CBSE previous Year Solved Papers Class 12 Biology Delhi 2011

CBSE previous Year Solved  Papers  Class 12 Biology Delhi 2011

Time allowed : 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions :

  1.  There are a total of 26 questions and five sections in the question paper, All questions are compulsory.
  2. Section A contains question number 1 to 5, Very Short Answer type questions of one mark each.
  3.  Section B contains question number 6 to 10, Short Answer type I questions of two marks each.
  4.  Section C contains question number 11 to 22, Short Answer type II questions of three marks each.
  5.  Section D contains question number 23, Value Based Question of four marks.
  6. Section E contains question number 24 to 26, Long Answer type questions of five marks each.
  7. There is no overall choice in the question paper, however, an internal choice is provided in one question of two marks, one question of three marks and all three questions of five marks. An examined is to attempt any one of the questions out of two given in the question paper with the same question number.

SET-I

SECTION-A

Question.1. Name the type of cell division that takes place in the zygote of an organism exhibiting haplontic life cycle.
Answer : Meiosis occurring in the zygote of an organism exhibiting haplontic life Cycle.

Question.2. Write the scientific name of the microbe used for fermenting malted cereals and fruit juices.
Answer: Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

Question.3. Write the unit used for measuring ozone thickness.
Answer : Dobson units (DU).

Question.4. Name the event during cell division cycle that results in the gain or loss of chromosome.
Answer: Aneuploidy results in the loss or gain of chromosome during cell division cycle.

Question.5. How can bacterial DNA be released from the bacterial cell for biotechnology experiments?
Answer : To release the bacterial DNA from the bacterial cell for biotechnology experiments the cell wall need to be open using enzyme lysozyme and DNA is isolated along with RNA and protein.

Question.6. Write the importance of cryopreservation in conservation of biodiversity.
Answer : Cryopreservation is used in storing the gametes of endangered species that can be fertilized in-vitro followed by propagation through tissue culture methods, seeds can be preserved in seed banks, preserving vegetatively propagated crops.

Question.7. Mention the role of the codons AUG and UGA during protein synthesis.
Answer : AUG is the start codon that initiates the protein synthesis. UGA is the stop codon that signals for the termination of protein synthesis.

Question. 8. Normally one embryo develops in one seed but when an orange seed is squeezed many embryos of different shapes and sizes are seen. Mention how it has happened.
Answer : The nucellus cells start dividing and protrude into the embryo sac to develop into embryos. Hence, each ovule may contain several embryos. The presence of many embryos of different shapes and sizes in a seed is called Polyembryony.

SECTION-B

Question.9. How do histones acquire positive charge ?
Answer : Histones acquire a positive charge due to presence of abundance of basic amino acid residues such as lysine and arginine carry positive charges in their side chains.

Question.10. Why is CuT considered a good contraceptive device to space children ?
Answer : CuT is a method of Intrauterine device (IUD) considered to be a good contraceptive device because it releases copper ions which increase phagocytosis of sperms and decrease sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of the sperm. Hence, the sperms lose their motility before reaching the ova.

Question.11. Differentiate between albuminous and non-albuminous seeds, giving one example of each.
Answer : The differences between albuminous and non-albuminous seeds are as under :
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-biology-delhi-2011-1

Question.12. Explain the process of RNA interference.
Answer: RNA interference is the cellular defense mechanism in all eukaryotic organisms. This method involves silencing of a specific mRNA of the parasite due to complementary dsRNA molecule that binds and prevents translation of the mRNA(silencing). RNA interference is a method adopted to prevent infestation of roots of tobacco plants by a nematode Meloidogyne incognita.

Question.13. List the key tools used in recombinant DNA technology.
Answer: The key tools used in recombinant DNA technology are restriction enzymes, Polymerase Chain Reaction, competent host and cloning vectors, polymerase enzymes, ligases and host organisms.

Question.14. Name the two types of immune systems in a human body. Why are cell mediated and humoral immunities so called ?
Answer : The two types of immunity found in humans are Humoral and Cell-mediated immunity. Humoral immunity is called so because, B lymphocytes produce antibodies against pathogens into our blood stream to fight with them. Cell-mediated immunity is called so because it is performed by specialised cells in the body known as T-lymphocytes. T-cell also help B cells to produce antibodies.
OR
Write the scientific names of the causal organisms of elephantiasis and ringworm in humans. Mention the body parts affected by them.
Answer: Elephantiasis
The Scientific name of the causal organism of Elephantiasis in human is Wuchereria bancrofti. The body part affected by them is Lymphatic vessel of lower Limbs.
Ringworm in human is, Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton. The body part affected is skin.

Question.15. Justify with the help of an example where a deliberate attempt by humans has led to the extinction of a particular species.
Answer: The deliberate attempt by human has led to the extinction of a particular species. For example, the introduction of Nile perch in Lake Victoria that led to the extinction of more than 200 species of cichlid fish in the lake. Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands became extinct, after goats were introduced.

Question.16. Identify A, D, E and F in the diagram of an antibody molecule given below:
Answer : A- Antigen binding site.
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-biology-delhi-2011-2
D- Light chain
E – Heavy chain (constant region)
F – disulphide bond

Question.17. Study the graph given below. Explain how is oxygen ‘ concentration affected jn the river when sewage is discharged into it.
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-biology-delhi-2011-3
Answer : The introduction of sewage caused a sudden and sharp decline of dissolved oxygen at the point of sewage discharge in the river. This is because oxygen is used up by microorganisms involved in biodegradation resulting in an increase in the biological oxygen demand (BOD). This in turn leads to the death of fishes and other aquatic life. As the sewage gets diluted due the flow of the water, the river slowly regains some of its oxygen concentration.

Question.18. Explain how a hereditary disease can be corrected. Give an example of first successful attempt made towards correction of such diseases.
Answer : Gene therapy is the correction of a genetic defect by introduction of normal gene into an individual or embryo to take over or compensate the function for a non-functional gene. The first disease to have a gene therapy is ADA (Adenosine deaminase) deficiency. In this, the gene coding for enzyme ADA gets deleted leading to deficiency of ADA and problems in immune system.
Gene therapy for ADA deficiency includes :

  1.  In in-vitro culturing of isolated lymphocytes from the patients blood.
  2. Then introduced fuctional ADA cDNA into the cluttered lymphocytes.
  3. These lymphocytes are returned back to the patients body.
  4.  Permanent care of this problem is the introduction of isolated gene from bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages.

SECTION – C

Question.19. Draw a diagram of a, male gametophyte of an angiosperm. Label any four parts. Why is sporopollenin considered the most resistant organic material ?
Answer: Following is the labelled diagram of a male gametophyte of an angiosperm.
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-biology-delhi-2011-4
Sporopollenin is chemically very stable and is usually well preserved in soils and sediments. It can withstand high temperatures, acidic and alkaline conditions, and enzymes.

Question.20. How are dominance, codominance and incomplete dominance patterns of inheritance different from each other ?
Answer: Dominance: An allele expresses itself in the presence of the hybrid heterozygous condition. For example, tall plant, round seed, violet flower, etc. are dominant characters in a pea plant.
Co-dominance : Co-dominance is the phenomenon in which both the alleles of a trait are expressed in heterozygous condition. Both the alleles of a gqne are equally dominant. Example: ABO blood group system. .
Incomplete dominance : Neither of the two alleles of a gene is completely dominant over the other in heterozygous condition, the hybrid is intermediate. For example, a monohybrid cross between the plants having red flowers and white flowers in Antirrhinum species will result in all pink flower plants in Fj generation.

Question.21. The base sequence in one of the strands of DNA is TAGCATGAT.
(i) Give the base sequence of its complementary strand.
(ii) How are these base pairs held together in a DNA molecule?
(iii) Explain the base complementarity rules. Name the scientist who framed this rule.
Answer : (i) The base sequence of the complementary strand will be ATCGTACTA.
(ii) The base pairs in the DNA molecules are held with hydrogen bonds, between A and T and C and G on the two strands.
(iii) Base Complementarity Rule: A purine will always pair with a pyrimidine in a DNA molecule i.e. A will pair with T and G will pair with C. The ratio of A and T or C and G will always he 1. The base complementarity rule was framed by Erwin Chargaff.

Question.22. (a) Sickle cell anaemia in humans is a result of point mutation. Explain.
(b) Write the genotypes of both the parents who have produced a sickle celled anaemic offspring.
Answer : (a) Sickle celled anaemia in humans is a result of point mutation beacuse mutation of a single base change (substitution) in the gene leads to the replacement of GAG
by GUG. This leads to the substitution of the amino acid Glutamine (Glu) by Valine (Val) at sixth position of beta globin chain of haemoglobin.
(b) Genotype of parents who have produced a sickle cell anaemic offspring. Father – HbA HbS, Mother – HbA HbS.

Question.23. What is inbreeding depression and how is it caused in organisms ? Write any two advantages of inbreeding.
Answer : Inbreeding depression is the reduction in the fertility and productivity of an organism due to continuous inbreeding.
Advantages : (i) Production of pure lines
(ii) Elimination inferior genes,
(iii) Accumulation of superior genes.

Question.24. (a) Identify (A) and (B) illustrations in the following:
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-biology-delhi-2011-5
(b) Write the term given to (A) and (C) and why ?
(c) Expand PCR. Mention its importance in biotechnology.
Answer : (a) The part labelled A-AATTC is the sticky end. The part labelled B is the foreign DNA insert.
(b) The term used For A and C are called the palindrofmc nucleotide sequence, because the sequence of base pairs reads same on the two strands when the orientation of the reading is kept the same.
(c) PCR stands for Polymerase Chain Reaction.
PCR is a technique in molecular biology, used to amplify a gene or a piece of DNA to .obtain its several copies. Biotechnological Importance – amplification of gene of interest in vitro.

Question.25.
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-biology-delhi-2011-6
The diagram above is that of a typical biogas plant. Explain the sequence of events occurring in a biogas plant. Identify a, b and c.
Answer: The’sequences of events occurring in a biogas plant are:

  1.  The complex molecules are broken down into simple sugars, amino acids & fatty acids.
  2. Further breakdown of remaining , components by fermentative bacteria.
  3. Simple molecules obtained by acidogenesis phase further digested by acetogens to produce large amount of acetic acid, CO2 and Ify.
  4.  Methanogens utilise the intermediate products of the previous steps and convert them into methane, carbondioxide and water.
    (a) Sludge loader.
    (b) Gas holder CH4 and GCK
    (c) Inlet to feed slurry.

Question.26. How can crop varieties be made disease resistant to overcome food crisis in India ? Explain.
Name one disease resistant variety in India of:
(a) Wheat to leaf and stripe rust
(b) Brassica to white rust
Answer: A wide range of fungal, bacterial and viral pathogens affect the yield of cultivated crops. Disease resistant can be provided by conventional breeding, mutational breeding or genetic engineering.

  1. Conventional breeding: It includes the basic steps of screening, germplasm, hybridisation, selection, testing and release.
  2. Mutational breeding: In this method, genetic variations
    are created, which then result in the creation of traits not found in the parental type.
  3.  Genetic engineering: Certain wild varieties have disease- resistant characteristics, but they are low yielding, Disease- resistant genes from such varieties are introduce in high- yielding varieties through recombinant DNA technology. One disease resistant variey in India of:
    (a) Himgiri (b) Pusa swarnim

OR
Write the source and the effect on the human body of the following drugs:
(i) Morphine (ii) Cocaine (iii) Marijuana The source and effect of the following drugs are :
Answer: (i) Morphine :
Source—Latex of poppy plants (Papaver somniferum)
Effect—It is a depressant; slows down body functions
(ii) Cocaine:
Source—Coca plant Erytjfroxylum coca
Effect—Stimulates the CNS, producing a sense of euphoria
and increased energy and hallucination.
(iii) Marijuana:
Source—Inflorescences of the plant Cannabis sativa
Effect—Effects the cardiovascular system.

Question.27. Name the type of interaction seen in each of the following examples:
(1) Ascaris worms living in the intestine of human
(2) Wasp pollinating fig inflorescence
(3) Clown fish living among the tentacles of sea-anemone
(4) Myeorrhizae living on the roots of higher plants
(5) Orchid growing on ai branch of a mango tree
(6) Disappearance of smaller barnacles when Balanus dominated in the Coast of Scotland.
Answer :

  1.  Ascaris worms living in the intestine of human- Parasitism
  2.  Wasp pollinating fig inflorescence – Mutualism
  3. Clown fish living among the tentacles of sea-anemone Commensalism
  4. Myeorrhizae living on the roots of higher plants – Mutualism
  5. Orchid growing on a branch of a mango tree – Commensalism
  6.  Disappearance of Smaller barnacles when Balanus dominated in the Coast of Scodand – Competition

SECTION-D

Question.28. (a) Draw a labelled diagram of the human female repro-ductive system.
(b) Enumerate the events in the ovary of a human female during:
(i) Follicular phase (ii) Luteal phase of menstrual cycle
Answer: (a) Female reproductive system :
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-biology-delhi-2011-7
(b) (i) Follicular phase : The growth of the primary ovarian follicle and also causes maturation of the primary oocyte in this follicle. The follicular cells of the Graafian follicle secrete estrogen. Due to which the uterine endometrium becomes thick, more vascular and more glandular.
(ii) Luteal phase : Development of corpus luteum continues to release the hormone, progesterone. It lasts for about 12-14 days and extends from the 16th – 28th day of the menstrual cycle.
OR
(a) Write the specific location and the functions of the following cells in human males:
(i) Leydig cells (ii) Sertoli cells (iii) Primary spermatocyte
(b) Explain the role of any two accessory glands in human male reproductive system.
Answer : (a) (i) Leydig cell are found in interstitial spaces between seminiferous tubules in the testes. They synthesise and secrete testicular hormones called androgens (testosterone).
(ii) Sertoli cells are found in between spermatocyte inside seminiferous tubules. They act as nurse cell and provide nutrition to the male germ cells.
(iii) Primary spermatocytes are found in between spermatocyte inside seminiferous tubules. They are diploid” cells that are derived from the spermatogonia. They undergo meiotic division to give rise to secondary spermatocyte and thereby male gamete-sperm.
(b) The male accessory glands include the seminal vesicles, prostrate gland, and the bulbourethral gland.
Prostate Gland: It stores and secretes an alkaline, milky fluid known as seminal plasma, which provide alkalinity of the semen is to neutralize the acidity of the vaginal tract. Bulbourethral glands: This gland secretes a viscous secretion during sexual arousal which helps to lubricate the urethra for easy passage of spermatozoa to pass through, and to help ‘ flush out any residual urine or foreign matter and also help in lubrication of penis.

Question.29. Explain the salient features of Hugo de Vries theory of mutation. How is Darwin’s theory of natural selection different from it? Explain.
Answer : Salient features of theory of Hugo de Vries :

  1. Mutations cause evolution.
  2. New species originate due to large mutations
  3. Evolution is a discontinuous process and not gradual
  4. Mutations are directionless
  5.  Mutations appear suddenly
  6.  Mutations exhibit their effect immediately
    cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-biology-delhi-2011-8

OR
(a) Name the primates that lived about 15 million years ago. List their characteristic features.
(b) (i). Where was the first man-like animal found?
(ii) Write the order in which Neanderthals, Homo habilis and Homo erectus appeared on earth. State the brain capacity of each one of them.
(iii) When did modern Homo sapiens appear on this planet?
Answer: (a) Dryopithecus (ape-like) and Ramapithecus (man¬like). These primates were hairy and their walk was similar to that of chimpanzees.
(b) (i) The first man-like animal was found in Africa.
(ii) Order = Homo habilis , Homo erectus , Neanderthals Cranial capacity =Homo habilis = 650 – 800 cc,
Homo erectus = 900 cc, Neanderthals = 1400 cc
(iii) During ice age / 75000 – 10000 years ago

Question.30. (a) Explain primary productivity and the factors that influence it.
(b) Describe how do oxygen and chemical composition of detritus control decomposition ?
Answer : (a) The amount of biomass produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis is defined as the primary productivity. It is expressed as weight (g-2) or energy (Kcal m-2).
Factors : Availability of nutrients, quality of light available, availability of water, temperature of the given place, type of plant species of the area, photosynthetic capacity of the plants; (b) Decomposition is an oxygen consuming process thus it is directly proportional to the concentration of the oxygen in the environment. It is controlled by the chemical composition of detritus and climatic conditions. The decomposition rate decreases when the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
OR
(a) What is El Nino effect? Explain how it accounts for biodiversity loss.
(b) Explain any three measures that you as an individual would take, to reduce environmental pollution.
Answer : (a) Rise in temperature leading to deleterious changes in the environment and resulting in odd climatic changes is El Nino effect. An El Nino event is a temporary change in the temperature, surface air pressure and currents of the Pacific Ocean in the region surrounding the equator. El Nino causes global warming and the melting of polar ice cap. This leads to the submerging of coastal regions and loss of species endemic to that area.
(b) The measures that we as an individual can take in order to reduce environmental pollution can be :

  1.  Reducing our garbage generation and dumping of organic waste in places far from residential areas.
  2.  Less use of fossil fuel and using car pool so as to reduce pollution and fuel consumption.
  3.  Turning off air conditioners when not in use.
  4. Planting more and more trees and deducing the deforestation.

SET-II

SECTION-A

Question.1. How does Penicillium reproduce asexually ?
Answer : Penicillium reproduces asexually by means of spores called conidia which are non-motile and developed on conidiospores.

Question.5. Mention the uses of cloning vector in biotechnology.
Answer : The uses of cloning vector in biotechnology:

  1.  Help in linking the foreign DNA with the host.
  2.  Help in the selection of recombinants from the non-recombinants.

Question.8. Mention the function of trophoblast in human embryo.
Answer: Functions of Trophoblast in human embryo :

  1.  During pre embryonic development stage (6 or 7 Day), the trophoblast cells contact with the endometrial lining and secrete enzyme that digest endometrial cells.
  2.  The trophoblast releases the hormone human chorionic gonadotrophin, it keeps corpus luteum alive and is useful for detection of pregnancy.

SECTION-B

Question.10. Name the oral pills used as a contraceptive by human females. Explain how does it prevent pregnancy.
Answer: The oral pill used as a contraceptive by human females is ‘Saheli’. Saheli inhibits ovulation and implantation. It alters the quality of cervical mucus and prevents the entry of sperms into the cervix.

Question.14. Explain the advantage of crossbreeding of the two species of sugarcane in India.
Answer : Saccharum barberi, grown in North India, had poor sugar content and yield, whereas saccharum officinarum, grown in South India, had thicker stem and higher sugar content, but did not grow well in North India. The hybrid produces by cross breeding of these two species has the following desirable traits :

  1.  High Yield
  2.  Thick stem
  3. High sugar content
  4.  Ability to grow in North Indian sugarcane fields.

OR
How do cellular barriers and cytokine barriers provide innate immunity in humans ?
Answer : Cellular Barriers : Leukocytes and monocytes are natural killers in the blood and they destroy microbes. Macrophages are present in the tissues. They phagocytose and destroy microbes.
Cytokine Barriers : Virus infected cells secrete proteins called interferons and protect non-infected cells from the viral infection.

SECTION-C

Question.19. Differentiate between geitonogamy and xenogamy in plants. Which one between the two will lead to inbreeding depression and why ?
Answer:
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-biology-delhi-2011-9
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-biology-delhi-2011-10

Question.22. A pea plant with purple flowers was crossed with white flowers producing 50 plants with only purple flowers. On selfing, these plants produced 482 plants with purple flowers and 162 with white flowers. What genetic mechanism accounts for these results ?
Answer:
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-biology-delhi-2011-11
Reason:
(i) Factors segregate from each other that remained together in a hybrid during gamete formation.
(ii) A homozygous parent produces all gamete that are similar while heterozygous parent produces two kinds of gametes in equal ratio.

Question.23. Mention the property of plant cells that has helped them to grow into a new plant in in-vitro conditions. Explain the advantages of micropropagation.
Answer : The property of plant cells that has helped them to grow into a new plant in in-vitro condition is totipotency. Advantages of micropropagation are :

  1.  Many important food plants like tomato, banana, apple etc. can be produced on a commercial scale.
  2.  It helps in recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants because of the presence of virus free meristem in tb,e plant.
    One can remove the meristem and grow it in vitro to obtain virus free plant. Scientists have succeeded in culturing meristem of banana, sugarcane, potato etc.

SECTION-D

Question.30.
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-biology-delhi-2011-12
(a) (i) Name the biogeochemical (nutrient) cycle shown above.
(ii) Name an activity of the living organisms not depicted in the cycle by which this nutrient is returned to the atmosphere.
(b) How would the flow of the nutrient in the cycle be affected due to large scale deforestation ? Explain giving reasons.
(c) Describe the effect of an increased level of this nutrient in the atmosphere on our environment.
Answer : (a) (i) The biogeochemical (nutrient cycle) shown is carbon cycle.
(ii) Decomposition of organic wastesby microbes is an activity of the living organisms is not depicted in the cycle.
(b) Deforestation leads to increase in carbon dioxide levels in the air. Because the CO2 present is not being utilized for photosynthesis in the absence of plants.
(c) The effect of an increased level of this nutrient in the atmosphere on our environment is due to human activity. Decomposers also contribute substantially to CO2 pool by their processing of waste materials and dead organic matter of land or oceans. The increased level of this gas produced higher global temperature and changes in precipitation patterns.
OR
(a) Healthy ecosystems are the base of wide range of (ecosystem) services. Justify.
(b) Explain the differences and the similarities between hydrarch and xerarch succession of plants.
Answer : (a)Healthy ecosystem provides following ecological services:

  1.  Purification of air and maintenance of gaseous composition.
  2. Mitigation of drought and floods.
  3. Cycling of nutrients.
  4.  Storehouse of carbon.
  5.  Maintainance of biodiversity.
  6.  Habitat for a number of wildlife.
  7. Influence of hydrological cycle.

(b) Differences between hydrarch and xerarch succession of plants :
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-biology-delhi-2011-13
Similarities: Both hydrarch and xerarch succession lead towards mesic conditions, e.g., with moderate water conditions.

SET-III

SECTION-A

Question.3. Why green plants are not found beyond a certain depth in the ocean ?
Answer : The green plants are not found beyond a certain . depth in the ocean because sunlight cannot penetrate beyond a certain depth.

Question.4. Write the scientific name of the microbe used for fermenting malted cereals and fruit juices.
Answer : Saccharomyces cervisiae is the scientific name of the microbe used for fermenting malted cereals ahd fruit juices.

