e)There are open stretches in which teak, peepal, neem, sal grows.

Map Skills

Question 69.
On the outline map of India, identify the type of vegetation.
Answer:

A. Tropical Evergreen
B. Tropical Deciduous Forest
C. Thorn Forest
D. Montane Forest
E. Mangrove Forest

Question 70.
Locate and label the following national parks on the map of India.
(a) Corbett
(b) Kaziranga
(c) Ranthambor
(d) Shivpuri
(e) Kanha
(f) Simlipal
(g) Manas
Answer:

Question 71.
Locate and label the following bird sanctuaries and wildlife sanctuaries on the given map of India.
(a) Bird Sanctuaries: Bharatpur and Ranganthittu
(b) Wildlife Sanctuaries: Sariska, Mudumalai, Rajaji, Dachigam.
Answer: