CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science All India – 2012

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science All India – 2012

Time Allowed: 3 Hours                                                                                          Maximum Marks: 100
General Instructions:

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. Question Numbers 1 to 10 are of one mark each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 20 words each.
  3.  Question Numbers 11 to 20 are of two marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 40 words each.
  4. Question Numbers 21 to 30 are of four marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
  5. Question Numbers 31 to 35 are of six marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 150 words each.
  6. Question Number 35 is based on the map. Write the answer in your Answer-Book.

SET -I

Question.1. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:
The South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was signed by the members of in the year.
Answer. The South Asian Free Trade Agreement was singed by the members of SAARC in the year 2004

Question.2. What is meant by ASEAN way ?
Answer. ASEAN way is a forum of interaction that is informal, non-confrontationist and cooperative. It was initiated to promote ^>EAN as supernational structures and institutions.

Question.3. Correct and rewrite the following statement:
USSR/Russia used veto power 92 times till 2006.
Answer. USSR/Russia used veto power 122 times till 2006.

Question.4. How is balance of power a component of traditional security ?
Answer. Balance of power is a component of traditional security as it implies a balance between bigger and smaller countries.
This balance is maintained to countercheck the threat to security.

Question.5. In which year was the First General Election held in India ?
Answer. The First General Election was held in 1952 in which the Congress party scored a big victory.

Question.6. What was the main objective of the Second Five Year Plan ?
Answer. The main objective of the Second Five Year Plan was industrialisation.
The Second Five year plan was drafted by a team of economists and planners under the leadership of P.C.Mahalanobis. This plan stressed on heavy industries.

Question.7. What is meant by defection ?
Answer. Defection means an elected representative leaves the party on whose symbol he/she is elected and joins another party.
The new culture developed in the “Indian politics after 1967 election”

Question.8. The results of which elections were called ‘political earthquake’ ?
Answer. The word “Political earthquake” signifies the electoral verdict of fourth general election in
1967 which Jolted the Congress both at the national and state levels.

Question.9. What was Chipko movement ?
Answer. (i) Chipko movement was a protest move of hugging the trees to prevent them from being cut down.
(ii) It was a novel tactic opted by villages for protesting against the practice of commercial logging that the government had permitted.

Question.10. Whose mediation resolved the ‘Indus River Waters Dispute’ between India and Pakistan:
Answer. (i) Indus River Water Dispute between India and Pakistan was resolved with the mediation of World Bank in 1960.
(ii) With the help of the World Bank India and Pakistan signed the “Indus Waters Treaty”.

Question.11. Mention any two characteristics of the Soviet economy during the Cold War days.
Answer. With the end of the second world war and in the cold war era, the Soviet Union became a great power. The Soviet Economy was then more developed than the rest of the world except for the US.
Complex Communications network and vast energy resources:
(i) It had a complex communications network, vast energy resources including oil, iron and steel; machinery production, and a transport sector that connected its remotest areas with efficiency.
Advanced Domestic Consumer industry:
(i) Soviet Union had a domestic consumer industry that produced every thing from pins to cars, through their quality didn’t match that of the western capitalist countries.
Minimum standard of living:
(i) The Soviet State ensured a minimum standard of living for all citizens and the Government subsidised basic necessities including health, education for children and other welfare schemes.
Absence of Unemployment :
(i) In Soviet state there was no unemployment. State ownership was the dominant form of ownership, land and productive assets were owned and controlled by the Soviet state.
Above economic conditions show that the Soviet state had prosperous and developed economy and to some extent it was at par with west economy.

Question.12. Mention the duration of the First and the Second World Wars.
Answer. (i) The duration of the First World War was 1914-1918 i.e. Consecutive 4 years.
(ii) The duration of the Second World War was 1939-45 i.e. approx. – 6 years

Question.13.Write the four forms of power which reflect the US hegemony.
Answer.In the unipolar world US enjoys prosperous position in the sphere of technology and world economy:

  1.  In today’s world scenario the US is present in all parts of the world, in all sectors of the world economy and in all areas of technology.
  2.  The Internet, a global public good, is the direct outcome of a US military research project that began in 1950. Not only this, most of the Internet operations rely on a global network satellites owned by the US government.
  3.  The US share of the world economy remains an enormous 28 per cent. It also accounts for 15 per cent of the world trade as compared to the intra European Union Trade.
  4.  Above all, an American firm is in the “top three list” in every sector of world economy.
    In the cultural sphere hegemony implies class accendancy in the social, political and particularly ideological spheres. Whether we choose to recognise the fact or not, all ideas of the good life and personal success, most of the dreams of individuals and societies across the globe, are dreams churned out by practices prevailing in twentieth century America.

Question.14.What was ‘Operation-Enduring Freedom’?
Answer.The US response to 9/11 was swift and ferocious. The then President Bush had a much harder view of US interests and of the means by which to advance them.
(i) As a part of its Global war on terror, the US launched Operation Enduring Freedom against all those suspected to be behind this attack, mainly Al-Qaeda and the Taliban regime in Afghanistan.
(ii) The US forces made arrests all over the world, often without the knowledge of the government of the persons being arrested, transported these persons across countries and detained them in secret prisons.
(iii) Some of the prisoners were kept at Guantanamo Bay, a US naval base in Cuba where prisoners did not enjoy the protection of International law.

Question.15.Define Geo-politics.
Answer.“Resources Geopolitics is the geographical political affairs concerned with the allocation and distribution of natural resources among the nation-states of Global arena.
(i) Resource geopolitics is all about who gets what, when, where and how.
(ii) Here, they have also been the focus of inter-state rivalary and western geopolitical thinking about resources which has been dominated by the relationship of trade, war and power, at the core of which were overseas resources and maritime navigation.
(iii) For instance critical importance of ensuring uninterrupted supply of strategic resources, in particular oil was well established both during the First World War and the Second World War.

Question.16.Name the original states from which the following states were carved out?
Answer.(a) Meghalya – Assam (b) Gujarat – Maharashtra

Question.17.Explain the role played by Sardar Patel in the integration of Princely States into the Indian Union.
Answer.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel also known as the Iron man of India was India’s deputy prime Minister and the home minister during the integration of Indian states. He played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of princely states firmly but diplomatically and bringing most of them into Indian union.
It was a very complicated task which required skilful persuasion. For example, there were 26 small states in today’s Odisha. Saurashtra region of Gujarat had 14 big states, 119 small states and numerous other administrations.

Question.18. When and why did India sign the twenty-year ‘Treaty of Peace and Friendship’ with the Soviet Union ?
Answer. (i) India signed the twent – year Treaty of Peace and Friendship with the Soviet Union in 1971.
(ii) The Indian government felt that India needed diplomatic and possibly military support during Bangladesh crisis.

Question.19. Which action of the Government of India threatened the fishworkers’ lives in a major way ? Which organisation did they form at the national level ?
Answer. (i) The term N.F.F. stands for National Fish workers Forum.
(ii) The fish workers’ life was threatened in a big way when the government permitted entry to mechanised trawlers and technologies like bottom trawling for large-scale harvesting of fish in the Indian Ocean.

Question.20. Political equations in coalition governments are unstable. How was this concept reflected in the formation of National Front Government in 1989 and United Front Government in 1996 ?
Answer. The Era of coalitions could also be seen in 1989 elections. The Congress was the largest party in the Lok Sabha but did not have a clear majority. It also decided to act as opposition party. This led to the formation of the National Front (Alliance of Janta Dal and many regional parties). It received two major supports (not expected as such) from The BJP and the Left Front. Though The BJP and the Left Front did not join the government they gave support from the outside. The Coalition Era had many Prime Ministers and some of them held office for short durations. Some of them were
cbse-sample-papers-for-class-12-political-science-all-india-2012-1
The coalition era saw that no single party could enjoy majority on its own as in the past decades and also the strengthening of Regional Parties.
Rise and fall of two coalition governments :

  1.  The first coalition government in the late 1980s was formed by the National Front under the leadership of V.P. Singh.
    Both The BJP and Left Front supported V.P. Singh because they wanted to keep the Congress out of power. The Mandal Commision Report and implementation of its recommendations forced The BJP to reconsider its support and finally withdraw it. Thus in November 1990, the rule of National Front came to an end.
  2. BJP came to power for the first time in May 1996 as a minority government but it was for just a month. In June 1996, The BJP failed to get majority support in the vote of confidence and thus had to quit.

Question.21. Explain the ‘Cuban Missile Crisis’.
Answer.

  1. Cuba was an ally of the Soviet Union, received both displomatic and financial aid from it. In 1961, the leaders of the then USSR were worried that USA might invade Cuba and overthrow President Fidel Castro. During such a situation, the leader of the Soviet Union, Nikita Khrushchev decided to convert Cuba into a Russian base. In 1962, he had set up nuclear missiles in Cuba. These missiles could be at close range to the US and even reach upto Canada.
  2.  Americans became aware only after three weeks that the Soviet Union had placed nuclear weapons in Cuba. Kennedy ordered American warships to stop and check any Soviet ship moving towards Cuba as a way of warning to the USSR.
  3.  It was also feared that Cuba might have learnt the technology behind nuclear weapons that would be anytime danger to the US prosperity.
  4.  The Cuban crisis also led US to suspect all Soviet-aided countries and forced it to set up military blocs in different parts of the world as NATO, SEATO and CENTO.

Question.22. Describe any two major constraints of the U.S. hegemony.
Answer. Institutional Architecture: The very first constraint lies in the institutional architecture of the American state. A system ofdivision of powers between the three branches of government places significant brakes upon the unrestrained and immoderate exercise of America’s military power by the executive branch.
Open nature of American society possesses constraint: The second constraint on American hegemony is also domestic in nature and stems from the open nature of American society. In spite of mass media’s promotion or imposition of a particular perspective on domestic opinion in the US, there is nevertheless a deep scepticism regarding the purposes and methods of government in American political culture.

Question.23. Name one country each from the continents of America, Africa, Asia and Europe, wherein the UN ‘Peacekeeping Operations’ were administered.
Answer. Countries were the UN Peacekeeping Operations were admfnstered.

  1.  America – Haiti-2004
  2.  Africa – Ethiopia and Eritrea-2000
  3.  Asia -India and Pakistan-1949
  4.  Europe – Georgia-1993

Question.24. How is global poverty a source of insecurity ? Explain.
Answer. ‘Global Poverty’ is one of the important sources of insecurity which threatened the entire development of global era. It refers to a situation in which a poor country suffers from
(i) slow economic growth(ii) low national income (iii) low standard of living and (iv) less calories
intake among the people with high population growth.
According to the recent data, half the world’s population growth occurs in most of the developing countries like India, Pakistan, Nigeria, Bangladesh and Indonesia. Among the world’s poorest countries, population is expected to treble in the next 50 years. Hence low incomes and high population growth reinforce each other to make poor states and poor groups get poorer.
Implications
Globally, this poverty creates disparity between the northern and southern countries of the world.
Poverty in the South has also led to a large-scale migration to seek a better life (especially better economic opportunities) in the North.
All this created international political frictions, as International law and norms make a distinction between migrants and refugees. In this regard states are generally supposed to accept refugees, but they do not have to accept migrants.

Question.25. ‘Let the polluters pay’. Support this statement with any two suitable arguments.
Answer. “Let the polluters pay” is the statement quoted by the developing countries of south to the developed countries of north at the negotiations between south and north countries over environmental pollution.
It is very significant that compromise and accommodation are the two essential policies required by states to save planet Earth. But there is a difference in the approach to environment between the countries of the North and the South. We can throw light on the ongoing negotiations between the North and south on environmental issues in such a manner:
The developed countries of the north want to discuss the environment issue as it stands now and want everyone to be equally responsible for ecological conservation.
At the same time the developing countries of the south feel that much of the ecological degradation in the world is the product of industrial development undertaken by the developed countries.
And if developed countries have caused more degradation they must also take- more responsibility for ongoing damage now.
On the other side the developing countries are in the process of industrialization and they must not be subjected to the same restrictions which apply to the developed countries.
However, the special needs of the developing countries must be taken into account in the development, application and interpretation of rules of International Environmental Law. And this argument was accepted in the Rio Declaration at the “Earth Summit in 1992 under the principle of common but differentiated responsibility.

Question.26. “Globalisation has shifted power from nation-states to global consumers.” Justify the statement.
Answer. Globalisation has shifted power from nation-state to global consumers. This can be justified in the context of which globalisation has reduced the state capacity to govern.
To some extent under its arena globalisation affects traditional concept of state sovereignty. It also results in an erosion of state capacity, that is, the ability of government to do what they do.

  1.  All over the world, the old welfare state is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions i.e., the maintenance of law and order.
  2.  However it withdraws from many of its earlier welfare functions directed at economic and social well being.
  3.  In place of the welfare state, it is the market that becomes the prime determinant of economic and social priorities.

Thus, the entry and the increased role of MNCs all over the world leads to a reduction in the capacity of government to take decisions on its own.
Positive Impacts of Globalisation are as follows :

  1. Helps in development and strengthening of domestic economies of developing countries.
  2. Improved productive efficiency and healthy competition.
  3.  New cultural values are moving towards old traditions and customs

Question.27. Match the following.
cbse-sample-papers-for-class-12-political-science-all-india-2012-2
Answer.
cbse-sample-papers-for-class-12-political-science-all-india-2012-3

Question.28. Explain any two features of Indian nuclear policy.
Answer. India’s Nuclear policy advocates ‘no first use’ and reiterates India’s commitment to global
verification on non-discriminatory nuclear disarmament leading to a nuclear weapons free world.

  1.  The nuclear programme in India was initiated in the late 1940s under the guidance of H.J. Bhabha.
  2. When China conducted a nuclear test in 1964, India realised its strategic importance.
  3.  India’s first nuclear experiment was conducted in 1974. India declared that it was only for peaceful purposes.
  4. At the same time India refused to sign the CTBT in 1995 because of its discriminatory nature.
  5.  Later on, India also conducted a series of nuclear tests in May 1998, demonstrating its capacity to use nuclear energy for military purposes.

Question.29. “1960s were labelled as the ‘dangerous decade’ Explain with the help of any four arguments.
Answer. The 1960s was labelled as the ‘dangerous decade’ because of some unresolved problems like poverty, inequality and communal and regional divisions.
There was speculation that all these could lead to a failure of the democratic project or even the disintegration of the country.

  1.  Economic Crisis— Due to the India-China and Indo-Pak war there was economic crisis in India. So the government of Indira Gandhi decided to devalue the Indian rupee to check economic crisis. Consequently, the economic situation triggered a price rise.
  2.  Political Earthquake— The election of 1967 was termed as the Political Earthquake because it jolted the Congress both at the national and state levels. Half the ministers in Indira Gandhi’s cabinet were defeated.
  3.  Food Crisis— Besides, due to failure of monsoons, drought occurred and this created a serious food crisis in India during 1960s.
    Hence, there was speculation that all these challenges could lead to failure of the democratic project or even the disintegration of the country.

Question.30. What was the main outcome of the Rajiv Gandhi – Longowal Accord in July 1985 ?
Answer. The Punjab Accord was an agreement signed between the then Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal, the then President of the Akali Dal in 1985.
This agreement is known as the “Rajiv Gandhi-Longowal Accord” or the Punjab Accord. It was a step towards bringing normalcy in Punjab.
Main provisions of the Accord :

  1.  Under this accord, it was agreed that Chandigarh would be transferred to Punjab.
  2.  A separate commission would be appointed to resolve the border dispute between Punjab and Haryana.
  3.  A tribunal would be set up to decide the sharing of Ravi-Beas river water among Punjab, Haryana and Rajsathan.
  4. The agreement also provided for compensation to and better treatment of those affected by militancy in Punjab and the withdrawal of the application of Armed Forces Special Powers Act in Punjab.

However, peace did not come easily or immediately. The cycle of violence continued nearly for a decade.
(a) Militancy and counter insurgency violence led to excesses by the police and violation of the human rights.
(b) Politically it led to fragmentation of the Akali Dal.
(c) Thus, the central government had to impose President’s rule in the state and the normal electoral and political process was suspended.
(d) It was not easy to restore the political process in the atmosphere of suspicion and violence. For example when elections were held in Punjab in 1992, only 24 per cent of the electors turned out to vote.
All these in turn added to tension between Punjab and its neighbouring states.

Question.31. What is the relevance of the Non-aligned Movement after the end of Cold War ? Explain.
Or
Analyse Indian’s changing relationship with post-communist Russia
Answer. Non-alignment as a strategy evolved in the Cold War context, but the end of “Cold War” and a unipolar world did not see the end of the non-alignment.
Non-alignment still contains some core values and end-using ideas.
• Its emphasis has shifted from “political issues to economic issues”.
• Liberalisation of third world economies for rapid development of the countries of south now remains the main concern of NAM.
• Issues like democracy, disarmament, human rights and neo-colonialism are as relevant today as earlier.
With the disintegration of the erstwhile USSR, there is only one super power therefore, it is very essential for NAM to make sincere efforts to check USA from taking unilateral decisions.
• Now its emphasis has also shifted towards poverty alleviation, New International Economic Order based on equality, equity and justice and promotion of industrialisation.
NAM must make efforts to reshape and democratise the United Nations so that the domination of powerful countries is checked.
Besides, NAM must ensure that in the era of Globalisation, liberalism and explosion of Information Technology (IT), the developed and developing nations derive the maximum benefit and are not allowed to be exploited.
Therefore, the concept of non-alignment is applicable even in normal situation. Its essence is that every international issue is discussed on merit. This is an attitude which must be reflected in international affairs.
Or
India should maintain a healthy relation ship with Russia because, Indo-Russian relations are embedded in a history of tru^t and common interests and are matched by popular perceptions.
• Common view on the multipolar world order : Russia and India share a vision of multipolar world order. For both these countries multipolar world order is the co-existence of several powers in the international system, collective security, greater regionalism, negotiated settlements of international conflicts an independent foreign policy for all countries and decision making through bodies like the UN that should be strengthened, democratised and empowered.
• India’s stand towards Russia : India gets meaningful benefits for having healthy relations with Russia on the issues like Kashmir, energy supplies, sharing information on international terrorism, access to central Asia, and balancing its relation with China.
• Russia’s stand towards India: Like India Russia stands to benefit from this relationship because India is the second largest arms market for Russia.
Besides, Indian military gets most of its hardware from Russia. Since India is an oil importing nation, so Russia is important to India and has repeatedly come to the assistance of India during its oil crisis.
In order to meet the demands of energy India is trying to increase it energy imports from Russia and the republics of Kazakihstan and Turkimenistan. This also broadened the scope for partnership and investment in oilfields.
India has also strengthened its relation with Russia for her nuclear energy plans and space industry. India gets the cryogenic rocket from Russia whenever it needed it.
Thus, we may safely conclude that India has maintained good relations with all the post¬communist countries. But the strongest relations are still those between Russia and India.

Question.32. Why is the European Union considered a highly influential regional organisation in the economic, political and military fields ?
Or
No region exists in a vacuum. It is influenced by outside powers and events no matter how much it may try to insulate itself from non-regional powers. China and the United States remain key players in South Asian politics. Sino-Indian relations have improved significantly in the last ten years, but Cina’s strategic partnership with Pakistan remains a major irritant. The demands of development ana globalisation have brought the two Asian giants closer, and their economic ties have multiplied rapidly since 1991.
Study the paragraph given above carefully and answer the following questions :
(i) Which two countries have been referred to as ‘outside powers’ ?
(ii) Which are the two Asian giants and why have they been called so ?
(iii) China’s strategic partnership with Pakistan is a major irritant for which country and why ?
Answer. As a supranational organisation, the European Union intervenes in economic, political and social areas. It has thus, economic, political diplomatic and military influence.
As far as the economic nature/aspect of European Union is concerned, it is considered as the World’s biggest economy with a GDP of more than $12 trillion in 2005, slightly larger than that of the united states.
(a) European Union’s economic power gives it influence over its closest neighbours as well as in Asia and Africa.
(b) Its share of world trade is three times larger than that of the United States.
(c) Its uniform currency, the euro, can pose a threat to the dominance of the US dollar.
(d) Moreover, European Union also functions as an important bloc in international organisations such as the World Trade Organisation (WTO).
In this way, as a supranational organisation, the European Union is able to intervene in Economic Areas.
Besides being the world’s biggest economy European Union also has political and diplomatic influence in the world arena. Political and Diplomatic Aspects.
The European Union has a great influence on some of the UN policies because its two members, Britain and France, hold permanent seats in the UN security Council. It also includes several non-permanent members of the UNSC.
Not only this, European Union has its very effective influence in the arenas of diplomacy, economic investments and negotiations except coercion and military force. For example European Union’s dialogue with China on human rights and environmental degradation seemed to be very effective.
“European Union” was established in 1992 after the collapse of the Soviet Union. The European
Union was started as an Economic Union but over time it has evolved from Economic Union
to increasingly political one. „ .
Hence, the EU now has started to act more as a nation-state.
(a) It has tried to expand areas of cooperation while acquiring new members, especially from the erstwhile soviet bloc.
(b) Besides, European Union has its own flag, anthem, founding date and currency.
(c) It has also some form of a common foreign and security policy in its dealings with other nations.
Or
(i) China and United States have been refered to as “outside powers”.
(ii) China and India are the two Asian giants.
They are called so because of their population ratio and fastest economic growth in the world.
(iii) China’s strategic partnership with Pakistan is a major irretant for India because of Pakistan’s anti-Indian outlook.

Question.33. How was ‘one party dominance’ in India different from the ‘one party system’ of Mexico ? In your opinion, which of the two political systems is better and why ?
Or
Explain the main arguments in the debate that ensued between industrialisation and
agricultural development at the time of Second Five Year Plan.
Answer. Main differences between Mexico and India under one party domination were as follows:

  1.  Mexico one party domination i.e. the domination of Institutional Revolutionary Party was based on the “Perfect dictatorship” whereas, in India the Congress Party’s domination was based on “popular consensus”.
  2. In Mexico the elections were often rigged and manipulated by the ruling party i.e. PRI but in India elections were based on competition among political parties.
    (a) ‘One party dominant systems’ means that a single party enjoys monopoly of power over a long period of time and exclusion of other parties to reach the power.
    (b) No. The dominance of one party did not mean that India was really not a democracy. Even though Congress had domihahce Era, the Indian political system is still democratic for the following reasons:
    (i) Open nature of the Indian political system, i.e., existence of multi-party system.
    (ii) At the time of independence, there was no strong political party except the Congress.
    (iii) The role of Congress during our freedom struggle could be remembered and people cast votes as their tribute to the Congress leaders.
    (iv) The regional parties gained importance at national levels and multi-party system had come into the picture since 1989.
    (v) The advancement in the electoral system (electronic voting machine, common platform for political agenda) strengthened the democratic pattern.
    (vi) Active participation of women and improvement in Panchayat Raj system and its success express Indian political system as democratic.

Or
The strategy of development followed after independence raised some key controversies regarding the relevance of agriculture over industry at the time of Second Five Year Plan.

  1.  At the time of the commencement of Second Five Year Plan many thought that the second plan lacked an agrarian strategy for development and emphasis on industry caused agriculture and rural India to suffer.
  2.  J.C. Kumarappa, a Gandhian Economist, proposed an alternative blueprint that put greater emphasis on rural industrialisation.
  3.  Chaudhary Charan Singh, the Bharatiya Lok Dal leader, said that planning was leading to the creation of prosperity in urban and industrial sections at the cost of rural welfare.

Whereas, others thought that without a drastic increase in industrial production there could be no escape from the cycle of poverty.

  1. They argued that Indian Planning did not have an agrarian strategy to boost the production of foodgrains.
  2.  It also proposed programmes of community development and spent large sums on irrigation projects. And the failure was not that of policy but of its non-implementation because of the politics of land owning classes.
  3.  They argued that even if the government had spent more money on agriculture it would not have solved the massive problem of rural poverty.

Question.34. What was Narmada Bachao Andolan ? What were its main issues ? What democratic strategy did it use to put forward its demands ? 
Or
In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts in 1989, a consensus appeared to have emerged among most parties. Explain any three points of consensus.
Answer. Narmada Bachao Andolan was a loose collective local organisation’s movement to save river Narmada. This movement opposed the construction of multi-purpose project known as the Narmada Sagar Project.

  1.  Since its inception the Narmada Bachao Andolan linked its opposition to the Sardar Sarovar Project with larger issues concerning the nature of ongoing developmental projects, efficacy of the model of development that the country followed and about what constituted public interest in a democracy.
  2. Thus, the movement demanded proper and just rehabilitation of all those who were directly or indirectly affected by the project.
  3. The NBA movement also questioned the nature of decision making processes that go in the making of mega scale development projects.
  4. The NBA also insisted that local communities must have a say in such decisions and that they should also have effective control over natural resources like water, land and forests.

Criticism against Narmada Bachao Andolan –

  1. Gujarat state government vigorously opposed the argument and agitation of the movement because state has been benefitted from the project. Besides,
  2.  The movement’s demand to stop the construction of the dam was severely criticised by many leaders and environmentalists on the grounds as :
    (a) The obstruction to the process of development
    (b) Denial to the access to water to many people and
    (c) Hurdle to economic development.
    Thus, the Narmada Bachao Andalan could not gain much support among the main stream political parties including the opposition parties.

Or
In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts, a consensus appears to have emerged among most parties or many crucial issues. This consensus consists of four elements.

  1. Agreement on new economic policies : While many groups are opposed to the new economic policies, most political parties believe that these policies would lead the country to prosperity and a status of economic power in the world.
  2. Acceptance of the political and social claims of the backward castes : Political parties have recognised that the social and political claims of the backward castes need to be accepted. As a result all political parties now support reservation of seats for the backward classes in education and employment. Political parties are also willing to ensure that the OBCs get adequate share of power.
  3. Acceptance of the role of state level parties in governance of the country: The distinction between state level and national level parties is fast becoming less important.
  4. Emphasis on pragmatic considerations rather than ideological positions and political alliances without ideological agreement : Coalition politics has shifted the focus of political parties from ideological differences to power sharing arrangements thus, most parties of the NDA did not agree with the Hindutva ideology of the BJP, yet, they came together to form a government and remained in power for a full term.
    All these are momentous changes are going to shape politics in the near future.

Question.35. Describe any three weaknesses and any three points of strength of India’s democracy that came to light during the Emergency of 1975.
Or
In the given political outline map of India, six states have been indicated by (A), (B), (C), (D),(E) and (F). Identify them with the help of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with their respective Serial No. and the alphabet concerned as per the following table:
cbse-sample-papers-for-class-12-political-science-all-india-2012-4
cbse-sample-papers-for-class-12-political-science-all-india-2012-5
(i) Two states where the Congress party got majority and formed the government.
(ii) Two states where the breakaway Congress legislators played an important role in installing non-Congress governments.
(iii) A state where Congress parly did not get majority but formed the government with the help of other parties.
(iv) The state where’Popular United Front’came into power.
Answer. The emergency at once brought out both the weaknesses and the strengths of India’s democracy. Though there are many observers who think that India ceased to be democratic during the emergency. It is noteworthy that normal democratic functioning resumed within a short span of time. Hence, we learnt some lessons :
(i) The very first lesson we learnt is that it is extremely difficult to do away with democracy in India.
(ii) Secondly, it brought out some ambiguities regarding the emergency provision in the constitution that have been rectified since. Now, internal emergency can be proclaimed only on the grounds of “armed rebellion” and it is necessary that the advice to the president to proclaim emergency must be given in writing by the council of ministers.
(iii) The third lesson we learnt is that the emergency made every one more aware of the value of civil liberties.
The courts too have taken* an active role after the emergency in protecting the civil liberties of the individual. This is a response to the inability of the judiciary to protect civil liberties effectively during the emergency.
Critics view on emergency
(a) Critics of emergency point out that most of these promises by the government remained unfulfilled.
(b) They question the use of preventive detention on such a large scale.
(c) There were other and more serious allegations regarding the exercise of government power by people who held no official position, for example Sanjay Gandhi, the younger son of Prime Minister Mrs Indira Gandhi.
Not only this the emergency directly affected lives of common people in many cases like- torture and custodial deaths, arbitrary relocation of poor people and over-enthusiasm about population control led to cases of compulsory sterilisation.
These instances show what happens where the normal democratic process is suspended.
Or
cbse-sample-papers-for-class-12-political-science-all-india-2012-6

SET-II

Question.1. How is alliance building a component of traditional security ?
Answer. Alliance building is one of the important components of traditional security to the threats. It deals with the alliance or agreement between states or nations. It is a coalition of states that coordinates their actions to defer or defend against military attack.

Question.5. Students of which two states started agitation against the rising food prices in 1974 ?
Answer. The students of Bihar and Gujarat started the agitation against the rising food prices in 1974.

Question.12. What is ‘cultural homogenisation’ ? Give an example to show that its consequence is not negative.
Answer. Cultural homogenisation is an aspect of globalisation which signifies uniform culture and common nature.
Cultural Aspect: As far as cultural consequences are concerned, it would be a mistake to assume that cultural consequences of globalisation are only .negative. Actually they are not a static thing. Sometimes external influences simply enlarge our choices and sometimes they modify our culture without overwhelming the traditional culture/norms. For example blue jeans can go well with hand-spun Khadi.
So, we can safely say that globalisation broadens our cultural outlook and promotes cultural homogenisation.

Question.15.When and between whom was the Shimla Agreement signed ?
Answer.The Shimla Agreement was signed between Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar AN Bhutto on 3 July 1972 to formalise Return of Peace between India and Pakistan over the issue of Bangladesh.

Question.17.What is meant by decentralised planning ?
Answer.Decentralised Planning was launched in 1989 by the Kerala state government. It was the new democratic Initiative which involved campaigns for development designed to involve people directly in development activities through voluntary citizens organisations.
This plan also involves people in making plans at the Panchayat, block and district level.