SECTION-B

Question.9. State a dual role of deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate during DNA replication.
Answer: Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate serves dual purpose

  1.  It acts as substrate.
  2.  It also provides energy for polymerization reaction.

Question.13. Explain the role of Ti plasmids in biotechnology.
Answer : Ti Plasmid (tumor-inducing plasmid) refers to the plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefacims. A tumefaceiens is a plant pathogen and is known to produce tumours in the plants it infects.
Role of Ti plasmids in biotechnology; Ti plasmid can be modified into a cloning vector by removing the genes responsible for pathogenicity.

Question.16. State the functions of primary and secondary lymphoid organs in humans.
Answer : Role of primary and secondary lymphoid organs in humans are:
Primary Lymphoid Organs: Here immature lymphocytes are differentiated into antigen sensitive lymphocytes.
Secondary Lymphoid Organs: Where lymphocytes interact with antigen accessory cells and proliferate to become effector cells, resulting in the initiation of the antigen specific response.

Question.21. Why do you see two different types of replicating strands in the given DNA replication fork ? Explain Name these strands.
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-biology-delhi-2011-14
Answer :

  1. The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyse polymerization of the nucleotides only in 5’—>3’ direction. Since the two strands of DNA run in opposite direction, one is in 5’—>3’ and the other is in 3’—>5’ direction.
  2. Replication proceeds in two opposite directions. DNA synthesis is continuous on the 3’—>5’ template strand while on the other template strand with polarity 5’—>3’ direction, the synthesis of DNA is discontinuous i.e short stretches of DNA are formed.
    5’—>y Continuous sysnthesis 3’—>5’ Discontinuous sysnthesis

Question.25. (a) Why do farmer prefer biofertilizers to chemical fertilizer these days ? Explain.
(b) How do Anabaena and mycorrhiza acts as biofertilisers ?
Answer : (a) Farmer prefer biofertilizers to chemical fertilizer because:

  1.  Biofertilisers would be better in the long run because they contain organic materials while fertilizers contain chemical substanes that when used in excess become harmful to the consumers.
  2.  Continuous application of fertilizers to the soil, decreases its fertility and also leads to increase in the acidity of the soil.
  3.  Fertilizer run off from the fields also causes water pollution,

(b) Anabaena and mycorrhiza acts as biofertiliser, fungi sucii as Glomus form symbiotic associations with plants. This relationship is known as Mycorrhiza. They absorb phosphorus from the soil and pass it to plants.
Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostocalsoftx atmospheric nitrogen and act as bio – fertilisers especially in paddy fields.

Question.26. (a) Name the stage of plasmodium that gains entry into the human body.
(b) Trace the stages of plasmodium in the body of female Anopheles after its entry.
(c) Explain the cause of periodic recurrence of chill and high fever during malarial attack in humans.
Answer: (a) The stage of the plasmodium is Sporozoites.
(b) Plasmodium requires two hosts to complete its life cycle. When the Anopheles mosquito bites a diseased person, gametocytes of Plasmodium are introduced into the mosquito.
Gametocytes fertilises and developed inside the intestine of mosquito to form sporozoites. Sporozoites are stored in the salivary glands of mosquito and are released into a healthy person who is bitten by the mosquito.
(c) Parasites initially multiply within the liver and then attack the red blood cells resulting in their rupture. The rupture of RBCs is associated with the release of a toxic substance called haemozoin. Haemozoin is responsible for the chill and high fever recurring every three to four days.
OR
Trace the events that occur in human body to cause immunodeficiency when HIV gains entry into the body.
Answer: Events occurring in the human host after the entry of HIV:

  1. After entering in the human body, viruses enter into the macrophages.
  2.  Macrophages becomes a virtual HIV factory.
  3.  Thereafter HIV enters helper T-Lymphocytes, replicates and produces progenies.
  4. As the progenies are released they attack other T-Lymphocytes.
  5.  Therefore, T-lymphocytes start decreasing in number and immune response of the person become weak.
  6. Even infection that Could be overcome easily starts aggravating.

SECTION-D

Question.28. (a) Describe the stages of oogenesis in human females,
(b) Draw a labelled diagram of human ovum released after ovulation?
Answer: (a) Oogenesis is the formation of the egg (ovum) in the female.

  1. During fetal development females have oogonia which . are diploid sex cells.
    (i) While still in the womb the oogonia. divide by mitosis to form 14-1 million primary oocytes.
    (ii) These primary oocytes will begin the first meiotic division but stall during prophase I.
    (iii) The female is born with these primary oocytes.
  2.  By the time the female reaches puberty approximately 40,000 of the primary oocytes will remain.
  3. Beginning during puberty, each month hormones from the anterior pituitary stimulate a primary oocyte to complete the first meiotic division generating two secondary oocytes of unequal size.
    (i) The smaller secondary oocyte is called a polar body, containing one set of chromosomes.
    (ii) The larger secondary oocyte is the ovum (egg) that will be released from the ovary for fertilization by the spermatozoa.
    (a) Only if the ovum is fertilized will it continue the second meiotic division.
    (b) If fertilized the ovum divides again to produce a second polar body, with the fertilized ovum forming the diploid zygote.
    (c) If the ovum is not fertilized within 24 hours after release it will be broken down.
    (b)
    cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-biology-delhi-2011-15
    OR
    (a) When and where does spermatogenesis occur in human male ?
    (b) Draw a diagram of a mature human male gamete. Label the following parts: acrosome, nucleus, middle piece and tail.
    (c) Mention the function of acrosome and middle piece.
    Answer: (a) Spermatogenesis occur in testis at the time of puberty.
    (b) Diagram
    cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-biology-delhi-2011-16
    (c) Functions of acrosome : Acrosome contains hydrolytic enzymes that help in dissolving membranes of the ovum fo fertilization.
    Middle piece: It contains a number of mitochondria that provide energy for the movement of the tail and provides motility to sperm.

Distinction between Sale and Consignment

The following arc the points of distinction between a transaction of sale and a consignment transaction:

(i) Meaning: A contract of sale is a contract where the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the ownership of goods to the buyer for a consideration termed as “Price”. While consignment is despatbh of goods from one person to another at different place for the purpose of warehousing and ultimate selling.

(ii) Transfer of ownership: In case of sale, the ownership and risk ofthe goods passes to the buyerwliile in case of consignment, the ownership and theriskofgoodscontinues with the consignor till the consignee sells the goods to some other person.

(iii) Relationship: In case of sale, the relationship between the two parties is that of the seller and the buyer while in case of consignment, the relationship between the consignor and consignee is that of a principal and an agent.

 

 

 

Accountiug for Fixed Assets and Goodwill in case of Death of a Partner

AS 10 : Accountiug for Fixed Assets and Goodwill: It has already been stated while discussing treatment of goodwill in the preceding chapter, that goodwill account should be raised in the books only when it is paid for and not self-generated by the firm. Hence, the following treatment for goodwill should be preferred in case of retirement, death, change in profit sharing ratio or amalgamation of firms.

(i) Goodwill on Retirement: Death of a Partner: In the case of retirement of a partner, the continuing partners will gain in tenns of profit sharing ratio. Hence, the continuing partners have to share the burden ofthe share of goodwill of the retiring partner in their gaining ratio. In this case the retiring partner’s capital account should be credited with his share of goodwill and the continuing partners’ capital accounts should be debited with the amount in their gaining ratio. Alternatively, the total value ofhe goodwill may be raised by debiting the goodwill account and crediting all the partners’ capital account in the old profits sharing ratio. The goodwill may then be written off debiting the capital accounts of the remaining partners in the new ratio and crediting the goodwill account.

Partnership Accounting – Accounting Problems On Partners Retirement

Accounting Problems 

The accounting problems in the event of retirement of a partner can be put as follows:

(i) Adjustment for Goodwill,

(ii) Revaluation of assets  and liabilities.

(iii) Adjustment regarding Reserves and other undistributed profits.

(iv) Adjustments regarding profit sharing ratios.

(v) Payment to the retiring partner.

1. Goodwill. The retiring partner will be entitled to his share of goodwill in the (inn. The problem of goodwill can be dealt in the following two different ways:

(a) Where goodwill account is already appearing in the books:

In such a case if goodwill is properly valued, no further adjustment will be needed. The amount has already been credited to all the partners including the retiring partner.

(b) Where goodwill account is not appearing in lire book. 

Accounting Standard 10: Accounting for Fixed Assets and Goodwill

According to AS 10 Goodwill should be recorded in the books only when some consideration in money or money’s worth has been paid for it. In other words no goodwill account should be raised in case of internally generated goodwill.

When the new partner brings a portion of the required amount of goodwill.  In such a case, the amount brought in by the new partner should be shared by the old partners in the sacrificing ratio nd the portion of amount of goodwill not brought in by the new partner thould be adjusted through the capital accounts of partners by debiting new partner’s capital account with the amount and crediting the old partners’ capital accounts in their sacrificing ratio.

Where the new partner privately pays the amount of goodwill to old partners: In this case, no entry should be passed in the books of the firm. The amount to be paid to each partner should be calculated as per the profit-sacrificing ratio.

Partnership Accounts – Partners Retirement

RETIREMENT OF PARTNER 

Section 32 of the Partnership Act deals with the statutory provisions relating to retirement of a partner from partnership firm. These provisions are summarised below:

(i) A partner may retire from the firm

(a) in accordanc with an express agreement; or

(b) with consent of all other partners; or

(c) where the partnership is at will, by giving a notice in writing to all the other partners of his intention to retire.

(ii) A retiring partner may carry on business competing with that of the (in  and may advertise such business. Btt he has no right to:

(a) use the name of the firm,

(b) represent himself as carrying on the business of the firm,.or

(c) solicit the custom of the old customers of the firm except when he obtains these rights by an agreement with the other partners of the firm.

  • A retiring partner will not be liable for liabilities incurred by the firm after his retirement.  However, he must give a public notice to that effect Such a public notice is not necessary in case of a sleeping or dormant partner.
  • Retirement of a partner by death or insolvency also does not require, any public notice.

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 7

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 7

[Time Allowed : 3 hrs.]                                                                                              [Maximum Marks] : 100

General Instruction:

  1. All Questions are compulsory.
  2. Question numbers 1-5 are of 1 mark each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 20 words each.
  3. Question numbers 6-10 are of 2 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 40 words each.
  4. Question numbers 11-16 are of 4 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
  5. Question numbers 17-21 are of 5 marks each. The answers to this question should not exceed 150 words.
  6. Question numbers 22-27 are of 6 marks each. The answers to this question should not exceed 150 words.

Question.1. Write the full form of the following:
(a) UNCTAD (b) WMD
Answer. (a) UNCTAD stands for United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(b) WMD stands for Weapons of Mass Destruction

Question.2. How many judges are there in the International Court of Justice and what is their tenure ?
Answer. 15 Judges. Tenure: 9 years.

Question.3. Name any two significant agreements signed by the two superpowers in 1960s.
Answer. The US and the Soviet Union signed the following two agreements:
(i) Limited Test Ban Treaty
(ii) Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty and Anti-Ballistic Missile Treaty

Question.4. On which two main ideas did Bharatiya Jana Sangh lay emphasis ?
Answer. (i) Bharatiya Jana Sangh emphasised the idea of one country, one culture and one nation,
(ii) It called for a reunion of India and Pakistan as Akhand Bharat

Question.5. What is meant by’Punjab Accord’of 1985 ?
Answer. Punjab Accord of 1985 was signed between the then President of Akali Dal (Harchand Longowal) and the Late Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi. It was a step towards bringing normalcy in Punjab.

Question.6. In 2003, the United States along with about 40 countries, launched its invasion of Iraq in the name of preventing the development of weapons of mass destruction. Since no evidence of it was unearthed, what could be another reason for this invasion ?
Answer. The other reason for US irfVasion could be controlling Iraqi oilfields and installing a regime (power) which was friendly to the US.

Question.7. Mention any two advantages of having international organisations in the world.
Answer. (i) International organisations help deal with matters of war and peace.
(ii) They also help countries cooperate to make better living conditions for the humanity.

Question.8. Why did India not join either of the two superpower camps during the Cold War era ?
Answer. As a leader of Non-Aligned Movement, India’s response to the ongoing Cold War was two fold:
(i) At one level, it took particular care in staying away from the two alliances.
(ii) Second, it raised its voice against the newly decolonised countries becoming part of these alliances.

Question.9. What is meant by ‘Grand Alliance’ ?
Answer. It was an Electoral Alliance of all the major Non-communist and Non-Congress opposition parties. The SSP, PSP, Bharatiya Jana Sangh, Swatantra Party and the Bharatiya Kranti Dal came together under this umbrella.

Question.10. Describe the outcome of the ‘Assam Accord’ of 1985.
Answer. ‘Assam Accord’ was signed between Rajiv Gandhi-led government and AASU leaders over the issue of ‘outsiders’ in 1985.

  1.  According to this agreement those foreigners who migrated to Assam during and after Bangladesh war and since, were to be identified and deported.
  2. The Assam Gana Parisad came to power in 1985 with the promise of resolving the foreign
    nationals problem as well as to build a “Golden Assam”.

Question.11. What is meant by US hegemony ? Describe any two constraints on the US hegemony.
Answer. The US domination in military, economic and cultural aspects over other nations to show her supremacy is known as US hegemony.
Constraints on American Power:

  1.  The institutional architecture of the American state itself, i.e., they follow a system of division of powers between the three organs of the government.
  2.  The open nature of American society and political culture, i.e., the American mass media may promote or impose a particular issue on domestic public opinion but never opposed the purposes of methods of government in American political culture.
  3.  The most important constraint is that there is only one organisation, i.e. NATO, in the international system that can moderate the exercise of American power today.

Question.12. Highlight any two issues of cooperation as well as confrontation each between India and Bangladesh.
Answer. India-Bangladesh Co-operation:
(i) Economic relations have improved considerably over the past ten years.
(ii) Bangladesh is part of India’s “Look East Policy”. On disaster Management and environmental issues both the countries co-operate regularly.
India-Bangladesh confrontation:
(a) The countries have had differences over several issues including the sharing of Ganga and Brahmaputra waters.,
(b) The Indian government has been unhappy with Bangladesh regarding the denial of illegal
immigration to India and refusal to allow Indian troops to move through its territory to North Eastern India. –

Question.13. Explain the importance and role of the concept ‘common but differentiated’ pertaining to the environment.
Answer. It is very significant that compromise and accommodation are the two essential policies” required by states to save planet Earth. But there is a difference in the approach to environment between the countries of the North and the South. We can throw light on the ongoing negotiations between the North and South on environmental issues as follows:

  1.  The developed countries of the north want to discuss the environment issue as it stands now and want everyone to be equally responsible for ecological conservation.
  2.  At the same time the developing countries of the South feel that much of the ecological degradation in the world is the product of industrial development undertaken by the developed countries.
  3.  And to the most if developed countries have caused more degradation they must also take more responsibility for ongoing damage now.
    On the other side the developing countries are in the process of industrialization and they must not be subjected to the same restrictions which apply to the developed countries.
    The special needs of the developing countries must be taken into account in the development, application and interpretation of rules of International Environmental Law. And this argument was accepted in the Rio Declaration at the “Earth Summit” in 1992 under the principle of common but differentiated responsibility.

Question.14. How was the Planning Commission of India set up ? Mention its scope of work.
Answer. The Planning Commission of India was set up in 1950 by a cabinet resolution and not by a law of parliament; thus, it is an “Extra-Constitutional body”.
Planning Commission does not have a statutory or constitutional status. It is supposed to be ‘advisory’ in nature but in reality it is very powerful and is called the “Economic Cabinet of the Country”.
In India, planning was taken up as to give economic content to political freedom.

  1.  Planning was to be an instrument of socio-economic change.
  2.  It was to provide a controlled and faster rate of growth.
  3.  It was intended to convert political democracy into socio-economic democracy.
  4. It was taken up with the objective to resolve the contradictions of an unequal society.

Question.15. Explain any four Directive Principles of State Policy related to the promotion of international peace and security.
Answer. In the Indian Constitution Article 51 deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy on “Promotion of international peace and security”.
The Article states that the state shall endeavour to:

  1.  promote international peace and security.
  2.  maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
  3. foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organised people with one another.
  4.  encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.
    Thus, Indian Constitution envisages directions to the state administration for the promotion of international peace.

Question.16. Why was the year 1967 considered a landmark year in India’s political and electoral history ? Explain.
Answer. The fourth general election was held in 1967 in the context of heightened popular discontent and the polarization of political forces. The Congress was facing the electorate for the first time without Nehru.

  1.  The election verdict was not in fovour of the Congress. The results jolted the Congress both at the national and state levels.
  2. Half the ministers in Indira Gandhi’s cabinet were defeated. The political leaders who lost in their constituencies included Kamraj in Tamil Nadu, S.K. Patil in Maharashtra, Atulya Ghosh in West Bengal and K.B. Sahay in Bihar.
  3. Not only this, the Congress party lost majority in as many as seven states and in two other states, defections prevented it from forming a government.
  4.  However, this was the first time any non-Congress party had secured a majority of its own in any state. In the othy eight states coalition governments, consisting of different non-Congress parties, were formed.
    Thus, many contemporary political observers described the election results as a “Political Earthquake”.

Question.17. Read the paragraph given below carefully and answer the following questions:
We have a Muslim minority who are so large in numbers that they cannot, even if they want, go anywhere else. That is a basic fact about which there can be no argument. Whatever the provocation from Pakistan and whatever the indignities and horrors inflicted on non-Muslims there, we have got to deal with this minority in a civilised manner. We must give them security and the rights of citizens in a democratic State. If we fail to do so, we shall have a festering sore which will eventually poison the whole body politic and probably destroy it.
Jawaharlal Nehru, Letter to Chief Ministers, 15 October 1947.
(i) In spite of indignities and horrors inflicted on non-Muslims by Pakistan, why Jawaharlal Nehru.wanted to deal with the Muslim minority in a civilised way ?
(ii) Why this minority should be given the security and rights on the same footing as all others in a democratic system.
(iii) If this minority was not provided security and rights what kind of scenario is envisaged ?
Answer. (i) Because Muslim minority in India were large in numbers. It is their right to go anywhere and settle but in a democratic set up everyone must be given an equal opportunity.
(ii) J.L. Nehru argued that we must give the Muslim minority security and the rights of citizens in a democratic state. Apart from ethical and sentimental reasons, there are some prudential reasons which helped India to realise its long charised goals and principles such as socialism, equality, liberty and fraternity.
(iii) If we fail to provide security and rights to minorities, it will affect the basic nature of the democratic system and is also against the secular principles of India. It may eventually affect not only India’s foreign policy and also pose a threat to other minorities in India. It may lead to disintegration of Indian states.

Question.18. Answer the following questions based upon the following Press Report:
‘Bharatiya Kisan Union wants agriculture out of WTO purview’
By our Staff Correspondent Mysore, Feb. 15
The Bharatiya Kisan Union has warned of socio-economic upheavals in the country if India does not bargain to keep agriculture out of the purview of the World Trade Organisation.
Addressing a press conference here today, the Chief of the Uriion, Mahender Singh Tikait and its National Coordinating Committee Convener, M. Yudhveer Singh warned of impending dangers if India goes ahead and agrees to the stipulations of the WTO in the next round of meetings scheduled to be held in Hong Kong in November. Courtesy: The Hindu, February 16, 2005
(a) What is B.K.U. ?
(b) Why is it against the W.T.O. ?
(c) What dangers are anticipated for Indian agriculture from the W.T.O. ?
Answer. (a) B.K.U. signifies the ‘Bhartiya Kisan Union’. It was the organization of farmers which protested against the policies of the.state especially the process of liberalisation of Indian Economy. It was the agrarian struggle of farmers.
(b) B.K.U. is against WTO because it wants agriculture out of the WTO perview. It is also against the restrictions on the Inter-state movement of farm produce.
(c) Impending dangerous are anticipated for Indian Agriculture from the WTO purview. There is the danger of market crisis for the cash crops.

Question.19. Read the extract on globalisation and answer the following:
“Globalisation, however, does not emerge merely because of the availability of improved communications. What is important is for people in different parts of the world to recognise these interconnections with the rest of the world. Currently we are aware of the fact that events taking place in one part of the world could have an impact on another part of the world.”
(a) What is globalisation ?
(b) Write .economic, cultural and political consequences of globalisation, (one point each.)
(c) What steps were taken by India in resisting globalisation ?
Answer. (a) Globalisation simply means integration of our economy with world economy.
(b) Economic consequences:

  1.  Globalisation has involved greater trade in commodities across the globe.
  2.  The restrictions imposed by other countries on allowing the imports have been reduced.

Cultural consequences:

  1.  The rise of uniform culture, called as cultural homogenisation.
  2.  Global culture is the imposition of Western culture on the rest of the world.

Political consequences:

  1.  In place of welfare state, it is the market that becomes the prime determinant of economic and social priorities.
  2. The entry and increased role of MNCs all over the world leads to a reduction in the capacity of governments to take decisions on their own. (one point each)

(c) The Steps are:

  1.  The ‘Left’ wing protests against economic liberalisation.
  2.  Indian Social Forum also raised voices against globalisation.
  3.  The entry of MNCs is opposed by the trade unions of industrial workforce and farmers.
  4. The patenting of certain plants like Neem by American and European firms has also generated considerable opposition .

Question.20.
solved-cbse-sample-papers-for-class-12-political-science-set-7-1
Study the cartoon given above and answer the following questions:
(i) Why is the girl shown in the cartoon not worried about whether it is a single party or a coalition government’?
(ii) Does a coalition government involve more compromises ? If yes, then why ?
(iii) Do you think we can have bold and imaginative policies in a coalition government why?
Answer. (i) The nature of government may be single or coalition, what matters is what they do actually when they come to power, how are their policies and programmes in fulfilling the needs of the people and improvements in the society
(ii) In general, a coalition government involves more compromises because it is the combination of many political parties (National as well as regional parties) and they agree upon making policies together and also to share power according to their needs and demands.
(iii) Bold and imaginative policies are possible in a coalition government because the regional parties play an important role in the decision making process. Moreover, coalition of political parties announces common programmes or manifestos during the election process and try to achieve the same when they come to power.

Question.21. In the given map of the European Union, identify and write the names of four old members marked as A, B, C and D and four new members marked as P, Q, R and S in your Answer-Book
solved-cbse-sample-papers-for-class-12-political-science-set-7-2
Answer. A Finland B Denmark C Austria D Ireland
P Estonia Q Poland R Hungary S Lithuania

Question.22. Analyse any six factors which helped the Soviet Union in becoming a superpower after the Second World War.
Or
What is Non-Aligned Movement ? Examine any two of its points of criticism. Also
explain any two of its value points and enduring ideas.
Answer. Factors that helped the Soviet Union become a super power after the Second World War were:

  1.  The Soviet economy was the second largest next to the US. It is the largest economy in Europe.
  2. Soviets have abundant natural resources like oil, iron and steel and other minerals. It ensures ready raw material and industrial production at the faster rate.
  3.  Transport and communications are well developed and connected to remote areas with efficiency.
  4. The domestic industry produces all the basic needs with quality and also in a cheaper rate. This helps the people to live comfortable life.
  5.  The Soviet government provided basic necessities like education and health through subsidy. It also introduced many welfare schemes to women and children.
  6.  As the land and land productive assets are owned by the Government, unemployment problem is minimised.