Question.24.Match the following?
cbse-sample-papers-for-class-12-political-science-all-india-2012-7
Answer.
cbse-sample-papers-for-class-12-political-science-all-india-2012-8

Question.25.What was the Tibet issue ? How did India help the Tibetan migrants to settle down ?
Answer.

  1. Tibet the Plateau of central Asian region is the one of the major issues that historically caused tension between India and China.
  2.  Very often China had claimed administrative control over Tibet and from time to time, Tibet was independent too. In 1950, China took control of Tibet. A large number of the Tibetans opposed this takeover. India tried to persuade China to recognise Tibet’s claim for Independence. Since then Tibet has become a major issue of conflict between India and China.
  3. Over the last half century a large number of Tibetans have sought refuge in India and many other countries of the world.
  4.  In Delhi, there are large settlements of Tibetan refugees. Dharamshala in Himachal Pardesh is perhaps the largest refuge settlement of Tibtans in India.
  5.  Dalai Lama, the religious leader of Tibetans in India, has also made Dharamshala his
    home in India.
  6.  Besides, in the 1950s and 1960s many political leaders and parities in India including the Socialist Party and the Jana Sangh supported the cause of Tibet’s independence.

Question.28.State four reasons as to why super-powers should have military alliances with small countries.
Answer.With their nuclear weapons and regular armies super powers were so powerful that the combined power of most of the smaller states in Asia and Africa and even in Europe, was no match to them. Yet, the smaller states were helpful to the superpowers in gaining access to:

  1.  Vital resources – such as soil and minerals.
  2.  Territory – from where the superpowers could launch their weapons and
    troops.
  3.  Locations – from where their superpowers could spy on each other.
  4.  Economic support – in that many small allies together could help pay for military
    expenses.
  5. Ideological reasons – They were also important for ideological reasons like the loyalty
    of allies suggested that the super powers were winning the war
    of ideas as well.

Question.29. Explain any two factors responsible for Pakistan’s failure in building a stable democracy.
Answer. (i) Social Dominance The social dominance of the military, clergy and land owning aristocracy has led to the frequent overthrow of elected governments and the establishment of military governments.
(ii) Conflict with India Pakistan’s conflict with India has made the paramilitary groups more powerful. These groups have often said that political parties and democracy in Pakistan are flawed that Pakistan’s security would be harmed by selfish- minded parties and chaotic democracy, hence, the army stay in power is justified.

Question.34. Why are India’s relations with Russia considered an important aspect of India’s foreign policy ? Explain.
Or
Explain the Eastern and the Western alliances during the Cold War period. Name any two European countries from amongst the following, which were not members of these alliances:
France, Poland, Sweden, Spain, Austria, Romania.
Answer. India’s relations with Russia are considered an important aspect of India’s foreign policy because Indo-Russian relations are embedded in a history of trust and common interests. Relations are also matched by popular perceptions.
Common view on the multipolar world order: Russia and India share a vision of multipolar world order. For both these countries a multipolar world order is the co-existence of several powers in the international system, collective security, greater regionalism, negotiated settlements of international conflicts an independent .foreign policy for all countries and decision making through bodies like the UN that should be strengthened, democratised and empowered.
• India’s stand towards Russia : India gets meaningful benefits for having healthy relations with Russia on the issues like Kashmir, energy supplies, sharing information on international terrorism, access to central Asia, and balancing its relation with China.
• Russia’s stand towards India : Like India Russia stands to benefit from this relationship because India is the second largest arms market for Russia.
• Besides, Indian military gets most of its hardware from Russia. Since India is an oil importing nation, so Russia is important to India and has repeatedly come to the assistance of India during its oil crisis.
• In order to meet the demands of energy India is trying to increase it energy imports from Russia and the republics of Kazakihstan and Turkmenistan. This also broadened the scope for partnership and investment in oilfields.
• India has also strengthened its relation with Russia for her nuclear energy plans and space industry. India gets the cryogenic rocket from Russia whenever it needed it.
• Thus, we may safely conclude that India has maintained good relations with all the post-communist countries. But the strongest relations are still those between Russia and India.
Or
The ‘Alliance system’ was developed by the two superpowers to expand their spheres of
influence in different parts of the world.
(i) In a world sharply divided between the two alliance systems, a state was supposed to remain tied to its protective superpower to limit the influence of the other super power and its allies.
(ii) The Alliance system led by the two super powers, therefore, threatened to divide the entire world into two camps (i) Western Alliances, (ii) Eastern Alliances.
The ideological reason of alliance system was winning the war of ideas like :

  1.  The western Alliance headed by the US, represented the ideology of liberal democracy and capitalism.-
  2. On the other hand Eastern alliance headed by the Soviet Union was committed to the ideology of socialism and communism.
  3. Sweden and Austria were not the members of these alliances of western bloc and eastern bloc.

SET – III

Question.2. On which ground was a state of emergencey declared on 25 June 1975 ?
Answer. (i) The Congress government declared a state of emergency on 25th June 1975 in response to Jayaparkash Narayan’s nationwide Satyagraha for the resignation of Indira Gandhi.
(ii) Observing the situation the government decided that a grave crisis had arisen which made the proclamation of a state of emergency necessary.

Question.8. What is Amnesty International ?
Answer. Amnesty International is a NGO that’ campaigns for the protection of human rights all over the world.
(i) It promotes respect for all the human rights in the universal declaration of Human Rights.
(ii) It belives that human rights are interdependent and indivisible. ‘

Question.14. Why was a case against the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh registered in the Supreme Court in 1993 ? What punishment was awarded to him ?
Answer. A case against the chief minister of Uttar Pardesh was registered in the Supreme Court in
1993 on the issue of demolition of Babri Masjid. –

  1.  The case was registered in the Supreme Court for contempt of court since he had given an undertaking that the disputed structure will be protected.
  2.  The state government under the then chief minster was dismissed by the centre and a commission was set up to investigate into the circumstances.

Question.19. Give any two reasons as to why issues of environment and natural resources have become a part of the world politics.
Answer. Depletion of Natural Resources: Throughout the world cultivable area is barely expanding any more and a substantial portion of existing agricultural land is losing fertility; grasslands have been overgrazed and fisheries overharvested.
Loss of Biodiversity: Natural forests which help stabilise the climate, moderate water supplies and harbour a majority of the planet biodiversity on land are being cut down and people are being displaced. The loss of biodiversity continues due to the destruction of habitat in areas which are rich in species.

Question.22. How was the 1971 war forced upon India ? Explain in brief.
Answer. The struggle for the independence of Bangladesh started when West Pakistan did not allow the Awami League, a party of East Pakistan, to prove its majority and form the government. This enraged the East Pakistanis and they rebelled which was dealt with by an army crackdown. However, India had to intervene due to the atrocities committed by the Pakistani army on the unarmed people and due to influx of lakhs of refugees into India,
The government of India supported the demand of the people of East Pakistan for independence and helped them financially and militarily.
This resulted in a war between India and Pakistan in December 1971. The war ended with the surrender of the Pakistani forces in East Pakistan and the formation of Bangladesh as an independent country.

Question.25. Describe any four weaknesses of the Soviet System.
Answer. During the cold war era the Soviet system became very bureaucratic and authoritarian, making life difficult for its citizens. There were following reasons and situations which signify bureaucratic and authoritarian system of Soviet state like :
Lack of Democracy and absence of freedom : In the Soviet state there was “lack of democracy” and “the absence of freedom of speech” which stifled people who often expressed their dissent in jokes and cartoons.
Strict control over the institutions : Most of the institutions of the Soviet Union needed reform because the one party system-represented by the communist party of the soviet union had tight control over all institutions and was unaccountable to the people.
In this way, Soviet System became a bureaucratic and authoritarian state.
The Soviet system became weak and economy stagnant because the Soviet economy used, much of its resources in maintaining a nuclear and military arsenal and the development of its satellite states in Eastern Europe and within the Soviet system i.e. the five central Asian Republics in particular.
This practice led to a huge economic burden that the system could not cope up with.
At the same time ordinary citizens became more knowledgeable about the economic advancement of the west. They could see the disparities between their system and the systems of the west.
Thus, the reality of its backwardness came as a political and psychological shock to the people of Soviet state.

Question.26. Describe in brief the crisis China faced before ending political and economic isolation.
Answer. After the inception of the People’s Republic of China in 1949, China followed Soviet model of economy which allowed China to use its resources to establish the foundations of an Industrial economy. Since then China was completely isolated in politics and economic areas. But at same time in the following years, China faced various problems like;

  1. Economic growth was insufficient to meet the needs of a growing population.
  2.  Agricultural production was not sufficient to generate surplus for industary.
  3.  China’s Industrial production was not growing fast enough.
  4.  International Trade was minimal and per capita income very low.
  5.  Due to these crises China ended its political and economic isolation with the establishment of relations with the United States in 1972.

Question.32. “The transition from Communism to Capitalism in Pre-Soviet Republics was not a smooth one.” Explain the statement.
Or
“Non-alignment was a strategy evolved in the Cold War context” With the disintegration of the USSR has it lost its relevance ? Highlight any two suitable arguments in support of your answer.
Answer. The Shock-Therapy was the State of affairs which signifies the collapse of communism followed by a painful process of transition from an authoritarian socialist system to a democratic capitalist system. The model of transition in Russia, Central Asia and East Europe was influenced by the World Bank and the IMF.
‘Shock Therapy’ varied in intensity and speed amongst the former second world countries but its direction and features were quite similar.
Capitalist Economy: The shock-Therapy advocated that every country was required to make a total shift to capitalist efonomy i.e. the private ownership became a dominant pattern of ownership of property.
Private farming : Shock-Therapy involved the replacement of collective farming to private farming and capitalism in agriculture.
Free Trade: Shock-Therapy stressed on the external orientation of the economies with the free trade as the essential condition. The free trade regime and foreign direct investment [FDI] became the main engines of change. ‘
Trade alliances with west: Shock-Therapy transition also involved a break-up of the existing trade alliances among the countries of the Soviet Bloc. Each state from the bloc was supposed to be directly linked to the west instead of inter-trade alliance among the regions.
The western capitalist states now got the dominant position and thus guided and controlled the economic development of the regions.
The above features of the Shock-Therapy show the transition from authoritarian socialist system to a democratic capitalist system.
Or
Non-alignment as a strategy evolved in the Cold War context, but the end of “Cold War” and a Unipolar world did not see thd end of the non-alignment.
Non-alignment still contains some core values and end-using ideas.

  1. Its emphasis has shifted from “political issues to economic issues”.
  2.  Liberalisation of third world economies for rapid development of the countries of south now remains the main concern of NAM.
  3.  Issues like democracy, disarmament, human rights and neo-colonialism are as relevant today as earlier.
    With the disintegration of the erstwhile USSR, there is only one super power therefore, it is very essential for NAM to make sincere efforts to check USA from taking unilateral decisions.
  4. Now its emphasis has also shifted towards poverty alleviation, New International Economic Order (NIEO) based on equality, equity and justice and promotion of industrialisation.
    NAM must make efforts’to reshape and democratise the United Nations so that the domination of powerful countries is checked.
    Besides, NAM must ensure that in the era of Globalisation, liberalism and explosion of Information Technology (IT), the developed and developing nations derive the maximum benefit and are not allowed to be exploited.
    Therefore, the concept of non-alignment is applicable even in normal situation. Its essence is that every international issue is discussed on merit. This is an attitude which must be reflected in international affairs.

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 15

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 15

[Time Allowed : 3 hrs.]                                                                                              [Maximum Marks] : 100

General Instruction:

  1. All Questions are compulsory.
  2. Question numbers 1-5 are of 1 mark each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 20 words each.
  3. Question numbers 6-10 are of 2 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 40 words each.
  4. Question numbers 11-16 are of 4 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
  5. Question numbers 17-21 are of 5 marks each. The answers to this question should not exceed 150 words.
  6. Question numbers 22-27 are of 6 marks each. The answers to this question should not exceed 150 words.

Question.1. Why do we need international organizations like the UNO ?
Answer. We need International Organizations like the UNC to prevent international conflicts to maintain international peace and security and to cooperate in solving international economic, social, cultural and humanitarian problems.

Question.2. Mention any two member nations of SAARC.
Answer. SAARC was established in 1985. There are seven countries in the South Asian region which combine to form SAARC— India, Pakistan, Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Maldives.

Question.3. What does security relate to ?
Answer. Security relates to freedom from threats, whether external or internal. It is an essence for the existence of human life.

Question.4. Why did the senior Congress leaders support Indira Gandhi as Prime Minister of India in 1966 ?
Answer. The senior Congress leaders supported Indira Gandhi feeling that her administrative and political inexperience would compel her to be dependent on them.

Question.5. What was the most important recommendation of the States Reorganisation Commission ?
Answer. The creation of states could be on the basis of languages spoken by the people. The language of the majority people was taken into consideration.

Question.6. Why did the United States of America launch a war against Iraq ?
Answer. Operation Iraqi Freedom ty/as the code name given by the US when it launched invasion of Iraq on 19th March, 2003. More than forty countries joined in the US-led ‘Coalition of the Willing’ after the UN refused to give its mandate to the invasion.
Aims and Objectives:
(i) The main purpose of the invasion was to prevent Iraq from developing weapons of Mass Destruction [WMD].
(ii) But this was an eyewash, because no evidence of WMD has been unearthed in Iraq, so it is being speculated all over the world that the invasion was motivated by other objectives such as, controlling Iraqi oil fields and installing a regime friendly to the US.

Question.7. Mention any two components of India’s security strategy.
Answer. (i) India tried to strengthen its military capabilities because it has been involved in conflicts with its neighbours and has fulfledged wars with Pakistan in 1947-48,1965,1971 and 1999 and with China in 1962.
(ii) Since it is surrounded by nuclear armed countries in the south Asian region, India’s decision to conduct Nuclear tests in 1998 was justified in terms of safeguarding national security.

Question.8. What is Reorganisation of States ? When did it take place ?
Answer. Reorganisation of States means redrawing boundaries of a state with the integration of princely states into the Indian Union. After the partition, many princely states like Kashmir, Hyderabad, Junagarh, Mysore, Wlanipur, etc. refused to join the Indian Union.
(i) The process of nation building was a difficult task and the Government appointed a State Reorganisation Commission in 1953. Its main aim was to draw internal boundaries.
(ii) On the basis of the report of this commission, States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956. As a result 14 states and 6 union territories were created, from among the princely states.

Question.9. What strategies were used by Narmada Bachao Aandolan to put forward its demands ?
Answer. Narmada Bachao Aandolan used every available democratic strategy to put forward its demands such as:
(i) Appeals to judiciary
(ii) Mobilization of support at the international level
(iii) Public rallies to support the movement
(iv) Satyagraha to convince people

Question.10. Explain the term separatism with reference to Kashmir.
Answer. Separatism means demanding separate/independent status from the parent body.
In Kashmir, separatist politics began in 1989 and is nowhere near an end. The Kashmir problem can be seen from the following three angles:
(i) Those who want a separate Kashmiri nation.
(ii) Those who want to merge with Pakistan.
(iii) Those who want greater autonomy for the people of the state within the Indian Union.