Or
Non-Aligned Movement means not to join any of the military blocs. It was founded in 1961 at Belgrade Conference by decolonised countries.
Non-alignment is a policy which means abstention from power politics, keeping away from military alliances and Cold War. It stands for peaceful coexistence and active cooperation among all states for world peace and does not shirk from international responsibilities. Non-alignment advocates an impartial approach towards world issues without being influenced by either bloc.

  1.  NAM was based on a recognition that decolonised states share a historical affiliation.
  2.  It also means that tfie poor and often very small countries of the world need not join any of the military blocs and they could pursue an independent foreign policy.

Criticism of NAM : .

  1.  India’s non-alignment was said to be “unprincipled”, in the name of pursuing its national interest. India, it was said, often refused to take a firm stand on crucial international issues.
  2.  Secondly, it is suggested that India was inconsistent and took contradictory postures. Having criticised others for joining alliances, India signed the 20-Year Treaty of Friendship in August 1971 with the USSR. This was regarded, particularly by outside observers, as virtually joining the “Soviet alliance system”.

Values:
NAM stresses for the maintaing of sovereignty and interparty of the nation with being subdued by any external power.
It stands for mutual cooperation, in constructive approach and equal status.
It is based on the idea of morality, liberty and peaceful consistence. It does not mean isolation or neutrality but active players in the process of peace

Question.23. How far did the UN perform its role successfully in maintaining peace in the world ? Explain.
Or
Explain the factors responsible for Pakistan’s failure in building a stable democracy. Describe any two pro-democracy factors present in Pakistan which can pave the way for establishing a lasting democratic set-up over there.
Answer. In spite of UN’s failure in preventing wars and related miseries, nations prefer its continuation because without it the world would be worse off.

  1.  In the growing need of interdependence and globalisation, it is hard to imagine how more than seven billion people would live together without an organisation such as the UN.
  2.  Technological promises to increase planetary interdependence have also increased the importance of the UN.
  3. Many global problems like poverty, unemployment, environmental degradation, international crime, AIDS, international migration can be tackled only through international cooperation. The UN provides the best mechanism available to mobilise and sustain such cooperation.
  4. Not only this, the UN and its agencies provide financial assistance to developing countries in the form of grants and loans of over dollar 25 billion a year. They also help build economics and help stabilize financial markets.
  5.  Furthermore, in a world threatened by conflict, the UN provides the means for instant consultations among governments, as well as the forum for dealing with long-term problems.
    In this way, in spite of being an imperfect body, there is no doubt that the UN has been playing an important role not only in promoting peace and international understanding but also in changing the entire structure of mankind for a happier world. Hence, it is an indispensable organisation.

Or
Several factors have contributed to Pakistan’s failure in building a stable democracy.
Social Dominance: The social dominance of the military, clergy and land owning aristocracy has led to the frequent overthrow of elected governments and the establishing of military governments.
Conflict with India : Pakistan’s conflict with India has made the paramilitary groups more powerful. These groups have often said that political parties and democracy in Pakistan are flawed, that Pakistan’s security would be harmed by selfish-minded parties and chaotic democracy, hence, the army staying in power is justified.
Lack of International Support: The lack of genuine international support for a democratic rule in Pakistan has further encouraged the military to continue its dominance. The United States and other western countries have encouraged the military’s authoritarian rule in the past in their own interests.
Global Islamic Terrorism : As the western powers assumed the threat of “Global Islamic Terrorism” and their apprehension that Pakistan’s nuclear arsenal might fall into the hands of these terrorist groups, the military regime in Pakistan was seen as the protector of western interests in West Asia and South Asia.
All this shows that Pakistan prefers military rule to the democratic set-up, both, because of internal and external factors…..

  1. Pakistan has a courageous and relatively free press.
  2.  It also has a strong human rights movement.

Question.24. What was the States Reorganisation Commission ? When was it constituted ? What was the most important recommendation of this Commission ?
Or
Assess any two causes of the partition of India in 1947. Explain any four of its consequences.
Answer. State Reorganisation Commission was a body appointed by Government to organise the states and to rearrange the boundaries.
It was constituted in 1953.

  1.  The formation of Andhra Pradesh accelerated/initiated the struggle for making other states on linguistic lines in other parts of the country.
  2. Thus, the most important recommendation of this commission in 1955 was that states could be organised and formed based on the languages. The boundaries of the states could reflect the linguistic aspects.
  3.  For example, the Madras Province under British India was later bifurcated into the following states based on the language spoken by the people of that area:
    Andhra Pradesh (Telugu)
    Tamil Nadu (Tamil)
    Kerala (Malayalam)
    Karnataka (Kannada)
  4.  Based on the Commission Report, the State Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956 and 14 states and 6 union territories were created.

Or
Causes of the Partition of India :

  1. In the Indian context the word partition signifies the division of British India into India and Pakistan. The process of partition started in 1940 when the Muslim League propounded the “Two-Nation Theory”. According to this theory India consisted of not one but two “people”— (Hindus and Muslims.)
  2.  Several political developments in 1940s, the political competition between the Congress and the Muslim League and the British role led to the demand for the creation of Pakistan. Thus it was decided that India will be divided into two countries— India and Pakistan.
    Consequences of Partition:
    (a) Communal Riots : In the name of religion people of one community ruthlessly killed and maimed people of the other. There were killings and atrocities on both sides of the border. Cities like Lahore, Amritsar and Kolkata divided into “communal zones”.
    (b) Social Sufferings: People went through immense sufferings. They were forced to abandon their homes and move across the border. Minorities on both sides of the border fled their homes and often secured temporary shelter in “refugee camps”. Thousands of women were abducted on both sides of the border.
    (c) In many cases women were killed by their own family members to preserve the “family honour”.
    Many children were separated from their parents. Those who did manage to cross the border found that they had no home. Hence, for lakhs of these “refugees” the country’s freedom meant life in’refugee camps’.
    (d) Administrative Concerns and Financial Strains: The partition saw not merely a division of properties, liabilities and assets or a political division of the country and the administrative apparatus, the employees of government and the railways were also divided.

Question.25. “With two successive election victories at the Centre as well as in the States in 1971, the dominant position of the Congress Party was restored.” Do you agree? State any three arguments in support of your answer.
Or
“Governments that are perceived to be antidemocratic are severely punished by the voters.” Explain the statement with reference to the emergency period of 1975-77.
Answer. The electoral contest of 1971 was a landmark in the Indian politics. It was the restoration of Congress (R). Actually this electoral contest appeared to be loaded against Congress (R). After all the new Congress was just one faction of an already weak party. Everyone believed that the real organisational strength of the Congress party was under the command of Congress (O). ‘

  1. To make matters worse for Indira Gandhi, all the major non-Communist, non-Congress opposition parties formed an electoral alliance known as the “Grand Alliance”.
  2.  The new Congress under Indira Gandhi had something that its big opponents lacked—it had an issue, an agenda and a positive slogan.
  3. The Grand Alliance did not have a coherent political programme rather it had only one common programme, i.e., “Indira Hatao” (Remove Indira).
    In contrast to this she put forward a positive programme captured in the famous slogan: Garibi Hatao, i.e., Remove poverty.
    Thus, the slogan of Garibi Hatao and the programmes that followed it were part of Indira Gandhi’s political strategy of building an independent nationwide political support base during the electoral contest of 1971.

Or
The given statement is justified because emergency of 1975 at once brought out both weaknesses and the strength of India’s democracy. Many observers think that India ceased to be democratic during the emergency.

  1.  It was a period of political crisis with changes in the party system. The party in power had absolute majority and yet its leadership decided to suspend the democratic process.
  2.  The result of the 1977 election took everyone by surprise. For the first time, since. independence, the Congress Party was defeated and brought to an end the one party dominance. It opened the way for the opposition and the coalition type of government.
  3.  Basically, the most valid reason for the defeat of the Congress Party was the people’s verdict. The opposition fought the election on the slogan of ‘Save Democracy’.
  4.  The Janata Party made this election a referendum on-emergency: Its campaign was focussed on the Vion-democratic character of the rule and the various excesses that took place during this period.
  5.  The 1977 elections turned into a referendum on the experience of the emergency and proved that ‘Governments that are perceived to be anti-democratic are severely punished by the voters.’
  6.  The opposition parties led by Jayaprakash Narayan could be an alternative and misuse , of power during emergency proved to be the total collapse of the Congress.

Question.26. Regional demands from different parts of India exemplify the principle of unity with diversity. Do you agree ? Give reasons.
Or
What have been the major trends in the electoral performance of the Congress and the BJP since 1989 ?
Answer. We do agree with the statement the at regional demands from different parts of India exemplify the principle of unity with diversity because India adopted a democratic approach to the question of diversity and allows the political expressions of regional aspirations and does not look upon them as anti-national.

  1. Besides, our democratic politics allows parties and groups to address the people on the basis of their regional identify, aspiration and specific regional problems.
  2.  At the same time, Indian democratic politics also means that regional issues and problems will receive adequate attention and accommodation in the policy making process. For instance, easel of regional aspirations of Assam, Punjab, North-East, Kashmir, etc. While concluding we can say that regional aspirations are not encouraged to espouse separation. Political conflicts over issues of power of the regions, their rights and their separate existence are common to Indian nation that want to respect diversity while trying to forge and retain unity.
    Thus, politics in India has succeeded in accepting regionalism as part and parcel of democratic politics by maintaining its diversity.

Or
The major trends in the electoral performance of the Congress and BJP since 1989 can be seen as follows:

  1. In the elections of 1989, Congress secured 197 seats (largest single party) but did not get the majority. Therefore, it decided to sit in the opposition.
  2. The National Front under V.P. Singh came to power supported by Left Front and BJP from outside.
  3.  The assassination of Rajiv Gandhi in May 1991 led to the emergence of Congress as the largest single party and it formed the Government. It was supported by AIADMK.
  4. In 1996, the BJP minority government was formed for a short period. Later in June 1996
    United Front with the support of Congress formed the Government. H.D. Deve Gowda became the Prime Minister and after 11 months I.K. Gujral came to power who ryled till March 1998.
  5.  From March 1998 to October 1999, BJP and others formed the NDA (National Democratic Alliance) under the leadership of A.B. Vajpayee. The regional parties demanded more share in the government to extend their support.
  6. In the elections of May 2004, the Congress and its alliance partners formed UPA (United Progressive Alliance) and came to power with Dr. Manmohan Singh as the Prime Minister.
    In general, the elections since 1989 reflected the ‘Era of Multi Party system’ and ‘Coalition Era’. It also led to the decline of Congress era and the emergence of minority government and more importantly the role of regional parties in forming and running the central government.

Question.27. Suppose the Cold War had not taken place and there were several major powers at the end of the Second World War. How would that situation have affected India’s foreign policy ? Identify any three aspects or regions and imagine the difference.
Or
Suppose the Soviet Union had not disintegrated and the world was still a bipolar as it was in mid-1980s. How would it have affected the developments in the last two decades? Identify any three regions or domains and the developments that may not have taken place in that kind of a world.
Answer. The cold war, started between the two super powers and the race for the dominant super power, led to many far reaching consequences. Whether cold war had taken place or not, it would affect the India’s foreign policy.
When India got independence in 1947, it faced many challenges which cautioned our leaders to be careful about India’s foreign policy. Due to cold war, NAM was established, and if not, India could have an independent foreign policy. It may have joined many like minded major powers for mutual benefits in various fields.
Due to NAM we did notjoin any military power otherwise India could be compelled to join the arms race considering the rivalry between the major powers.
India might have emerged as a super power in Asia because of its large territory, human resource and strategic location.
India might have increased its nuclear weapons and other weapons and could be one of the leaders to provide arms to other countries.
Or
Had the Soviet Union not disintegrated in 1991, it could have affected the developments in the following ways:

  1.  The cold war came to an end with the disintegration of Soviet Union and the concept of Bipolar World also ended. The cold war might have continued with the association of arms race.
  2.  The dominance of the US as economic and military power could not have taken place.
  3. Many incidents of cold war period would have led’to another world war (Third world war) and it might have caused the disappearance of the major powers.
  4. Accumulation of nuclear weapons would have continued and threat of war situation would have arisen any time.
  5.  Most of the countries which were part of erstwhile USSR would have never got independence. This stands for Soviet Union as the Big power.
  6.  Civil wars in Soviet Republics and Eastern Europe could have been avoided.
  7.  The intervention of US in the internal matters of Afghanistan and Iraq would not have taken place. It is to be noticed that US rejected the UN decision on Iraq matters.
  8.  Many international serious problems like terrorism, neo-colonialism, global warming, etc. would have been tackled by both the super powers.

CBSE previous Year Solved Papers Class 12 Physical Education Outside Delhi 2016

CBSE previous Year Solved  Papers  Class 12 Physical Education Outside Delhi 2016

Time allowed : 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

  1.  The question paper consists of 26 questions.
  2. All question are compulsory.
  3. Answer to questions carrying 1 mark should be in approximately 10-20 words.
  4. Answer to questions carrying 3 marks should be in approximately 30-50 words ,
  5.  Answer to questions carrying 5 marks should be in approximately 75-100 words.

SECTION – A

Question.1. Write formula for giving Bye.
Answer : Formula for giving Bye = Next power of 2 – No. of Teams
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-physical-education-outside-delhi-2016-1

Question.2.What are Natural Resources in Adventure sports ?
Answer: Natural resources are useful raw materials that we get from the earth. They can be used or utilized by people. Natural Resources in Adventure sports are national parks, Safaries and wildlife Sanctuaries are good places for out-door adventure activities. And so many thinks like light, air, water, stones, minerals, plants, animals, etc. people need these natural resources to live and stay alive.

Question.3.What are the Micro Nutrients ?
Answer: Vitamins, minerals are the micronutrients. These are required in small proportion in our diet like vitamins and minerals. They are considered as supplement food, they act as defensive food and help the proper functioning of various organs such vitamins, minerals.

Question.4.Suggest any two free hand exercises for correcting round shoulder.
Answer: 1. Chakra Asana, Dhanur Asana, Bhujang Asana, Ushtt Asaina, Backward Banding.
2.Pull the shoulders backward and see upward.

Question.5.  Explain the importance of fluid intake during competition.
Answer : During the activity or competition sports drinks helps extend time to exhaustion and improves performance for the competition lasting longer in
extreme heat. Sports drinks provide hydration as well as carbohydrate.

Question.6. What is Oesteoporosis ?
Answer: Osteoporosis is weakening of bone mass due to deficiency of calcium and vitamin D and results in poor bone. This condition declines the performance and leads to bone injuries.

Question.7. Explain the procedure for Eight Foot Up and Go Test.
Answer: This test is designed to measure speed, agility (coordinative ability) and balance while moving. The equipments required is stopwatch, straight back chair (approximately 45 cm high) cone markers, measuring tape, safe and clear area.

  1.  Place the chair against wall and mark a cone eight feet away in front of chair.
  2.  Clear the path between the chair and the marker.
  3.  The person sits on chair, hands resting on knees and feet flat on chair.
  4.  On the command ‘GO’ timing starts and person is instructed to walk (on running) around the cone as quickly as possible and sit down on the chair.
  5. Scoring is counted as time taken to perform this. Two trials are conducted and lowest time in seconds is considered for scoring.

Question.8. What is “Stroke Volume”?
Answer: Amount of blood pumped by left ventricle in per beat.
At rest period-50 to 70 ml/beat.
During Exercise-110 to 130 ml/beat OR
Amount of blood ejected by heart in one stroke.

Question.9. What kind of sports injury can be termed as “Abrasion” ?
Answer: Abrasion is injury on the surface of the skin. In this injury skin is scrapped or rubbed by friction.
It causes severe pain and sometimes bleeding over affected part. Abrasion are very common sports injuries caused by fall on hard surfaces..

Question.10. Explain, what is “Dynamic Friction” ?
Answer: Dynamic friction is the force of friction which come into play when a body moves over the sufrace of anotherbody.
(1) Sliding Friction (2) Rolling Friction.

Question.11. How participation in physical activities enhances self esteem among children ?
Answer: Self-esteem is based on our ability to assess ourselves accurately and still be accepting of who we are. This means being able to acknowledge our strengths and weakness and at the same time recognize that we are worthy and worthwhile.

Question.12. Explain, what is strength and write the methods of improving strength?
Answer: Muscular strength is the highest amount of effort exerted by the muscles of the body in order to overcome the most resistance in a single effort. Strength refers to a muscle’s ability to generate force against physical objects, Training methods for strength development.

  1. Isometric Exercises.
  2. Isotonic Exercises.
  3. Isokinetic Exercises.

Question.13. Write about the deformities of spinal curvature.
Answer : There are three types of spinal curvature deformities like kyphosis, lordosis and scolosis.

  1. Kyphosis ’round shoulders’: It is the postural defect in which shoulder are projected forward (shoulders are bent forward, the chin is downward and head is bent forward)
  2. Lordosis: Lordosis is the problem of lumbar-spine, lordosis is an inward curvatureo£a portion of the vertebral column. Here the vertebral column is curved backward and the individual leans backward while standing.
  3.  Scoliosis : It is the problem of spine in which vertebral column bends to sideward. Scoliosis causes one shoulder down and other is raised up.

Question.14. What safety measures children should be taught while participating in River Rafting?
Answer: Safety measures are safe raft swim suit, life jacket, raft push, knowledge of swimming and life guard instructions, knowledge about river flow and its curver, safe destination point.

Question.15. Draw a fixture of 11 Football teams participating in a Tournament on the basis of knock out.
Answer: Total number of teams =11
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-physical-education-outside-delhi-2016-2
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Question.16. How various committies are formed for Tournaments ? Write briefly.
Answer: Arrangement committee, Technical committee, Discipline committee, Reception committee, Boarding and lodging committee, Ceremonial committee, Press and media committee, Certificate writing committee, Medical committee, Announcement committee, Recorders and bulletin board committee.

Question.17. Sports are good for all age groups. Competitive sport
is a showcase of power at the international arena. Supremacy over the other country is indirectly shown by standing at the top of medal tally. To achieve their target few countries are imparting very strict training to growing children. Over the years many organisations have raised their voice against the intensity with which training is scheduled for making an international athletes.
(i) Elaborate any two physiological benefits of exercise in children.
(ii) What are the disadvantages of giving high intensity training to the growing children ?
Answer :
(i).Improves cardiovascular system and Health.
(ii).

  1. Stress/fatigue.
  2.  Chances of overload.
  3. Early maturity.
  4. Can reach too early top form.
  5. Less flexibility.
  6.  Chances of injury.

Question.18. Briefly explain different types of co-ordinative abilities.
Answer:

  1. Adaptive ability: According to predictable changes in circumstances, it is the capability of a sports person to result in an effectual alteration in the movement.
  2. Balance ability: It is the capability of a sports person to sustain balance of the body together in static and dynamic conditions.
  3.  Combinatory ability: This ability depends upon the functional capacity of kinesthetic and optic sense organs as it has particular significance of gymnastics, combative sports and team games.

Question.19. Write briefly about protein as an essential component of diet.
Answer: Protein is needed for growth and development of body. It helps to repair or replace the worn out tissues, it does not provide energy in normal routine where as it acts as energy source only Under extreme starvation (hunger) There are two types of proteins.

  1. Essential protein.
  2. Non – essential protein.

Question.20. Write in detail about the physical and physiological advantages of physical exercises during the childhood stage.
Answer :

  1. Exercise helps in healthy growth and development: Exercise is an important part of keeping children healthy. Encouraging healthy lifestyles in children and adolescents is important for when they grow older. Participating in organized sports and games is not only of great fun but is very essential for healthy growth and development.
  2.  Exercise improve self-esteem: Exercise is necessary for your physical and mental health. Self-esteem can play a great role in how children feel about themselves and also how much they enjoy things or worry about things. Exercise reduces depressive symptoms and improves self-esteem in children.
  3. Exercise makes heal their weight range: These days a lot of children not only in India but also throughout the world are getting overweight which is the root cause of various physiological problems. Regular exercise is important to control weight as it helps in burning extra calories and lowers the weight.
  4. Exercise makes stronger bones, muscles and joints : Exercise is vital for strong muscles, bones and joints. Exercise may help children lower their risk of chronic pain related to muscles, bones and joints in the future. Exercise increase bone density which helps to make bones stronger. Exercise is beneficial in building strong and health muscles. Joints require motion to stay healthy.
  5.  Exercise strengthens the heart: Exercise helps to improve heart health, and can even reverse some heart disease risk factors. The resting heart rate of those who exercise is also slower, because less effort is needed to pump blood. A child who exercises often has the lowest risk for heart disease, but any amount of exercise is beneficial’.

Question.21. How the Cardiovascular Fitness is measured with the help of “Harvard Step Test” ? Write in detail about its administrative procedure.
Answer: This test was developed in 1943 by Brouha to measure the cardiovascular fitness of the individual. Requirements of test:
1. Gym Bench (45cm high)    2. Stopwatch       3. Assistant /Helper.
In this test, the student step-up and step-down on the gym bench for 5 minutes or until exhaustion at a rate of 30 steps/minute.

  1.  Firstly, the student performs warm-up and comes near the gym bench.
  2.  At the command of ‘GO’ the student starts to step- up and step-down on the gym bench whereas assistant starts the stopwatch at same time.
  3.  This goes on for five minutes.
  4. The assistant measures the heart rate (beats per minute) after one minute of test finish as pulse 1.
  5. The assistant measures the heart rate (beats per minute) after two minutes of test finish as pulse 2.
  6.  The assistant again measures the heart rate (bpm) after three minutes of test finish as pulse 3.
    RUSELT = 30000/(pulse 1 + pulse 2 +pulse 3)

Question.22. Keeping in view of the Indian Ideology, critically analyse the sociological aspect of Women Athletes in sports participation.
Answer: It has been decades that gender ideology has had a tremendous impact on the way people view the game and its athletes. Over the generations, it has been considened that sports is predominantly for man, and woman are not that adept at such plysical acts. In India till recent year, woman has been threated and accorded only for their roles of being wife, mother and home-maker. It has only in 1930, that woman began to participate in sports.
Time and again, the government policies has helped rural women of different regions but then several drawbacks still occurred. The belief that men are much stonger, faster and more capable than women, and more entertain to watch has been a major provoking influence to the mindset of people over generations. Some of the ways through which the sociological aspect of women Athletes in sports participation has highlighted are: Equality in society, motivation from parents, encouragement for institutions, respect in society, develop confidence, safe playing environment, good coaching and training facility, financial Aid, government policies.