Question.11. Describe any two cultural consequences of globalization.
Answer. As far as cultural consequences are concerned, it would be a mistake to assume that cultural consequences of globalization are only negative. Actually culture is not static. All cultures accept outside influences all the time. Some external influences are negative because they reduce our choices.
But sometimes external influences simply enlarge our choices and sometimes they modify our culture without overwhelming the traditional norms. For example, a burger is no substitute for a masala dosa and therefore does not pose any real challenge. In the same way blue jeans can go well with a homespun khadi kurta. Here the outcome of outside influences is a new combination, that is unique. Globalization broadens our cultural outlook and promotes cultural homogenisation.
The cultural globalization leads to a fear that this process poses a threat to cultures in the world. The rise of a uniform culture is not the emergence of globalization or a global culture. What we have in the name of a global culture is the imposition of western culture on the rest of the world.
(i) The culture of the politically and economically dominant society leaves its imprint on a less powerful society and the world begins to look more like a dominant power wishes it to be.
(ii) This is dangerous not only for the poor countries but for the whole of humanity for it leads to the shrinking of the rich cultural heritage of the entire global.

Question.12. What does US hegemony mean in today’s world? Mention any two constraints that operate on the US hegemony.
Answer. The USA is the sole superpower since the disintegration of the Soviet Union in 1991.
(i) American military dominance today is both absolute and relative. In absolute terms, the US today has military capabilities that can target any point on the planet accurately.
(ii) The US hegemony is also reflected in the role played by it in providing global public goods.
Constraints on American Power:
(i) The institutional architecture of the American state itself, i.e., they follow a system of division of powers between the three organs of the government.
(ii) The open nature of American society and political culture, i.e., their mass media, may promote or impose a particular issue on domestic public opinion but never opposed regarding the purposes and methods of government in American political culture.
(iii) The most important constraint is that there is only one organisation i.e. NATO, in the international system that can moderate the exercise of American power today.

Question.13. How does political leadership of a nation affect its foreign policy ? Explain this with the help of examples from India’s foreign policy.
Answer. Foreign policy of any country is always dictated by ideas of national interest. So, to some extent, the change in political leadership of a nation affects its foreign policy as well. To prove it we can take India’s example.
In India the period starting from 1977 saw the emergence of Non-Congress governments, i.e. The Janata Party. The Janata Party government, which came to power in 1977, announced that it would follow genuine non-alignment. This implied that the pro-Soviet tilt in the foreign policy will be corrected. Since then, all governments (Congress or Non-Congress) have taken initiatives for restoring better relations with China and entering into close ties with the US.
(i) Moreover, in post-1990 period, the ruling parties have often been criticized for their
pro-US tilt. At the sametime, in the period after 1990, Russia, though it continues to be an important friend of India, has lost its global pre-eminence. Therefore, India’s foreign policy has shifted to become more pro-US.
(ii) Besides, the contemporary international situation is more influenced by economic interests than by military interests. This has also made an impact on India’s foreign policy choices. At the same time, Indo-Pakistan relations have witnessed many developments during this period.

Question.14. What is meant by ‘Global Commons’? Suggest two steps for the protection of Global Commons.
Answer. There are some areas or regions of the world which are located outside the sovereign jurisdiction of any one state. They need a common governance by the international
community. These are known as ‘Global Commons’ or ‘res communis humanitatis’. Global Commons include the earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica, the ocean floor, outer space and Arctic polar regions.
Two steps to protect Global Commons:
(i) Commercial exploitation should not be allowed.
(ii) Activities in these areas are restricted to scientific research.
(iii) The advanced countries should find environment friendly technologies to prevent environmental degradation.
(iv) NGOs and international organisations should come forward to work actively and to create awareness among the people.

Question.15. How far is it correct to say that coalition government in India has helped in arriving at some consensus ?
Answer. It is correct to say that coalition government in India has helped in arriving at some consensus. In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts, a consensus appears to have emerged among most parties.on many crucial issues. This consensus consists Of four elements.
(i) Agreement on new’economic policies: While many groups are opposed to the new economic policies, most parties believe that these policies would lead the country to prosperity and a status of economic power in the world.
(ii) Acceptance of the political and social claims of the backward castes: Political parties have recognised that the social and political claims of the backward castes need to be accepted. As a result all political parties now support reservation of seats for the backward classes in education and employment. Political parties are also willing to ensure that the OBCs get adequate share of power.
(iii) Acceptance of the role of state level parties in governance of the country : The
distinction between the state level and the national level parties is fast becoming less important.
(i v) Emphasis on pragmatic considerations rather than ideological positions and political alliances without ideological agreement: Coalition politics has shifted the focus of political parties from ideological differences to power politics.

Question.16. What does the term Syndicate mean in the context of the Congress Party of the sixties ? What role did the syndicate play in the Congress party ?
Answer. Syndicate was the informal name given to a group of Congress leaders within the Congress who were in control of the party’s organisation.
(i) It was led by K. Kamraj, former Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu and the then President of
the Congress Party. It included powerful state leaders like S.K. Patil, S. Nijalingappa, N. Sanjeeva Reddy and Atulaya Ghosh. –
(ii) In the sixties, the syndicate played a decisive role in the installation of both Lai Bahadur Shastri and Indira Gandhi as the Prime Ministers.
(iii) This group had a decisive say in Indira Gandhi’s first Council of Ministers and also in policy formulation and its implementation.
(iv) But after the Congress split, the leaders of the syndicate and those owing allegiance to them stayed with the Congress (0) and a group led by Indira Gandhi formed Congress (R).

Question.17. Read the following passage and answer the questions below:
“Patel, the organisational man of the Congress, wanted to purge the Congress of other political groups and sought to make of it a cohesive and disciplined political party. He … sought to take the Congress away from its all-embracing character and turn it into a close-knit party of disciplined cadres. Being a ‘realist’ he looked more for discipline than for comprehension. While Gandhi took too romantic a view of “carrying on the movement,” Patel’s idea of transforming the Congress into strictly political party with a single ideology and tight discipline showed an equal lack of understanding of the eclectic role that the Congress, as a government, was to be called upon to perform in the decades to follow.”
(a) Why does the author think that Congress should not have been a cohesive and disciplined party ?
(b) Give some examples of the eclectic role of the Congress party in the early years.
(c) Why does the author say that Gandhi’s view about Congress future was romantic ?
Answer. (a) The author thinks that Congress should not have been a cohesive and disciplined party
because he wanted to take the Congress away from its all embracing character and turn it into a close-knit party of disciplined cadres.
(b) There are some examples of the “Electic role” of the Congress party in the early years.
(i) The Congress party provided a ‘Platform’ for numerous groups, interests and even political parties to take part in the national movement.
(ii) The Congress party also presented a “Rainbow-like social coalition” broadly representing India’s diversity in terms of class and castes, religions and languages and various interests.
(c) . The author says that Gandhiji’s view about Congress future was romantic because
Gandhiji believed in the inclusive character of the National Movement led by the Congress, which in turn enabled it to attract different sections, groups and interests.
And all these made the Congress a “broad based social and ideological coalition”.

Question.18. “If Bharatiya Jana Sangh or the Communist party of India had formed the government after the first election, in which respects would the policies of the government have been different. Specify three differences each for both the parties.
Answer. If Bharatiya Jana Sangh or the Communist Party of India had formed the government after the first election, the policies of government may have been different in following ways:
(i) For Bharatiya Jarfa Sangh the policies were based on
(a) One country, one culture and one nation replacing secular concept.
(b) India would have reunited with Pakistan under the concept of Akhand Bharat.
(c) No cultural and educational rights as the Bharatiya Jan Sangh opposed the granting of concessions to religious and cultural minorities.
(ii) • For Communist Party the government policy directed towards the system of proportional representation.
• Control on the electronic mass media by an autonomous body or corporation.
• Government would follow the communist ideology on broad policy matters.

Question.19. Here are two opinions—
Bismay : “The merger with the Indian State was an extension of democracy to the people of the Princely States.”
Inderpreet : “I am not so sure, there was force being used. Democracy comes by creating consensus.”
What is your own opinion in the light of accession of Princely States and the responses of the people in these parts ?
Answer. In our opinion the accession of princely states and merger with Indian Union was an extension of democracy to the people of the princely states because people of the princely states never enjoyed political rights and struggled for democratic set-up.
To some extent central government used force to extend democracy.

Question.20. Look at the Cartoon given above and answer the following question:
solved-cbse-sample-papers-for-class-12-political-science-set-15-1
A cartoonist’s reading of Charan Singh’s attempt to build a United Front of non-communist parties in 1974.
(i) What is meant by “Keep Right, no left turn” ?
(ii) Mention the full form of the follgwing;
(a) BKD.
(b) SSP
(c) BKS
Answer. (i) ‘Keep Right, no Left Turn’ signifies that the United Front party by Charan Singh is ‘ formed on the basis of non-communist ideology and expected to follow rightist only. The term ‘Right’ refers to ‘non-communists’ and ‘Left’ refer to “Communist Party”.
(ii) (a) BKD— Bhartiya Kranti Dal
(b) SSP— Samyukta Socialist Party .
(c) BKS— Bihar Kranti Sabha

Question.21. In the given political map of India identify the Princely states and write about any two states how they integrated with India.
solved-cbse-sample-papers-for-class-12-political-science-set-15-2
Answer. The Princely states at the time of Independence were :
1. Jammu and Kashmir 2. Rajputana
3. Gwalior 4. Gujarat
5. States of Western India 6. Baroda
7. Hyderabad 8. Mysore
9. Khasi states 10. Manipur
11. Tripura 12. Cooch Behar.
Hyderabad:
It was the largest princely state which covers today parts of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
The ruler carried the title ‘Nizam’ who wanted an independent status for Hyderabad. In the meantime, a popular movement was launched against Nizam’s rule. It was joined by Peasants in Telengana, women, the communists and the Hyderabad Congress.
The Nizam responded by sending a para-military force (Razakars) to terrorise the people. They brutally attacked the people, murdered, raped, looted and targetted the non-Muslims. To tackle the situation the central government sent the army in September 1948 and after a few days the Nizam surrendered and finally Hydrabad integrated with India.
Manipur:
A few days before Independence, the Maharaja of Manipur (Bodachandra Singh) signed an agreement called “Instrument of*Accession” with the Indian government. It ensured that the internal autonomy of Manipur would be maintained.
In June 1948 an election was held and Manipur became the first constitutional monarchy. The state Congress wanted to merge with India but other political parties opposed. Later the Govt, of India succeeded and the Maharaja signed “Merger Agreement” in 1949. This caused a lot of problems and resentment in Manipur.

Question.22. “The Cold War produced an arms race as well as arms control.” What were the reasons for both these developments ?
Or
Write an essay for or against the following proposition, “With the disintegration of the Second World, India should change its foreign policy and focus more on Friendship with the US rather than with traditional friends like Russia.”
Answer. The Cold War was an outcome of the emergence of the US and the USSR as two superpowers who were rival to each other. They were keen on expanding their spheres of influence in different parts of the world. Hence, the world was sharply divided between the two alliance systems.
Arms Race and use of Military Power: In some cases, the superpowers used their military power to bring countries into their respective alliances. Thus, their mutual rivalry and suspicions led them to arm themselves to the teeth and to constantly prepare for war. Huge stocks of arms were considered necessary to prevent wars from taking place. This is also known as ‘arms race.’ .
Cold War led to several shooting wars like Korean crisis, Berlin crisis, Congo crisis, etc. All these made the superpowers realise that war by all means should be avoided because in the event of a nuclear war both sides will be so badly harmed that it will be impossible to declare one side as the winner.
Arms control: The US and the USSR decided to collaborate In limiting or eliminating certain kindsof nuclear and non-nuclear weapons. A stable balance of weapons, they decided, could be maintained through “arms control”, s The two sides signed three significant agreements within a decade.

  1. Limited Test Ban Treaty
  2.  Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
  3.  The Anti-Ballistic Missile Treaty
    Thereafter, the superpowers held several rounds of talks on arms limitation and signed several treaties to limit their arms.
    All these show that the Cold War produced an arms race as well as arms control.

Or
No, India should not change its foreign policy and focus more on friendship with the US, but, India should maintain a healthy relationship with Russia because Indo-Russian relations are embedded in a history of trust and common interests and are matched by popular perceptions.

  1.  Common view on the multipolar world order: Russia and India share a vision of multipolar world order. For both these countries a multipolar world order is the co-existence of several powers in the international system, collective security, greater
    regionalism, negotiated settlements of international conflicts, an independent foreign policy for all countries and decision making through bodies like the UN that should be strengthened, democratised and empowered.
  2. India’s stand towards Russia : India gets meaningful benefits for having healthy relations with Russia on the issues like Kashmir, energy supplies, sharing information on international terrorism, access to central Asia and balancing its relation with China.
  3.  Russia’s stand towards India: Like India, Russia stands to benefit from this relationship because India is the second largest arms market for Russia.
    (a) Besides, Indian military gets most of its hardware from Russia. Since India is an oil importing nation, Russia is important to India and has repeatedly come to the assistance of India during its oil crisis.
    (b) In order to meet the demands of energy, India is trying to increase it energy imports from Russia and the republics of Kazakhistan and Turkmenistan. This has also broadened the scope for partnership and investment in oilfields.
    (c) India has also strengthened its relation with Russia for its nuclear energy plans and space industry. India gets the cryogenic rocket from Russia whenever needed.
    Thus, we may safely conclude that India has maintained good relations with all the post-communist countries but the strongest relations are still those between Russia and India.

Question.23. Critically evaluate the impact of the changing role of the state in the developing countries in the light of Globalization.
Or
“Pursuing economic development without causing further damage to the global environment is a major challenge before the States.” Suggest any three measures to overcome this problem.
Answer. The changing role of the state has its mixed impact in the light of globalization which can be analysed in the following manner.
• At its simple level, globalization results in an erosion of state capacity, that is, the ability of governments to do what they do.
• All over the world, thg old welfare state is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions such as the maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens. In another way it withdraws from many of its earlier welfare functions directed at economic and sociakwell-being.
• In place of the welfare state, it is the market that becomes the prime determinant of economic and social priorities.
• The entry and the increased role of multinational companies all over the world leads to
a reduction in the capacity of governments to take decisions on their own. ‘
But at the same time globalization does not always reduce state capacity. The primacy of the state continues to be an unchallenged basis of political community.
• The old jealousies and rivalries between countries have not ceased to matter in world politics.
Above all, to some extent, developing countries have received a boost as a consequence of globalization and have become more powerful than they were earlier as an outcome of the new technology.
Or
Pursuing economic development without damaging global environment: In recent times the concept of sustainable development is widely spoken of. It means that the development should be at a faster rate without affecting the environment and also of keeping in view the needs of future generations. It i§ to be kept in mind that pursuit of economic development should not affect the global environment. Some of these measures can be as follows:

  1.  Use of non-conventional resources such as water, wind, solar and natural gas could help to have clean environment. All public vehicles should use such fuels and the private individuals should also try to use clean fuels.
  2. Conventional sources like coal and petroleum are limited and cause damage to environment in the form of air pollution. This can be checked by changing to renewable resources, e.g. CNG has reduced the level of pollution in Delhi.
  3.  We should use environmentally sound technology which would help both development as well as to have clean environment, e.g. the new construction of buildings should be accompanied by natural parks and rainwater harvesting system.
  4.  The harmful gases (greenhouse emissions) should be reduced because these increase the temperature which leads to global warming. It is believed that the developed nations should take the responsibility of increasing greenhouse gases (due to their large scale industrial activities).
  5. Afforestation should be increased because it helps to grow more trees at all possible levels. The forest policy should cover this as main motive which would help both economic and environmental aspects.
  6.  The government laws should be very strict in handling environment issues, e.g. there should be a ban on forest clearing and any activity which is related to deforestation. There should be a well planned system for the location of industries and the industrial waste should be disposed off in a safe process/method.

Question.24. How was the ‘one party dominant system’ in India different from similar systems elsewhere? Did the dominance of one party mean that India was not really a democracy? Give reasons to support your answer.
Or
What was the green revolution? Which areas did it affect the most? Mention two positive and two negative consequences of the green revolution.
Answer. (a) ‘One party dominant system’ means that a single party enjoys monopoly of power over a long period of time and exclusion of other parties to reach power. In mexico PRI dominated the political system. The elections were after rigged and manipulated by the really party. But in India elections were based on fair competition among political parties.
(b) No. The dominance of one party did not mean that India was not really a democracy. Even though Congress was a dominant party for more than two decades, the Indian political system is still democratic because of the following reasons:

  1. Open nature of the Indian political system, i.e., existence of multi-party system.
  2.  At the time of independence, there was no strong political party except the Congress.
  3.  The role of Congress during our freedom struggle could be remembered and people cast votes as their tribute to the Congress leaders.
  4.  The regional parties gained importance at national level and multi-party system had come into the picture in 1989.
  5. The advancement in the electoral system (electronic voting machine,’ common platform for political agenda) strengthened the democratic pattern.
  6.  Active participation of women and improvement in Panchayat Raj system and its success make Indian political system democratic.

Or
The term ‘green revolution’ refers to the new methods adopted by the government in agriculture in order to increase foodgrain production during 1960s.
The modern method includes the use of high yielding variety of seeds, use of fertilizers and pesticides, better irrigation methods, use of modern tools, highly subsidized prices, etc.
Positive aspects of green revolution :

  1.  The region, where it was introduced like Punjab, Haryana and Western U.P., became prosperous.
  2.  The middle class peasants benefitted from the fruit of green revolution.
  3. Modern technology was used by peasants in maximum areas of cultivation.
  4. It led to easy availability of latest technology, good equipment, loans, other facilities like Crop Insurance Scheme, etc.
  5. The food grain production increased manifold and food security was ensured.
  6.  Many new varieties of food grains, adaptable to our climatic conditions, increased the net sown area’.

Negative aspects of green revolution :

  1.  It increased polarisation between classes and regions. Some regions of North and Northwestern India like Punjab and Haryana became prosperous while rest of India remained backward.
  2. For small farmers it is still a dream because it requires large areas and investment for cultivation.
  3.  Some of the traditional varieties of food grains lost their importance.
  4.  There was a sharp contrast between the rich and the poor farmers.
  5.  The left wing organisations used the poor peasants as their vote banks.
  6. The illiterate peasants could not understand the system behind the green revolution.

Question.25. Describe briefly the composition and any four functions of the Planning Commission of India.
Or
“Indian policy makers made a mistake by emphasising the role of state in the economy. India could have developed much better if private sector was allowed a free play right from the beginning.” Give arguments for or against this proposition.
Answer. The Planning Commission of India was set up in 1950 by a cabinet resolution and not by a law of parliament. It is an extra-constitutional body. It does not have statutory or constitutional status.

  1.  It is supposed to be ‘advisory’ in nature but in reality it is very powerful and is called the ‘Economic Cabinet of the Country’.
  2.  The Planning Commission has an advisory role and its recommendations become effective after the approval of the Union Cabinet.
  3.  The Planning Commission prepares a document that has a plan for the income and expenditure of the government for the five years plans.
  4.  The Planning Commission prepares the plan in such a way that each citizen has a right to an adequate means of livelihood.
  5.  also ensures that the operations of the economic system do not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

Or
No, the above mentioned statement is not fully true and proved the mistake of our policy makers, because the role of state in the Indian economy was very much required to regulate our economy immediately after independence. Later on, when our economy got stabilised and regulated, the Indian policy makers introduced New Economic Policy as well in 1991 to liberalise our economy.
In the beginning India did not follow any of the two known paths— it did not accept the capitalist model of development in which development was left entirely to the private sector, nor did it follow the socialist model in which private property was abolished and all the production was controlled by the state.
But the elements from both these models were taken together in India which came to be known as “Mixed Economy”.
This concept of Mixed Economy was open to criticism both from the left and the right.
Arguments against the state control:

  1. Critics argued that planners refused to provide the private sector with enough space and stimulus to grow.
  2.  According to them, the enlarged public sector created enough hurdles for private capital, in the way of installing systems of licenses and permits for investment.
  3.  The state controlled more things than were necessary and this led to inefficiency and corruption.

Arguments in favour of the state control:

  1. There were critics who thought that the state did not do enough. It intervened only in those areas where the private sector was not prepared to go. Thus the state helped the private sector to make profit.
  2. Also, instead of helping the poor, the state intervention ended up creating a new middle class that enjoyed the privileges of high salaries without much accountablity.
    Thus, we can safely say the roll of state in Indian Economy was beneficial in the early years both for the public as well as the private sector. And this led India towards development.

Question.26. Explain the presidential Election of 1969 and its significance in Indian Politics.
Or
Explain the relationship between economic development and environment.
Answer. The Presidential election of 1969 was very much significant in Indian politics.

  1.  It revealed the factional rivalry between the syndicate and Indira Gandhi.
  2.  Actually after the death of then President Dr. Zakir Hussain, despite Mrs. Gandhi’s reservations, the ‘syndicate’ managed to nominate her longtime opponent N. Sanjeeva Reddy (then Speaker of the Lok Sabha) for the ensuing Presidential elections.
  3.  In retaliation Mrs. Indira Gandhi encouraged the then Vice President V.V. Giri to file his nomination as an independent candidate.
  4. In support of her cause she announced several big and popular policy measures like nationalisation of fourteen leading private banks and the abolition of the Privy Purse.
  5.  Those two issues brought differences between Morarji Desai and the then Prime Minister Mrs. Indira Gandhi. Ultimately Morarji Desai left the government.
  6.  Regarding election the then Congress President, S. Nijalingappa issued a ‘whip’ asking all the Congress MPs and MLAs to vote in favour of N.Sanjeeva Reddy.
  7.  On the other hand, Prime Minister openly called for ‘a conscience vote’ and election of 1969 ultimately resulted in the victory of V.V. Giri, the independent candidate and the defeat of Sanjeeva Reddy.
  8.  Finally the defeat of the official Congress candidate formalised the split in the party like old Congress led by Mrs. Indira Gandhi.

Or
In recent times the concept of sustainable development is widely spoken about. It means that the development should be at a faster rate without affecting the environment and also keeping in view the needs of future generations. It is to be kept in mind that pursuit of economic development should not affect global environment.
Some of these measures can be as follows:

  1.  Use of non-conventional resources such as water, wind, solar and natural gas could help to have clean environment. All public vehicles should use such fuels and the private individuals should also try to use clean fuels.
  2. Conventional sources like coal and petroleum are limited and cause damage to environment in the form of air pollution. These can be replaced by changing to renewable resources, e.g. CNG has reduced the level of pollution in Delhi.
  3.  We should use environmentally sound technology which would help both development as well as to have clean environment, e.g., the new construction of buildings should be accompanied by natural parks and rainwater harvesting system.
  4. The harmful gases (Greenhouse Emissions) should be reduced because these increase the temperature which leads to global warming. It is believed that the developed nations should take the responsibility of increasing greenhouse gases (due to their large scale industrial activities).
  5.  Afforestation should be increased because it helps to grow more trees at all possible levels. The forest policy should cover this as the main motive which would help both in economic and environmental aspects.
  6.  The government laws4should be very strict in handling environment issues, e.g., there
    should be a ban on forest clearing and any activity which is related to deforestation. There should be a well planned system and the industrial waste should be disposed off in a judicious manner.

Question.27. Analyse any three lessons that were learnt from the Emergency declared in India on 25th June, 1975.
Or
Explain any three major outcomes of Lok Sabha elections of 1977.
Answer. Emergency was imposed on 25th June, 1975 for the first time in India by Indira Gandhi.
There were different views on emergency. Some supported the Congress and said that it was necessary to control the internal disturbances and mentioned the unity of nation. Some criticised the emergency as being against the basic concept of democracy.

  1. Even after such criticism, it is to be noticed that normal democratic functioning was resumed within a short period of time. Therefore, one lesson of emergency is that it is extremely difficult to do away with democracy in India.
  2.  The second lesson, we derived from emergency, is that it brought out some differences and questions regarding the emergency provision in the Constitution that has been rectified since then. For example: When emergency was declared it did not get the approval of the cabinet and now the Constitution clearly states that ‘internal’ Emergency can be proclaimed only on the grounds of ‘armed rebellion’ and it is necessary that the advice to the President to proclaim emergency must be given in writing by the Council of Ministers.
  3. The third lesson was that the emergency made everyone more aware of the value of civil liberties. The courts too, have taken an active role after the emergency in protecting the civil liberties of the individuals.

Or
Major outcomes of the 1977 Lok Sabha elections:
After 18 months of emergency, elections were held in March 1977. For the first time the Congress lost the election and could manage to win only 154 seats in the Lok Sabha. Its share of popular votes fell to less chan 35%. The Janata Party and its allies won 330 out of 542 seats. The Congress lost from every constituency in Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Delhi and Haryana. It was a very high blow to the Congress. It could win only one seat each in Rajasthan and Madhaya Pradesh. Indira Gandhi was defeated from Rai Bareli, as was her son Sanjay Gandhi from Amethi. *
The Janata Party was formed out of a combination of parties. The leadership of Jayaprakash Narayan was accepted. Under the leadership of Jagjivan Ram, some Congress leaders formed the Congress for Democracy which later merged with the Janata Party. The Janata Party called this election as a referendum on emergency.
It was the time for the opposition party to realise that if non-Congress votes were not divided, they could form the government and enjoy the power. Thus, it indicated the tough time ahead for the Congress.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Foreign – 2014

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Foreign – 2014

Time Allowed: 3 Hours                                                                                          Maximum Marks: 100
General Instructions:

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. Question Numbers 1 to 10 are of one mark each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 20 words each.
  3.  Question Numbers 11 to 20 are of two marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 40 words each.
  4. Question Numbers 21 to 30 are of four marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
  5. Question Numbers 31 to 35 are of six marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 150 words each.
  6. Question Number 35 is based on the map. Write the answer in your Answer-Book.

SET -I

Question.1.What does ASEAN stand for? 1
Question.2.Mention any two features of the Constitution of Bangladesh.1
Question.3.Name an international Non-government organisation (NGO) that campaigns for the protection of Human Rights. 1
Question.4.Which is the greatest danger to a country as per the traditional notion of security? 1
Question.5.Name any two Princely States that resisted their merger with the Indian Union. 1
Question.6.In which year was the Election Commission of India set up and who was the first Chief Election Commissioner? 1
Question.7.In 1966, who contested against Indira Gandhi for the post of Prime Minister from among the Congress MPs? 1
Question.8.In January 1974, students of Gujarat started an agitation against which two major problems? 1
Question.9.Highlight the main objective of ‘Chipko Movement’. 1
Question.10.Who were the signatories of the Punjab Accord of 1985? 1
Question.11.Which two power-blocs emerged after the Second World War? Name any one country each that sided the two power-blocs. 1+1=2
Question.12.Which two factors compelled Gorbachev to initiate reforms in the USSR? 2×1=2
Question.13.What is meant by the ‘Vision-2020’ of ASEAN? 2
Question.14.“The United Nation was not created to take humanity to heaven, but to save it from hell.” Who made this statement and what post was he/she holding? 1+1=2
Question.15.Mention any two arms control treaties signed by the United States of America and the Soviet Union. 2×1=2
Question.16.State any two features of the ideology of the Swatantra Party. 2×1=2
Question.17.Highlight the two areas on which the First Five Year Plan was focussed. 2×1=2
Question.18. Mention any two Directive Principles of State Policy for the promotion of international peace and security. 2×1=2
Question.19. Which two main issues were addressed by the Dalit Panthers? 2×1=2
Question.20. State any two major political happenings of 1984 in India. 2×1=2
Question.21. When and where was the first Non-aligned Summit held? Explain any three factors which promoted this summit. 1+3=4
Question.22. Study the cartoon given below and answer the questions that follow: 1+1+2=4
cbse-sample-papers-for-class-12-political-science-foreign-2014-1
(i) Why has the cycle been used to depcit China?
(ii) What do the two wheels of the cycle depict?
(iii) What message does the cartoon convey about the Chinese economy?
Question.23. Explain the hegemony of the US as a hard power.4
Question.24. Describe any four issues of conflict between-India and China. 4
Question.25. Explain the criteria proposed for the new permanent and non-permanent members of the Security Council to reform the United Nations. 4×1=4
Question.26. Describe any four steps taken by India to improve the environment. 4×1=4
Question.27. What is ‘Green Revolution’? Highlight any two of its effects: 2+2=4
Question.28. Explain any four important features of India’s Nuclear Policy. 4
Question.29. Assess any two major steps taken by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi before the General Elections of 1971 for alleviation of poverty. 2+2=4
Question.30. In the given political outline map of India, four places have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify them on the basis of information given below and write their correct names in yoyr answer-book with their respective serial numbers and the alphabet concerned : 4×1=4
(i) The State associated with the Golden Temple.
(ii) The State where Dalit Panthers organisation was active.
(iii) The name of this state comprises of the names of its two regions.
(iv) The State where the first democratic elections to its Assembly were held in 1974.
cbse-sample-papers-for-class-12-political-science-foreign-2014-2
Question.31. “The shock therapy administered in the 1990s did not lead the people into the promised utopia of mass consumption.” Justify the statement with any three suitable arguments. 3×2=6
Or
“The Cold War produced an arm race as well as arms control”. Justify the statement with any three suitable arguments. 3×2=6
Question.32. Explain any three environmental concerns in global politics. 3×2=6
Or
Explain any three economic consequences of globalisation. 3×2=6
Question.33. Why was Congress considered as a social and ideological coalition in pre-independence days? Explain. 6
Or
Explain any three consequences of partition in India. 3×2=6
Question.34. Describe any three reasons which led to imposition of emergency in 1975. 6
Or
Describe the various aspects.of Presidential election of 1969. 6
Question.35. Study the passage given below and answer the questions that follow : 6
Thus, with the elections of 1989, a long phase of coalition politics began in India. Since then, there have been nine governments at the Centre, all of which have either been coalition governments or minority governments supported by other parties, which did not join the government. In this new phase, any government could be formed only with the participation or support of many regional parties. This applied to the National Front in 1989, the United Front in 1996 and 1997, the NDA in 1997, BJP-led coalition in 1998, NDA in 1999 and the UPA in 2004.
(i) What is meant by coalition politics?
(ii) Name any two regional political parties which were a part of coalition government at one stage or the other.
(iii) Write the full form NDA.
(iv) What does a minority government mean? Explain.
Or
Study the passage given below and answer the questions that follow : 6
Movements are not only about collective assertions or only about rallies and protests. They involve a gradual process of coming together of people with similar problems, similar demand and similar expectations. But then movements are also about making people aware of their rights and the expectations that they can have from democratic institutions. Social movements in India have been involved in these educative tasks for a long time and have thus contributed to expansion of democracy rather than causing disruptions.
(i) What is the importance of popular movements in democracy?
(ii) How do the popular movements help the government?
(iii) Which organisation formed the National Council for People’s Right to Information?
(iv) What factors make the people come together in a particular movement?