Question.23. Participation in physical activity for a longer duration maintain functional fitness among aged population. . Justify.
Answer: On the ageing process, physical activity can play very effective role, however, it should be implemented in a suitable manner. It is a well known fact that regular physical activity is the supplement to delay the ageing process. It can in some cases, overturn the most common signs of ageing viz., loss of muscles and bones, increased body fats, decline of memory, decreased metabolism, flexibility and blood flow etc. Participation in physical activity for a longer duration maintain functional fitness among aged population in following manner:

  1. Reduces loss of muscles mass : With advancing age the muscle mass decreases. The accumulation of fats reduces due to regular exercise. Ageing has a depressing consequence on metabolism. Regular physical activity results in dropping the metabolic rate and decreases the loss of lean body mass.
  2. Maintains bone density: With advancement of age, bone density decreases as well generally leading to the rupture or osteoporosis. Phycical activity assist in mainting bone mass and prevent osteoporosis. Bone growth gets stimulated with resistance exercises.
  3. Improves lungs capacity : Oxygen uptake and exchange increases and enhances the lungs capacity due to regular exercise. In maintenance of strong lungs, it plays prominent role and reduces the loss of elasticity of the lungs and chest wall.
  4. Lessens stress and tension : Regular physical activity has a distinctive capability to slow down the depression process by reducing stress and tension. Actually, regular physical activity lessens the levels of body as stress hormones like adrenaline and cortisol. The body’s natural painkillers and mood elevators like the endorphins are produced due to regular physical activity.

Question.24. Differentiate between Intrinsic and Extrinsic motivation. Explain in detail Goal setting and Rein-forcement as technique of motivation.
Answer:
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-physical-education-outside-delhi-2016-4
cbse-previous-year-solved-papers-class-12-physical-education-outside-delhi-2016-5
Goal setting: Achieving performance goals is a symbol of competency that affects motivation positively, hence it is essential to set realistic goals based on individual’s own abilities. The level of the motivation gets adversely affected when goals are set up too high or too low. The goal should be realistic, precise and within reach but should at the same time be a difficult one. Goal settings have been acknowledged as an influential motivational technique as it mobilizes an athlete’s hard work and extends his determination.
Reinforcement: Reinforcement is a vital motivational means. It refers to some kind of occurrence that increases or decreases the posibility of a similar reaction taking place in the future. Positive reinforcements enlighten the athlete at what time he is doing something accurate and support the continuance of the activity in the precise direction. Negative reinforcement is in general, of slight importance since it simply indicates that the actions are inaccurate devoid of providing information with respect to the accurate reaction or behaviour. It has been established that positive reinforcement has to a large extent, more motivational value than negative reinforcement.

Question.25. Write in detail about the Dislocation and Fractures among the bones and joint injuries.
Answer: Dislocation: It is an injury of joint in which , the adjoining bones are displaced from their original position. Dislocations mainly occurs in contact sports, such as football, hockey, and in sports that may involve falls, such as downhill skiing, gymnastics, volleyball and also during a motor vehicle accidents.
Dislocation takes place in different location of the joints like:

  1.  Dislocation of shoulder joint.
  2. Dislocation of lower jaw.
  3.  Dislocation of hip joint.

Fracture: Bone injuries occur in the bone due to some impact or minimal trauma injury as a result of certain medical conditions that weaken the bone. There are many types of bone injuries which are as follows:

  1.  Simpe fracture
  2.  Compound fracture
  3. Greenstick fracture
  4.  Comminuted fracture
  5.  Transverse fracture
  6. Oblique fracture
  7. Spiral fracture
  8. Pathologic fracture
  9.  Impacted fracture
  10.  Stress fracture.

Question.26. Differentiate mechanically between walking and running. Explain in detail mechanical analysis of walking.
Answer: Walking: Walking is rolling down from heel to toe action. The first phase is heel strikes the ground followed by the transfer of weight and balance making. Afterwards the heel is rolled forward and push is given by toe and swing comes after, During walking the head should be straight without tension in shoulder. In the torso region the abdomen muscles should be slightly tightened, loose abdomen muscles cause back pain. The arm swing helps to gain speed in walking.
Running : running is a toe action movement. For running the focus is on the three major producing action- push off, knee-drive and paw-back. These three phases are done in a sequential manner to provide efficient running action, push off is the primary toe action movement heeded to supply the driving force in forward direction. The force comes from the powerful contraction of calf muscles by extension of ankle joint. The slight flexion of knee joint provides horizontal force instead of vertical force. Body is also bent forward.

Gap Filling Exercises for Class 8 CBSE With Answers

Looking for an easy way to Learning of new elementary english grammar and composition for class 8 answers, Solutions. You have to learn basic English Grammar topics like Tenses Verbs, Nouns, etc… In this article, we will review the best English Grammer Topics and compare them against each other.

Gap Filling Exercises for Class 8 CBSE With Answers Pdf

A gap-fill test is an exercise in which words are removed from a text and replaced with spaces. The learner has to fill each space with the missing word or a suitable word. It may be a verb, determiner, preposition, conjunction or any other part of speech.

Gap Filling Exercises Solved Example With Answers for Class 8 CBSE

Complete the following passage.

1. Everybody (a) ___________ an aim or an ambition in life. There are, however, some persons who do not plan (b) ___________ careers, (c) ___________ have no aim in life, (d) ___________ who have no aim in life are a ship without a rudder or an envelope (e) ___________ an address. They (f) ___________ tossed to and fro by circumstances.
Answer.
a. should have
b. their
c. They
d. Those
e. without
f. are

Gap Filling Exercises Practice Example for Class 8 CBSE

Complete the following passages.

1. A coward (a) ___________ in constant dread. His heart sinks when he hears (b) ___________ death, (c) ___________ day starts with fear and ends with fear. The possibility of war, famine, earthquake or a flood makes a coward shudder (d) ___________ fear. He eats his food with suspicion thinking there (e) ___________ poison in it. He (f) ___________ enjoy a sound sleep.

2. Dr. Kalam (a) ___________ born in Tamil Nadu on October 15,1931. (b) ___________ having received his education at Schwartz High School, he graduated (c) ___________ St. Joseph College. Kalam was honoured (d) ___________ Padma Bhushan in 1981. Dr. Kalam (e) ___________ a true patriot and a great citizen.

3. The Christian world was shocked to hear (a) ___________ passing away of Pope John Paul II in the Vatican on April 2, 2005. This (b) ___________ to an end the third longest papacy in history. Hundreds of churches in the Italian capital rang the death-knell (c) ___________ hearing the news of the death of Pope John Paul II. Pope John was (d) ___________ to (e) ___________ a champion of the poor and the downtrodden.

4. Ancient India was far (a) ___________ of others in the field of medicine and surgery. India (b) ___________ textbooks on medicine and there were hospitals. Dhanwantri is the legendary founder of (c) ___________ Indian science of medicine, (d) ___________ best known old textbooks, however, date (e) ___________ the early centuries of (f) ___________ Christianera.

Consignment Accounting – Abnormal loss

Abnormal loss. This loss should be debited to Abnormal Loss Account and credited to Consignment Account. Abnormal Loss Account may be closed by transferring to P & L Account.

The credit to the consignment account with the value of Abnormal Loss is given because it will make possible for the management to judge properly the profitability or otherwise of the consignnicnt.

The valuation of stock destroyed on account of abnormal reasons will be done on the same basis as valuation of Stock on Consignment i.e., proportionate cost price plus proportionate direct expenses incurred up to the date of loss.

While valuing abnormal loss, care should be taken of the stage where abnormal loss took place since only such expenses have to be included in the valuation oEsuch abnormal loss which have been incurred upto that stage. This will be clear with the help of the following illustration.

Modals Exercises for Class 8 With Answers

What are modal verbs?
Modals (also called modal verbs, modal auxiliary verbs, modal auxiliaries) are special verbs that behave irregularly in English. They are different from normal verbs like “work, play, visit…” They give additional information about the function of the main verb that follows it. They have a great variety of communicative functions.

Looking for an easy way to Learning of new elementary english grammar and composition for class 8 answers, Solutions. You have to learn basic English Grammar topics like Tenses Verbs, Nouns, etc… In this article, we will review the best English Grammer Topics and compare them against each other.

Modals Exercise For Class 8 CBSE With Answers PDF

Here are some characteristics of modal verbs:

  • They never change their form. You can’t add “s”, “ed”, “ing”…
  • They are always followed by an infinitive without “to” (e.i. the bare infinitive.)
  • They are used to indicate modality allow speakers to express certainty, possibility, willingness, obligation, necessity, ability.

List of modal verbs Here is a list of modal verbs:

can, could, may, might, will, would, shall, should, must

The verbs or expressions dare, ought to, had better, and need not behave like modal auxiliaries to a large extent and may be added to the above list.
Modals Exercises for Class 8 With Answers 1

Use of modal verbs:

Modal verbs are used to express functions such as:

  1. Permission
  2. Ability
  3. Obligation
  4. Prohibition
  5. Lack of necessity
  6. Advice
  7. possibility
  8. probability

Examples of modal verbs
Here is a list of modals with examples:

Modal Verb Expressing Example
must Strong obligation You must stop when the traffic lights turn red.
logical conclusion/ Certainty He must be very tired. He’s been working all day long.
must not Prohibition You must not smoke in the hospital.
can Ability I can swim.
Permission Can I use your phone please?
Possibility Smoking can cause cancer.
could ability in the past When I was younger I could run fast.
polite permission Excuse me, could I just say something?
Possibility It could rain tomorrow.
may Permission May I use you phone please?
possibility, the probability it may rain tomorrow!
might polite permission Might I suggest an idea?
possibility, probability I might go on holiday to Australia next year.
need not lack of necessity/ absence of obligation I need not buy tomatoes. There are plenty of tomatoes in the fridge.
should/ought to 50% obligation I should/ought to see a doctor. I have a terrible headache.
Advice You should/ought to revise your lessons
Logical conclusion He should/ought to be very tired. He’s been working all day long.
had better Advice You’d better revise your lessons.

Remember
Modal verbs are followed by an infinitive without “to”, also called the bare infinitive.

Examples:

  • Shall

Uses of Shall:
Shall Suggestions

  • Shall I get a pizza for dinner tonight?

Offers/volunteering
That bag looks heavy. Shall I carry it for you?

Will Rapid Decision

  • I’m thirsty. I think I will buy a drink.

Offer

  • That looks heavy. I will help you with it.

Instruction (asking for or giving)

  • What shall I do with your mail when it arrives

Promises

  • You shall be the first person to know.

Confirmation (statement of act)

  • I shall meet you there at 7.

Promise

  • Don’t worry, I won’t tell anyone.

Threat

  • If you don’t stop, I will tell your mother.

Refusal won’t = will not

  • She won’t listen to anything I say.

In all of the examples above, shall can be replaced by another modal verb.
Suggestion/Instructions — Should Offers — CanlCould Promises/Confirmation — Will

Should
Uses of Should:
Advice or Suggestion

  • Your hair is too long. You should get a haircut.

The situation likely in the present

  • Mary should be at home now. Give her a call.