SET – II

Question.1. What does the circle of tile gold stars in the European Union flag stand for? 1
Question.3. State the main function of the World Bank. 1
Question.6. How many Princely States existed at the time of Independence of India? 1
Question.8. What was the slogan of Indira Gandhi during the elections of 1971? 1
Question.11. What is meant by Cold War? 2
Question.13. How does the European Union influence the U.N. Security Council? 2
Question.17. What is meant by ‘hegemony’? 2
Question.19. Mention any two demands of the Chipko Movement. 2×1=2
Question.23. Explain any two constraints on the American power. 2×2=4
Question.26. “Globalisation is a multidimensional concept.” Justify the statement. 4
Question.29. Explain any four reasons for the restoration of Congress after the elections of 1971.
Question.31. Assess any three consequences of Shock Therapy. 3×2=6
Or
Evaluate the role of India during the Cold War on the basis of its any three policies. 3×2=6

SET – III

Question.1. Which two terms of the US President, are popularly known as the ‘Clinton Years’. 1
Question.3. What is the full form of I.A.E.A? When was it established? 1
Question.6. What change was brought in the ballot paper after the first two General Elections in India? 1
Question.8. What is meant by Naxalite Movement? 1
Question.11. At the time of Cuban Klissile Crisis, Cuba was allied to which superpower and why? 1+1=2
Question.13.Explain any two points of special relations between India and Nepal. 2×1=2
Question.17. What assurance did the Maharaja of Manipur want before signing the Instrument of Accession? What pressurised the Maharaja to hold elections in June, 1948? 1+1=2
Question.26. Define ‘indigenous populations’ and highlight any two problems of such people. 2+2=4
Question.29.Explain any two reasons which led to mid-term elections in 1980. 2×2=4
Question.34. Analyse any three causes of disintegration of the USSR. 3×2=6
Or
Assess any three consequences of Cold War. 3×2=6

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 7

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 7

[Time Allowed : 3 hrs.]                                                                                              [Maximum Marks] : 100

General Instruction:

  1. All Questions are compulsory.
  2. Question numbers 1-5 are of 1 mark each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 20 words each.
  3. Question numbers 6-10 are of 2 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 40 words each.
  4. Question numbers 11-16 are of 4 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
  5. Question numbers 17-21 are of 5 marks each. The answers to this question should not exceed 150 words.
  6. Question numbers 22-27 are of 6 marks each. The answers to this question should not exceed 150 words.

Question.1. Write the full form of the following:
(a) UNCTAD (b) WMD
Answer. (a) UNCTAD stands for United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(b) WMD stands for Weapons of Mass Destruction

Question.2. How many judges are there in the International Court of Justice and what is their tenure ?
Answer. 15 Judges. Tenure: 9 years.

Question.3. Name any two significant agreements signed by the two superpowers in 1960s.
Answer. The US and the Soviet Union signed the following two agreements:
(i) Limited Test Ban Treaty
(ii) Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty and Anti-Ballistic Missile Treaty

Question.4. On which two main ideas did Bharatiya Jana Sangh lay emphasis ?
Answer. (i) Bharatiya Jana Sangh emphasised the idea of one country, one culture and one nation,
(ii) It called for a reunion of India and Pakistan as Akhand Bharat

Question.5. What is meant by’Punjab Accord’of 1985 ?
Answer. Punjab Accord of 1985 was signed between the then President of Akali Dal (Harchand Longowal) and the Late Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi. It was a step towards bringing normalcy in Punjab.

Question.6. In 2003, the United States along with about 40 countries, launched its invasion of Iraq in the name of preventing the development of weapons of mass destruction. Since no evidence of it was unearthed, what could be another reason for this invasion ?
Answer. The other reason for US irfVasion could be controlling Iraqi oilfields and installing a regime (power) which was friendly to the US.

Question.7. Mention any two advantages of having international organisations in the world.
Answer. (i) International organisations help deal with matters of war and peace.
(ii) They also help countries cooperate to make better living conditions for the humanity.

Question.8. Why did India not join either of the two superpower camps during the Cold War era ?
Answer. As a leader of Non-Aligned Movement, India’s response to the ongoing Cold War was two fold:
(i) At one level, it took particular care in staying away from the two alliances.
(ii) Second, it raised its voice against the newly decolonised countries becoming part of these alliances.

Question.9. What is meant by ‘Grand Alliance’ ?
Answer. It was an Electoral Alliance of all the major Non-communist and Non-Congress opposition parties. The SSP, PSP, Bharatiya Jana Sangh, Swatantra Party and the Bharatiya Kranti Dal came together under this umbrella.

Question.10. Describe the outcome of the ‘Assam Accord’ of 1985.
Answer. ‘Assam Accord’ was signed between Rajiv Gandhi-led government and AASU leaders over the issue of ‘outsiders’ in 1985.

  1.  According to this agreement those foreigners who migrated to Assam during and after Bangladesh war and since, were to be identified and deported.
  2. The Assam Gana Parisad came to power in 1985 with the promise of resolving the foreign
    nationals problem as well as to build a “Golden Assam”.

Question.11. What is meant by US hegemony ? Describe any two constraints on the US hegemony.
Answer. The US domination in military, economic and cultural aspects over other nations to show her supremacy is known as US hegemony.
Constraints on American Power:

  1.  The institutional architecture of the American state itself, i.e., they follow a system of division of powers between the three organs of the government.
  2.  The open nature of American society and political culture, i.e., the American mass media may promote or impose a particular issue on domestic public opinion but never opposed the purposes of methods of government in American political culture.
  3.  The most important constraint is that there is only one organisation, i.e. NATO, in the international system that can moderate the exercise of American power today.

Question.12. Highlight any two issues of cooperation as well as confrontation each between India and Bangladesh.
Answer. India-Bangladesh Co-operation:
(i) Economic relations have improved considerably over the past ten years.
(ii) Bangladesh is part of India’s “Look East Policy”. On disaster Management and environmental issues both the countries co-operate regularly.
India-Bangladesh confrontation:
(a) The countries have had differences over several issues including the sharing of Ganga and Brahmaputra waters.,
(b) The Indian government has been unhappy with Bangladesh regarding the denial of illegal
immigration to India and refusal to allow Indian troops to move through its territory to North Eastern India. –

Question.13. Explain the importance and role of the concept ‘common but differentiated’ pertaining to the environment.
Answer. It is very significant that compromise and accommodation are the two essential policies” required by states to save planet Earth. But there is a difference in the approach to environment between the countries of the North and the South. We can throw light on the ongoing negotiations between the North and South on environmental issues as follows:

  1.  The developed countries of the north want to discuss the environment issue as it stands now and want everyone to be equally responsible for ecological conservation.
  2.  At the same time the developing countries of the South feel that much of the ecological degradation in the world is the product of industrial development undertaken by the developed countries.
  3.  And to the most if developed countries have caused more degradation they must also take more responsibility for ongoing damage now.
    On the other side the developing countries are in the process of industrialization and they must not be subjected to the same restrictions which apply to the developed countries.
    The special needs of the developing countries must be taken into account in the development, application and interpretation of rules of International Environmental Law. And this argument was accepted in the Rio Declaration at the “Earth Summit” in 1992 under the principle of common but differentiated responsibility.

Question.14. How was the Planning Commission of India set up ? Mention its scope of work.
Answer. The Planning Commission of India was set up in 1950 by a cabinet resolution and not by a law of parliament; thus, it is an “Extra-Constitutional body”.
Planning Commission does not have a statutory or constitutional status. It is supposed to be ‘advisory’ in nature but in reality it is very powerful and is called the “Economic Cabinet of the Country”.
In India, planning was taken up as to give economic content to political freedom.

  1.  Planning was to be an instrument of socio-economic change.
  2.  It was to provide a controlled and faster rate of growth.
  3.  It was intended to convert political democracy into socio-economic democracy.
  4. It was taken up with the objective to resolve the contradictions of an unequal society.

Question.15. Explain any four Directive Principles of State Policy related to the promotion of international peace and security.
Answer. In the Indian Constitution Article 51 deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy on “Promotion of international peace and security”.
The Article states that the state shall endeavour to:

  1.  promote international peace and security.
  2.  maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
  3. foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organised people with one another.
  4.  encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.
    Thus, Indian Constitution envisages directions to the state administration for the promotion of international peace.

Question.16. Why was the year 1967 considered a landmark year in India’s political and electoral history ? Explain.
Answer. The fourth general election was held in 1967 in the context of heightened popular discontent and the polarization of political forces. The Congress was facing the electorate for the first time without Nehru.

  1.  The election verdict was not in fovour of the Congress. The results jolted the Congress both at the national and state levels.
  2. Half the ministers in Indira Gandhi’s cabinet were defeated. The political leaders who lost in their constituencies included Kamraj in Tamil Nadu, S.K. Patil in Maharashtra, Atulya Ghosh in West Bengal and K.B. Sahay in Bihar.
  3. Not only this, the Congress party lost majority in as many as seven states and in two other states, defections prevented it from forming a government.
  4.  However, this was the first time any non-Congress party had secured a majority of its own in any state. In the othy eight states coalition governments, consisting of different non-Congress parties, were formed.
    Thus, many contemporary political observers described the election results as a “Political Earthquake”.

Question.17. Read the paragraph given below carefully and answer the following questions:
We have a Muslim minority who are so large in numbers that they cannot, even if they want, go anywhere else. That is a basic fact about which there can be no argument. Whatever the provocation from Pakistan and whatever the indignities and horrors inflicted on non-Muslims there, we have got to deal with this minority in a civilised manner. We must give them security and the rights of citizens in a democratic State. If we fail to do so, we shall have a festering sore which will eventually poison the whole body politic and probably destroy it.
Jawaharlal Nehru, Letter to Chief Ministers, 15 October 1947.
(i) In spite of indignities and horrors inflicted on non-Muslims by Pakistan, why Jawaharlal Nehru.wanted to deal with the Muslim minority in a civilised way ?
(ii) Why this minority should be given the security and rights on the same footing as all others in a democratic system.
(iii) If this minority was not provided security and rights what kind of scenario is envisaged ?
Answer. (i) Because Muslim minority in India were large in numbers. It is their right to go anywhere and settle but in a democratic set up everyone must be given an equal opportunity.
(ii) J.L. Nehru argued that we must give the Muslim minority security and the rights of citizens in a democratic state. Apart from ethical and sentimental reasons, there are some prudential reasons which helped India to realise its long charised goals and principles such as socialism, equality, liberty and fraternity.
(iii) If we fail to provide security and rights to minorities, it will affect the basic nature of the democratic system and is also against the secular principles of India. It may eventually affect not only India’s foreign policy and also pose a threat to other minorities in India. It may lead to disintegration of Indian states.

Question.18. Answer the following questions based upon the following Press Report:
‘Bharatiya Kisan Union wants agriculture out of WTO purview’
By our Staff Correspondent Mysore, Feb. 15
The Bharatiya Kisan Union has warned of socio-economic upheavals in the country if India does not bargain to keep agriculture out of the purview of the World Trade Organisation.
Addressing a press conference here today, the Chief of the Uriion, Mahender Singh Tikait and its National Coordinating Committee Convener, M. Yudhveer Singh warned of impending dangers if India goes ahead and agrees to the stipulations of the WTO in the next round of meetings scheduled to be held in Hong Kong in November. Courtesy: The Hindu, February 16, 2005
(a) What is B.K.U. ?
(b) Why is it against the W.T.O. ?
(c) What dangers are anticipated for Indian agriculture from the W.T.O. ?
Answer. (a) B.K.U. signifies the ‘Bhartiya Kisan Union’. It was the organization of farmers which protested against the policies of the.state especially the process of liberalisation of Indian Economy. It was the agrarian struggle of farmers.
(b) B.K.U. is against WTO because it wants agriculture out of the WTO perview. It is also against the restrictions on the Inter-state movement of farm produce.
(c) Impending dangerous are anticipated for Indian Agriculture from the WTO purview. There is the danger of market crisis for the cash crops.

Question.19. Read the extract on globalisation and answer the following:
“Globalisation, however, does not emerge merely because of the availability of improved communications. What is important is for people in different parts of the world to recognise these interconnections with the rest of the world. Currently we are aware of the fact that events taking place in one part of the world could have an impact on another part of the world.”
(a) What is globalisation ?
(b) Write .economic, cultural and political consequences of globalisation, (one point each.)
(c) What steps were taken by India in resisting globalisation ?
Answer. (a) Globalisation simply means integration of our economy with world economy.
(b) Economic consequences:

  1.  Globalisation has involved greater trade in commodities across the globe.
  2.  The restrictions imposed by other countries on allowing the imports have been reduced.

Cultural consequences:

  1.  The rise of uniform culture, called as cultural homogenisation.
  2.  Global culture is the imposition of Western culture on the rest of the world.

Political consequences:

  1.  In place of welfare state, it is the market that becomes the prime determinant of economic and social priorities.
  2. The entry and increased role of MNCs all over the world leads to a reduction in the capacity of governments to take decisions on their own. (one point each)

(c) The Steps are:

  1.  The ‘Left’ wing protests against economic liberalisation.
  2.  Indian Social Forum also raised voices against globalisation.
  3.  The entry of MNCs is opposed by the trade unions of industrial workforce and farmers.
  4. The patenting of certain plants like Neem by American and European firms has also generated considerable opposition .

Question.20.
solved-cbse-sample-papers-for-class-12-political-science-set-7-1
Study the cartoon given above and answer the following questions:
(i) Why is the girl shown in the cartoon not worried about whether it is a single party or a coalition government’?
(ii) Does a coalition government involve more compromises ? If yes, then why ?
(iii) Do you think we can have bold and imaginative policies in a coalition government why?
Answer. (i) The nature of government may be single or coalition, what matters is what they do actually when they come to power, how are their policies and programmes in fulfilling the needs of the people and improvements in the society
(ii) In general, a coalition government involves more compromises because it is the combination of many political parties (National as well as regional parties) and they agree upon making policies together and also to share power according to their needs and demands.
(iii) Bold and imaginative policies are possible in a coalition government because the regional parties play an important role in the decision making process. Moreover, coalition of political parties announces common programmes or manifestos during the election process and try to achieve the same when they come to power.

Question.21. In the given map of the European Union, identify and write the names of four old members marked as A, B, C and D and four new members marked as P, Q, R and S in your Answer-Book
solved-cbse-sample-papers-for-class-12-political-science-set-7-2
Answer. A Finland B Denmark C Austria D Ireland
P Estonia Q Poland R Hungary S Lithuania

Question.22. Analyse any six factors which helped the Soviet Union in becoming a superpower after the Second World War.
Or
What is Non-Aligned Movement ? Examine any two of its points of criticism. Also
explain any two of its value points and enduring ideas.
Answer. Factors that helped the Soviet Union become a super power after the Second World War were:

  1.  The Soviet economy was the second largest next to the US. It is the largest economy in Europe.
  2. Soviets have abundant natural resources like oil, iron and steel and other minerals. It ensures ready raw material and industrial production at the faster rate.
  3.  Transport and communications are well developed and connected to remote areas with efficiency.
  4. The domestic industry produces all the basic needs with quality and also in a cheaper rate. This helps the people to live comfortable life.
  5.  The Soviet government provided basic necessities like education and health through subsidy. It also introduced many welfare schemes to women and children.
  6.  As the land and land productive assets are owned by the Government, unemployment problem is minimised.

Or
Non-Aligned Movement means not to join any of the military blocs. It was founded in 1961 at Belgrade Conference by decolonised countries.
Non-alignment is a policy which means abstention from power politics, keeping away from military alliances and Cold War. It stands for peaceful coexistence and active cooperation among all states for world peace and does not shirk from international responsibilities. Non-alignment advocates an impartial approach towards world issues without being influenced by either bloc.

  1.  NAM was based on a recognition that decolonised states share a historical affiliation.
  2.  It also means that tfie poor and often very small countries of the world need not join any of the military blocs and they could pursue an independent foreign policy.

Criticism of NAM : .

  1.  India’s non-alignment was said to be “unprincipled”, in the name of pursuing its national interest. India, it was said, often refused to take a firm stand on crucial international issues.
  2.  Secondly, it is suggested that India was inconsistent and took contradictory postures. Having criticised others for joining alliances, India signed the 20-Year Treaty of Friendship in August 1971 with the USSR. This was regarded, particularly by outside observers, as virtually joining the “Soviet alliance system”.

Values:
NAM stresses for the maintaing of sovereignty and interparty of the nation with being subdued by any external power.
It stands for mutual cooperation, in constructive approach and equal status.
It is based on the idea of morality, liberty and peaceful consistence. It does not mean isolation or neutrality but active players in the process of peace

Question.23. How far did the UN perform its role successfully in maintaining peace in the world ? Explain.
Or
Explain the factors responsible for Pakistan’s failure in building a stable democracy. Describe any two pro-democracy factors present in Pakistan which can pave the way for establishing a lasting democratic set-up over there.
Answer. In spite of UN’s failure in preventing wars and related miseries, nations prefer its continuation because without it the world would be worse off.

  1.  In the growing need of interdependence and globalisation, it is hard to imagine how more than seven billion people would live together without an organisation such as the UN.
  2.  Technological promises to increase planetary interdependence have also increased the importance of the UN.
  3. Many global problems like poverty, unemployment, environmental degradation, international crime, AIDS, international migration can be tackled only through international cooperation. The UN provides the best mechanism available to mobilise and sustain such cooperation.
  4. Not only this, the UN and its agencies provide financial assistance to developing countries in the form of grants and loans of over dollar 25 billion a year. They also help build economics and help stabilize financial markets.
  5.  Furthermore, in a world threatened by conflict, the UN provides the means for instant consultations among governments, as well as the forum for dealing with long-term problems.
    In this way, in spite of being an imperfect body, there is no doubt that the UN has been playing an important role not only in promoting peace and international understanding but also in changing the entire structure of mankind for a happier world. Hence, it is an indispensable organisation.

Or
Several factors have contributed to Pakistan’s failure in building a stable democracy.
Social Dominance: The social dominance of the military, clergy and land owning aristocracy has led to the frequent overthrow of elected governments and the establishing of military governments.
Conflict with India : Pakistan’s conflict with India has made the paramilitary groups more powerful. These groups have often said that political parties and democracy in Pakistan are flawed, that Pakistan’s security would be harmed by selfish-minded parties and chaotic democracy, hence, the army staying in power is justified.
Lack of International Support: The lack of genuine international support for a democratic rule in Pakistan has further encouraged the military to continue its dominance. The United States and other western countries have encouraged the military’s authoritarian rule in the past in their own interests.
Global Islamic Terrorism : As the western powers assumed the threat of “Global Islamic Terrorism” and their apprehension that Pakistan’s nuclear arsenal might fall into the hands of these terrorist groups, the military regime in Pakistan was seen as the protector of western interests in West Asia and South Asia.
All this shows that Pakistan prefers military rule to the democratic set-up, both, because of internal and external factors…..

  1. Pakistan has a courageous and relatively free press.
  2.  It also has a strong human rights movement.

Question.24. What was the States Reorganisation Commission ? When was it constituted ? What was the most important recommendation of this Commission ?
Or
Assess any two causes of the partition of India in 1947. Explain any four of its consequences.
Answer. State Reorganisation Commission was a body appointed by Government to organise the states and to rearrange the boundaries.
It was constituted in 1953.

  1.  The formation of Andhra Pradesh accelerated/initiated the struggle for making other states on linguistic lines in other parts of the country.
  2. Thus, the most important recommendation of this commission in 1955 was that states could be organised and formed based on the languages. The boundaries of the states could reflect the linguistic aspects.
  3.  For example, the Madras Province under British India was later bifurcated into the following states based on the language spoken by the people of that area:
    Andhra Pradesh (Telugu)
    Tamil Nadu (Tamil)
    Kerala (Malayalam)
    Karnataka (Kannada)
  4.  Based on the Commission Report, the State Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956 and 14 states and 6 union territories were created.

Or
Causes of the Partition of India :

  1. In the Indian context the word partition signifies the division of British India into India and Pakistan. The process of partition started in 1940 when the Muslim League propounded the “Two-Nation Theory”. According to this theory India consisted of not one but two “people”— (Hindus and Muslims.)
  2.  Several political developments in 1940s, the political competition between the Congress and the Muslim League and the British role led to the demand for the creation of Pakistan. Thus it was decided that India will be divided into two countries— India and Pakistan.
    Consequences of Partition:
    (a) Communal Riots : In the name of religion people of one community ruthlessly killed and maimed people of the other. There were killings and atrocities on both sides of the border. Cities like Lahore, Amritsar and Kolkata divided into “communal zones”.
    (b) Social Sufferings: People went through immense sufferings. They were forced to abandon their homes and move across the border. Minorities on both sides of the border fled their homes and often secured temporary shelter in “refugee camps”. Thousands of women were abducted on both sides of the border.
    (c) In many cases women were killed by their own family members to preserve the “family honour”.
    Many children were separated from their parents. Those who did manage to cross the border found that they had no home. Hence, for lakhs of these “refugees” the country’s freedom meant life in’refugee camps’.
    (d) Administrative Concerns and Financial Strains: The partition saw not merely a division of properties, liabilities and assets or a political division of the country and the administrative apparatus, the employees of government and the railways were also divided.

Question.25. “With two successive election victories at the Centre as well as in the States in 1971, the dominant position of the Congress Party was restored.” Do you agree? State any three arguments in support of your answer.
Or
“Governments that are perceived to be antidemocratic are severely punished by the voters.” Explain the statement with reference to the emergency period of 1975-77.
Answer. The electoral contest of 1971 was a landmark in the Indian politics. It was the restoration of Congress (R). Actually this electoral contest appeared to be loaded against Congress (R). After all the new Congress was just one faction of an already weak party. Everyone believed that the real organisational strength of the Congress party was under the command of Congress (O). ‘

  1. To make matters worse for Indira Gandhi, all the major non-Communist, non-Congress opposition parties formed an electoral alliance known as the “Grand Alliance”.
  2.  The new Congress under Indira Gandhi had something that its big opponents lacked—it had an issue, an agenda and a positive slogan.
  3. The Grand Alliance did not have a coherent political programme rather it had only one common programme, i.e., “Indira Hatao” (Remove Indira).
    In contrast to this she put forward a positive programme captured in the famous slogan: Garibi Hatao, i.e., Remove poverty.
    Thus, the slogan of Garibi Hatao and the programmes that followed it were part of Indira Gandhi’s political strategy of building an independent nationwide political support base during the electoral contest of 1971.

Or
The given statement is justified because emergency of 1975 at once brought out both weaknesses and the strength of India’s democracy. Many observers think that India ceased to be democratic during the emergency.

  1.  It was a period of political crisis with changes in the party system. The party in power had absolute majority and yet its leadership decided to suspend the democratic process.
  2.  The result of the 1977 election took everyone by surprise. For the first time, since. independence, the Congress Party was defeated and brought to an end the one party dominance. It opened the way for the opposition and the coalition type of government.
  3.  Basically, the most valid reason for the defeat of the Congress Party was the people’s verdict. The opposition fought the election on the slogan of ‘Save Democracy’.
  4.  The Janata Party made this election a referendum on-emergency: Its campaign was focussed on the Vion-democratic character of the rule and the various excesses that took place during this period.
  5.  The 1977 elections turned into a referendum on the experience of the emergency and proved that ‘Governments that are perceived to be anti-democratic are severely punished by the voters.’
  6.  The opposition parties led by Jayaprakash Narayan could be an alternative and misuse , of power during emergency proved to be the total collapse of the Congress.

Question.26. Regional demands from different parts of India exemplify the principle of unity with diversity. Do you agree ? Give reasons.
Or
What have been the major trends in the electoral performance of the Congress and the BJP since 1989 ?
Answer. We do agree with the statement the at regional demands from different parts of India exemplify the principle of unity with diversity because India adopted a democratic approach to the question of diversity and allows the political expressions of regional aspirations and does not look upon them as anti-national.

  1. Besides, our democratic politics allows parties and groups to address the people on the basis of their regional identify, aspiration and specific regional problems.
  2.  At the same time, Indian democratic politics also means that regional issues and problems will receive adequate attention and accommodation in the policy making process. For instance, easel of regional aspirations of Assam, Punjab, North-East, Kashmir, etc. While concluding we can say that regional aspirations are not encouraged to espouse separation. Political conflicts over issues of power of the regions, their rights and their separate existence are common to Indian nation that want to respect diversity while trying to forge and retain unity.
    Thus, politics in India has succeeded in accepting regionalism as part and parcel of democratic politics by maintaining its diversity.

Or
The major trends in the electoral performance of the Congress and BJP since 1989 can be seen as follows:

  1. In the elections of 1989, Congress secured 197 seats (largest single party) but did not get the majority. Therefore, it decided to sit in the opposition.
  2. The National Front under V.P. Singh came to power supported by Left Front and BJP from outside.
  3.  The assassination of Rajiv Gandhi in May 1991 led to the emergence of Congress as the largest single party and it formed the Government. It was supported by AIADMK.
  4. In 1996, the BJP minority government was formed for a short period. Later in June 1996
    United Front with the support of Congress formed the Government. H.D. Deve Gowda became the Prime Minister and after 11 months I.K. Gujral came to power who ryled till March 1998.
  5.  From March 1998 to October 1999, BJP and others formed the NDA (National Democratic Alliance) under the leadership of A.B. Vajpayee. The regional parties demanded more share in the government to extend their support.
  6. In the elections of May 2004, the Congress and its alliance partners formed UPA (United Progressive Alliance) and came to power with Dr. Manmohan Singh as the Prime Minister.
    In general, the elections since 1989 reflected the ‘Era of Multi Party system’ and ‘Coalition Era’. It also led to the decline of Congress era and the emergence of minority government and more importantly the role of regional parties in forming and running the central government.

Question.27. Suppose the Cold War had not taken place and there were several major powers at the end of the Second World War. How would that situation have affected India’s foreign policy ? Identify any three aspects or regions and imagine the difference.
Or
Suppose the Soviet Union had not disintegrated and the world was still a bipolar as it was in mid-1980s. How would it have affected the developments in the last two decades? Identify any three regions or domains and the developments that may not have taken place in that kind of a world.
Answer. The cold war, started between the two super powers and the race for the dominant super power, led to many far reaching consequences. Whether cold war had taken place or not, it would affect the India’s foreign policy.
When India got independence in 1947, it faced many challenges which cautioned our leaders to be careful about India’s foreign policy. Due to cold war, NAM was established, and if not, India could have an independent foreign policy. It may have joined many like minded major powers for mutual benefits in various fields.
Due to NAM we did notjoin any military power otherwise India could be compelled to join the arms race considering the rivalry between the major powers.
India might have emerged as a super power in Asia because of its large territory, human resource and strategic location.
India might have increased its nuclear weapons and other weapons and could be one of the leaders to provide arms to other countries.
Or
Had the Soviet Union not disintegrated in 1991, it could have affected the developments in the following ways:

  1.  The cold war came to an end with the disintegration of Soviet Union and the concept of Bipolar World also ended. The cold war might have continued with the association of arms race.
  2.  The dominance of the US as economic and military power could not have taken place.
  3. Many incidents of cold war period would have led’to another world war (Third world war) and it might have caused the disappearance of the major powers.
  4. Accumulation of nuclear weapons would have continued and threat of war situation would have arisen any time.
  5.  Most of the countries which were part of erstwhile USSR would have never got independence. This stands for Soviet Union as the Big power.
  6.  Civil wars in Soviet Republics and Eastern Europe could have been avoided.
  7.  The intervention of US in the internal matters of Afghanistan and Iraq would not have taken place. It is to be noticed that US rejected the UN decision on Iraq matters.
  8.  Many international serious problems like terrorism, neo-colonialism, global warming, etc. would have been tackled by both the super powers.

Gap Filling Exercises for Class 8 CBSE With Answers

Looking for an easy way to Learning of new elementary english grammar and composition for class 8 answers, Solutions. You have to learn basic English Grammar topics like Tenses Verbs, Nouns, etc… In this article, we will review the best English Grammer Topics and compare them against each other.

Gap Filling Exercises for Class 8 CBSE With Answers Pdf

A gap-fill test is an exercise in which words are removed from a text and replaced with spaces. The learner has to fill each space with the missing word or a suitable word. It may be a verb, determiner, preposition, conjunction or any other part of speech.

Gap Filling Exercises Solved Example With Answers for Class 8 CBSE

Complete the following passage.

1. Everybody (a) ___________ an aim or an ambition in life. There are, however, some persons who do not plan (b) ___________ careers, (c) ___________ have no aim in life, (d) ___________ who have no aim in life are a ship without a rudder or an envelope (e) ___________ an address. They (f) ___________ tossed to and fro by circumstances.
Answer.
a. should have
b. their
c. They
d. Those
e. without
f. are

Gap Filling Exercises Practice Example for Class 8 CBSE

Complete the following passages.