Likely in the future (Prediction)

  • They should win tonight, they’re a better team.
    Should + Have + Past participle

Meaning: The subject did not fulfill their obligation in the past or did not act responsibly.

  • You should have given your boss the report yesterday when he asked for it.

Should + be + verb -ing

Meaning: The subject is not fulfilling their obligation now or is not acting sensibly.

  • You should be wearing your seatbelt,
  • We should be studying for the test right now.

Should vs. Ought To
Should can be replaced by ought to without change in meaning.

  • You ought to study more. =
  • You should study more.

Note: ought to sounds more formal than should and is used less frequently.

We use Shouldn’t to advise not to do something, usually because it is bad or wrong.

  • You shouldn’t throw your litter onto the street.
  • He shouldn’t play with those wires if he doesn’t know what he is doing.
  • You shouldn’t work so much.

Mind Map for Modals

Modals Exercises for Class 8 With Answers 2
Can and could

  • Can is used to express ability, request, permission or possibility.
  • The negative of can is cannot or the contraction can’t.
    Example Function
    I can ride a bicycle Here can expresses ability.
    Can you pass me the butter? Here can expresses requests.
    Can I use your pencil? Here can expresses permission. It is more polite to use ‘may’ instead of an
    Very bright light can hurt your eyes. Here can expresses possibility.
    I cannot/can’t make tea. Here cannot/can’t express negative ability or the absence of ability.
    You can’t leave early. Here can’t expresses a lack of permission.

Could has several functions:

  • It functions as the past tense of can to express ability.
  • It is used in place of can to express willingness in a formal situation.
  • It replaces can and gives the phrase a more conditional tone.
  • It suggests that something is a possibility.

The negative of could is could not or the contraction couldn’t.

Example Function
He could run a kilometer in 4 minutes when he was in college. Here could express past ability
Could you help me finish the report? Here could expresses requests more politely than ‘can’.
You could be an architect if you wanted to. Here could expresses conditional ability.
We could help you if we had the time. Here could expresses possibility.
She couldn’t lend me her pen because she was using it. Here couldn’t express a lack of permission in the past.
We couldn’t leave as the programmed has started. Here couldn’t expresses a negative possibility in the past.

Could
Could is used to express possibility, past ability, make suggestions and polite requests. Could is also used in conditional sentences as the conditional form of can.
Extreme rain could cause the river to flood the city. (Possibility)
Manjeet could skate skillfully when he was only three years old. (past ability)
We could see a film to go to a restaurant for a ‘meal. (suggestion)
Could I use your computer to check my email? (polite request)
We could go on the trip if I did not have to work this weekend. (condition)
We can use could to express present, past and future.

Most modal verbs behave quite irregularly in the past and the future. study the chart to learn how could is used in different contexts.

Modal use Positive form Negative form
Possibility 1. Jaya could be the one who stole the money, (present)
2. Jaya could have been the one who stole the money, (past)
3. Jaya could go to jail for the crime, (future)
1. Maya couldn’t be the one who stole the money, (present)
2. Maya couldn’t have been the one who stole the money, (past)
3. Maya couldn’t possibly go to jail for the crime, (future)
Conditional of can 1. If I had more time, I could travel around the world, (present)
2. If I had a lot money, I could have traveled around the world, (past)
1. Even if I had more time, I couldn’t travel around the world, (present)
2. Even if I had a lot of money, I couldn’t have traveled around the world, (past)
Suggestion 1. No present form.
2. You could have spent Your vacation in Hawai. (past)}
3. You could spent your vacation in Hawai. (future)
No negative forms
Past ability I could run a kilometer is less than 6 minutes when I was young.
Note: could cannot be used in positive sentences to describe a one – time ability. (yesterday, I could lift the couch by myself incorrect)
I couldn’t run a kilometer is less than 6 minutes when I was young.
Note: could can be used in negative sentences to describe a one – time ability, (yesterday, I couldn’t lift the couch by myself. – correct)
Polite request Could I have something to drink? Could I borrow your stapler?
Note: requests usually refer to the near future.
Couldn’t he come with us?
Couldn’t you help me for just a little while?

Would
Would is most commonly used to create conditional verb form. It also serves as the past form of the auxiliary verb will.
If he were an actor, he would be in adventure movies. (conditional)
I knew that she would be very successful in her career. (past of will)
When they first met, they would always have picnics on the beach. (requested action in the past).
Using would in present, past and future.

Modal use Positive form Negative form
Conditional 1. If I were the prime minister, I would provide free education (present)
2. If I had been the prime minister, I would have provided free education. (Past)
3. If I were elected prime minister next year, I would provide free education, (future)
1. If I were the prime minister, I would not raise taxes, (present)
2. If I had been the prime minister, I would not have raised taxes, (past)
3. If I were the prime minister, I would not sign the bill to raise taxes, (future)
Past of will 1. I said I would help you.
2. He told me he would be here before 8 a.m.
1. I said I wouldn’t help you.
2. He told me would not be here before 8 a.m.
Repeated actions in the past 1. When I was in school, I would always go to a science camp.
2. When we were young, we would often have a night picnic at the beach.
1. When I was a child, I wouldn’t go into the pool by myself.
2. When he was in his teens, he wouldn’t let anyone enter his room.

May and Might
May is used to express possibility.

  • It may rain today.
  • I may become a doctor.

The negative of may is may not. It is used to express negative possibility.

  • We may not got to the concert.
  • It may not rain tonight, after all.

May is also used to express permission or request. It is more polite than can.

  • May I have a glass of water?
  • May I barrow your eraser?

Might is used to express possibility. It differs from “may” in that the possibility it expresses is usually smaller.
The negative of might is might not.

  • She might become an actress when she grows up, but I doubt it.
  • He might not get the job, though he was the most qualified candidate.

Might is used as the past form of may of permission.

  • He asked if he might borrow your bicycle.
  • They asked if that might come late for the morning.

Might is also used to make very polite requests.

  • Might I ask you a questions?
  • Might I interrupt you for a moment?

Must
Uses of Must: Obligation

  • You must wear a seatbelt when you drive.

Deduction (certain something is true)

  • Look at all that snow. It must be cold outside.

Emphasize Necessity

  • Plants must have light and water to grow.

Strong Recommendation

  • We must get together for dinner soon.

Mustn’t = Prohibition

  • You mustn’t use your phone while driving.

Must vs. Have to
Must expresses obligation imposed by the speaker while Have to expresses external obligations.
Teacher: You must complete this essay by Friday.
Student: We have to complete this essay by Friday.

It is more common to use Have to instead of Must in questions.

  • Does he have to do the test?

We use Had to instead of Must in the past tense.

  • I had to pay my speeding ticket yesterday.

See our chart about Mustn’t vs. Don’t have to

Modals Exercises Practice Examples for Class 8 CBSE

A. Complete B’s sentences using can/could/might/must/should/would + the verb in brackets. In some sentences you need to use have/must have/should have, etc. In some sentences you might have to use the negatives (can’t/couldn’t, etc.) The first one has beers done for you.

1. A : I’m hungry.
B : But you’ve just had lunch. You can’t be hungry already, (be)

2. A : I haven’t seen our neighbours for ages.
B : No. They _____________ away, (go)

3. A : What’s the weather like? Is it raining?
B : Not at the moment but it _____________ later, (rain)

4. A : Where has Manshu gone?
B : I’m not sure. She _____________ to the bank, (go)

5. A : I didn’t see you at John’s party last week.
B : No, I had to work that evening, so I _____________ (go)

6. A : I saw you at John’s party last week.
B : No, you didn’t. You _____________ me. I didn’t go to John’s party, (see)

7. A : When did you post the letter to Maya?
B : This morning. So she _____________ it tomorrow, (get)

8. A : When was the last time you saw Prateek?
B : Years ago. I _____________ him if I saw him now. (recognise)

9. A : Did you hear the explosion?
B : What explosion?
A : There was a loud explosion a few minutes ago. You _____________ it. (hear)

10. A : We weren’t sure which way to go. In the end we turned right.
B : You went the wrong way. You _____________ left. (turn )

B. Write ‘will’, ‘would’, ‘shall’ or ‘should’ in the blanks.

1. We _______________ certainly have time for lunch. Where _______________ we go?
2. “You _______________ suffer for this,” he swore. “I _______________ see to it that you do!”
3. He said that it _______________ be all right for you to enter, but I think you _______________ wait until he gets here.
4. _______________ you not reconsider your decision? You _______________ regret it if you do not.
5. I _______________ do whatever pleases me. No one _______________ tell me what to do!
6. If anything _______________ go wrong while I am away, you let me know, _______________ you?
7. _______________ you please lower your voices? You _______________ wake up the baby if you do not.
8. I _______________ not stop her from leaving. She _______________ go if she wants to.
9. If my friends _______________ come while I am having my bath, _______________ you invite them in?
10. The angry man insisted that I _______________ pay for the damages. He said that if I did not, _______________ he have to lodge a report against me.

C. (A) Complete the following with suitable modals.
Student: Madam, _______________ I come in?
Teacher: Where were you? You _______________ be in the class at the right time.
Student: Sorry madam. I _______________ not catch the bus on time.
Teacher: You _______________ leave early.
Student: Kindly, forgive me this time. I _______________ not be late in future I take my seat now?
Teacher: You _______________
Student: Madam, _______________ you please check my home work?
Teacher: I _______________ not check your homework right now. I am teaching a lesson.

(B) Complete the following with suitable modals.
1. Milk is a complete food in itself. Children _______________ drink it regularly otherwise they _______________ suffer from malnutrition. Elders _______________ also take it but those who _______________ not afford it _______________ take pulses, fruits and vegetables as an alternative.

2. The Government _______________ not run away from its responsibility of providing protection to the people. What _______________ the Government do? The Government _______________ tackle the problem of terrorism with an iron hand. The police _______________ be equipped with the latest weapons and techniques. Even the laws _______________ be amended to deal with the terrorists. Once they are caught, they _______________ not be freed.

3. You _______________ reach school at the right time. You _______________ be punished if you come late. You _______________ visit your school library regularly. You _______________ take any books you like. But spoiling the books _______________ be avoided at any cost. You _______________ n’t tear or spoil the pages of the books. You _______________ also respect your teachers.

Let’s Exercise

A. Choose the correct modal verb.

1. He must/must to come to me this evening.
2. He ought to/ought come to me this evening.
3. This program must to/must have succeeded.
4. You must not/must to talk loudly.
5. He ought/ought to not to talk loudly.
6. He ought to/ought have reached well in time.
7. She ought to/ought have done it earlier.
8. He must not/must to fight with his neighbour.

B. Choose the correct modal verb.

1. I need /needs a good friend.
2. I am in need/needs of a bigger house.
3. She doesn’t need/needs my help.
4. Ram need/needs not go there.
5. She hardly need/needs help from anybody.
6. Need/need he meet you?
7. Does she need/needs to come there?
8. You need/needs not quarrel over such a petty matter.
9. You need/needs not have sold your car.

C. Choose the correct modal verb.

1. He dares/dare me to compete with him.
2. I dare/dares you to compete with me.
3. She dares/dares not to accept my challenge.
4. He dares/dare not to speak before me.
5. I dare/dares not disobey him.
6. She dares/dares not challenge me.
7. I dare/dares not act against your will.
8. How dare/dares you to neglect me!

D. Choose the correct modal verb.

1. We used to/used go there together.
2. I used to/used go in a crowded bus.
3. She used not/use to wear cheap material.
4. I am used to/use an easy-going life.
5. I am not used/use to drive his car.