1. A coward (a) ___________ in constant dread. His heart sinks when he hears (b) ___________ death, (c) ___________ day starts with fear and ends with fear. The possibility of war, famine, earthquake or a flood makes a coward shudder (d) ___________ fear. He eats his food with suspicion thinking there (e) ___________ poison in it. He (f) ___________ enjoy a sound sleep.

2. Dr. Kalam (a) ___________ born in Tamil Nadu on October 15,1931. (b) ___________ having received his education at Schwartz High School, he graduated (c) ___________ St. Joseph College. Kalam was honoured (d) ___________ Padma Bhushan in 1981. Dr. Kalam (e) ___________ a true patriot and a great citizen.

3. The Christian world was shocked to hear (a) ___________ passing away of Pope John Paul II in the Vatican on April 2, 2005. This (b) ___________ to an end the third longest papacy in history. Hundreds of churches in the Italian capital rang the death-knell (c) ___________ hearing the news of the death of Pope John Paul II. Pope John was (d) ___________ to (e) ___________ a champion of the poor and the downtrodden.

4. Ancient India was far (a) ___________ of others in the field of medicine and surgery. India (b) ___________ textbooks on medicine and there were hospitals. Dhanwantri is the legendary founder of (c) ___________ Indian science of medicine, (d) ___________ best known old textbooks, however, date (e) ___________ the early centuries of (f) ___________ Christianera.

Modals Exercises for Class 8 With Answers

What are modal verbs?
Modals (also called modal verbs, modal auxiliary verbs, modal auxiliaries) are special verbs that behave irregularly in English. They are different from normal verbs like “work, play, visit…” They give additional information about the function of the main verb that follows it. They have a great variety of communicative functions.

Looking for an easy way to Learning of new elementary english grammar and composition for class 8 answers, Solutions. You have to learn basic English Grammar topics like Tenses Verbs, Nouns, etc… In this article, we will review the best English Grammer Topics and compare them against each other.

Modals Exercise For Class 8 CBSE With Answers PDF

Here are some characteristics of modal verbs:

  • They never change their form. You can’t add “s”, “ed”, “ing”…
  • They are always followed by an infinitive without “to” (e.i. the bare infinitive.)
  • They are used to indicate modality allow speakers to express certainty, possibility, willingness, obligation, necessity, ability.

List of modal verbs Here is a list of modal verbs:

can, could, may, might, will, would, shall, should, must

The verbs or expressions dare, ought to, had better, and need not behave like modal auxiliaries to a large extent and may be added to the above list.
Modals Exercises for Class 8 With Answers 1

Use of modal verbs:

Modal verbs are used to express functions such as:

  1. Permission
  2. Ability
  3. Obligation
  4. Prohibition
  5. Lack of necessity
  6. Advice
  7. possibility
  8. probability

Examples of modal verbs
Here is a list of modals with examples:

Modal Verb Expressing Example
must Strong obligation You must stop when the traffic lights turn red.
logical conclusion/ Certainty He must be very tired. He’s been working all day long.
must not Prohibition You must not smoke in the hospital.
can Ability I can swim.
Permission Can I use your phone please?
Possibility Smoking can cause cancer.
could ability in the past When I was younger I could run fast.
polite permission Excuse me, could I just say something?
Possibility It could rain tomorrow.
may Permission May I use you phone please?
possibility, the probability it may rain tomorrow!
might polite permission Might I suggest an idea?
possibility, probability I might go on holiday to Australia next year.
need not lack of necessity/ absence of obligation I need not buy tomatoes. There are plenty of tomatoes in the fridge.
should/ought to 50% obligation I should/ought to see a doctor. I have a terrible headache.
Advice You should/ought to revise your lessons
Logical conclusion He should/ought to be very tired. He’s been working all day long.
had better Advice You’d better revise your lessons.

Remember
Modal verbs are followed by an infinitive without “to”, also called the bare infinitive.

Examples:

  • Shall

Uses of Shall:
Shall Suggestions

  • Shall I get a pizza for dinner tonight?

Offers/volunteering
That bag looks heavy. Shall I carry it for you?

Will Rapid Decision

  • I’m thirsty. I think I will buy a drink.

Offer

  • That looks heavy. I will help you with it.

Instruction (asking for or giving)

  • What shall I do with your mail when it arrives

Promises

  • You shall be the first person to know.

Confirmation (statement of act)

  • I shall meet you there at 7.

Promise

  • Don’t worry, I won’t tell anyone.

Threat

  • If you don’t stop, I will tell your mother.

Refusal won’t = will not

  • She won’t listen to anything I say.

In all of the examples above, shall can be replaced by another modal verb.
Suggestion/Instructions — Should Offers — CanlCould Promises/Confirmation — Will

Should
Uses of Should:
Advice or Suggestion

  • Your hair is too long. You should get a haircut.

The situation likely in the present

  • Mary should be at home now. Give her a call.

Likely in the future (Prediction)

  • They should win tonight, they’re a better team.
    Should + Have + Past participle

Meaning: The subject did not fulfill their obligation in the past or did not act responsibly.

  • You should have given your boss the report yesterday when he asked for it.

Should + be + verb -ing

Meaning: The subject is not fulfilling their obligation now or is not acting sensibly.

  • You should be wearing your seatbelt,
  • We should be studying for the test right now.

Should vs. Ought To
Should can be replaced by ought to without change in meaning.

  • You ought to study more. =
  • You should study more.

Note: ought to sounds more formal than should and is used less frequently.

We use Shouldn’t to advise not to do something, usually because it is bad or wrong.

  • You shouldn’t throw your litter onto the street.
  • He shouldn’t play with those wires if he doesn’t know what he is doing.
  • You shouldn’t work so much.

Mind Map for Modals

Modals Exercises for Class 8 With Answers 2
Can and could

  • Can is used to express ability, request, permission or possibility.
  • The negative of can is cannot or the contraction can’t.
    Example Function
    I can ride a bicycle Here can expresses ability.
    Can you pass me the butter? Here can expresses requests.
    Can I use your pencil? Here can expresses permission. It is more polite to use ‘may’ instead of an
    Very bright light can hurt your eyes. Here can expresses possibility.
    I cannot/can’t make tea. Here cannot/can’t express negative ability or the absence of ability.
    You can’t leave early. Here can’t expresses a lack of permission.

Could has several functions:

  • It functions as the past tense of can to express ability.
  • It is used in place of can to express willingness in a formal situation.
  • It replaces can and gives the phrase a more conditional tone.
  • It suggests that something is a possibility.

The negative of could is could not or the contraction couldn’t.

Example Function
He could run a kilometer in 4 minutes when he was in college. Here could express past ability
Could you help me finish the report? Here could expresses requests more politely than ‘can’.
You could be an architect if you wanted to. Here could expresses conditional ability.
We could help you if we had the time. Here could expresses possibility.
She couldn’t lend me her pen because she was using it. Here couldn’t express a lack of permission in the past.
We couldn’t leave as the programmed has started. Here couldn’t expresses a negative possibility in the past.

Could
Could is used to express possibility, past ability, make suggestions and polite requests. Could is also used in conditional sentences as the conditional form of can.
Extreme rain could cause the river to flood the city. (Possibility)
Manjeet could skate skillfully when he was only three years old. (past ability)
We could see a film to go to a restaurant for a ‘meal. (suggestion)
Could I use your computer to check my email? (polite request)
We could go on the trip if I did not have to work this weekend. (condition)
We can use could to express present, past and future.

Most modal verbs behave quite irregularly in the past and the future. study the chart to learn how could is used in different contexts.

Modal use Positive form Negative form
Possibility 1. Jaya could be the one who stole the money, (present)
2. Jaya could have been the one who stole the money, (past)
3. Jaya could go to jail for the crime, (future)
1. Maya couldn’t be the one who stole the money, (present)
2. Maya couldn’t have been the one who stole the money, (past)
3. Maya couldn’t possibly go to jail for the crime, (future)
Conditional of can 1. If I had more time, I could travel around the world, (present)
2. If I had a lot money, I could have traveled around the world, (past)
1. Even if I had more time, I couldn’t travel around the world, (present)
2. Even if I had a lot of money, I couldn’t have traveled around the world, (past)
Suggestion 1. No present form.
2. You could have spent Your vacation in Hawai. (past)}
3. You could spent your vacation in Hawai. (future)
No negative forms
Past ability I could run a kilometer is less than 6 minutes when I was young.
Note: could cannot be used in positive sentences to describe a one – time ability. (yesterday, I could lift the couch by myself incorrect)
I couldn’t run a kilometer is less than 6 minutes when I was young.
Note: could can be used in negative sentences to describe a one – time ability, (yesterday, I couldn’t lift the couch by myself. – correct)
Polite request Could I have something to drink? Could I borrow your stapler?
Note: requests usually refer to the near future.
Couldn’t he come with us?
Couldn’t you help me for just a little while?

Would
Would is most commonly used to create conditional verb form. It also serves as the past form of the auxiliary verb will.
If he were an actor, he would be in adventure movies. (conditional)
I knew that she would be very successful in her career. (past of will)
When they first met, they would always have picnics on the beach. (requested action in the past).
Using would in present, past and future.

Modal use Positive form Negative form
Conditional 1. If I were the prime minister, I would provide free education (present)
2. If I had been the prime minister, I would have provided free education. (Past)
3. If I were elected prime minister next year, I would provide free education, (future)
1. If I were the prime minister, I would not raise taxes, (present)
2. If I had been the prime minister, I would not have raised taxes, (past)
3. If I were the prime minister, I would not sign the bill to raise taxes, (future)
Past of will 1. I said I would help you.
2. He told me he would be here before 8 a.m.
1. I said I wouldn’t help you.
2. He told me would not be here before 8 a.m.
Repeated actions in the past 1. When I was in school, I would always go to a science camp.
2. When we were young, we would often have a night picnic at the beach.
1. When I was a child, I wouldn’t go into the pool by myself.
2. When he was in his teens, he wouldn’t let anyone enter his room.

May and Might
May is used to express possibility.

  • It may rain today.
  • I may become a doctor.

The negative of may is may not. It is used to express negative possibility.

  • We may not got to the concert.
  • It may not rain tonight, after all.

May is also used to express permission or request. It is more polite than can.

  • May I have a glass of water?
  • May I barrow your eraser?

Might is used to express possibility. It differs from “may” in that the possibility it expresses is usually smaller.
The negative of might is might not.

  • She might become an actress when she grows up, but I doubt it.
  • He might not get the job, though he was the most qualified candidate.

Might is used as the past form of may of permission.

  • He asked if he might borrow your bicycle.
  • They asked if that might come late for the morning.

Might is also used to make very polite requests.

  • Might I ask you a questions?
  • Might I interrupt you for a moment?

Must
Uses of Must: Obligation

  • You must wear a seatbelt when you drive.

Deduction (certain something is true)

  • Look at all that snow. It must be cold outside.

Emphasize Necessity

  • Plants must have light and water to grow.

Strong Recommendation

  • We must get together for dinner soon.

Mustn’t = Prohibition

  • You mustn’t use your phone while driving.

Must vs. Have to
Must expresses obligation imposed by the speaker while Have to expresses external obligations.
Teacher: You must complete this essay by Friday.
Student: We have to complete this essay by Friday.

It is more common to use Have to instead of Must in questions.

  • Does he have to do the test?

We use Had to instead of Must in the past tense.

  • I had to pay my speeding ticket yesterday.

See our chart about Mustn’t vs. Don’t have to

Modals Exercises Practice Examples for Class 8 CBSE

A. Complete B’s sentences using can/could/might/must/should/would + the verb in brackets. In some sentences you need to use have/must have/should have, etc. In some sentences you might have to use the negatives (can’t/couldn’t, etc.) The first one has beers done for you.

1. A : I’m hungry.
B : But you’ve just had lunch. You can’t be hungry already, (be)

2. A : I haven’t seen our neighbours for ages.
B : No. They _____________ away, (go)

3. A : What’s the weather like? Is it raining?
B : Not at the moment but it _____________ later, (rain)

4. A : Where has Manshu gone?
B : I’m not sure. She _____________ to the bank, (go)

5. A : I didn’t see you at John’s party last week.
B : No, I had to work that evening, so I _____________ (go)

6. A : I saw you at John’s party last week.
B : No, you didn’t. You _____________ me. I didn’t go to John’s party, (see)

7. A : When did you post the letter to Maya?
B : This morning. So she _____________ it tomorrow, (get)

8. A : When was the last time you saw Prateek?
B : Years ago. I _____________ him if I saw him now. (recognise)

9. A : Did you hear the explosion?
B : What explosion?
A : There was a loud explosion a few minutes ago. You _____________ it. (hear)

10. A : We weren’t sure which way to go. In the end we turned right.
B : You went the wrong way. You _____________ left. (turn )

B. Write ‘will’, ‘would’, ‘shall’ or ‘should’ in the blanks.

1. We _______________ certainly have time for lunch. Where _______________ we go?
2. “You _______________ suffer for this,” he swore. “I _______________ see to it that you do!”
3. He said that it _______________ be all right for you to enter, but I think you _______________ wait until he gets here.
4. _______________ you not reconsider your decision? You _______________ regret it if you do not.
5. I _______________ do whatever pleases me. No one _______________ tell me what to do!
6. If anything _______________ go wrong while I am away, you let me know, _______________ you?
7. _______________ you please lower your voices? You _______________ wake up the baby if you do not.
8. I _______________ not stop her from leaving. She _______________ go if she wants to.
9. If my friends _______________ come while I am having my bath, _______________ you invite them in?
10. The angry man insisted that I _______________ pay for the damages. He said that if I did not, _______________ he have to lodge a report against me.

C. (A) Complete the following with suitable modals.
Student: Madam, _______________ I come in?
Teacher: Where were you? You _______________ be in the class at the right time.
Student: Sorry madam. I _______________ not catch the bus on time.
Teacher: You _______________ leave early.
Student: Kindly, forgive me this time. I _______________ not be late in future I take my seat now?
Teacher: You _______________
Student: Madam, _______________ you please check my home work?
Teacher: I _______________ not check your homework right now. I am teaching a lesson.

(B) Complete the following with suitable modals.
1. Milk is a complete food in itself. Children _______________ drink it regularly otherwise they _______________ suffer from malnutrition. Elders _______________ also take it but those who _______________ not afford it _______________ take pulses, fruits and vegetables as an alternative.

2. The Government _______________ not run away from its responsibility of providing protection to the people. What _______________ the Government do? The Government _______________ tackle the problem of terrorism with an iron hand. The police _______________ be equipped with the latest weapons and techniques. Even the laws _______________ be amended to deal with the terrorists. Once they are caught, they _______________ not be freed.

3. You _______________ reach school at the right time. You _______________ be punished if you come late. You _______________ visit your school library regularly. You _______________ take any books you like. But spoiling the books _______________ be avoided at any cost. You _______________ n’t tear or spoil the pages of the books. You _______________ also respect your teachers.

Let’s Exercise

A. Choose the correct modal verb.

1. He must/must to come to me this evening.
2. He ought to/ought come to me this evening.
3. This program must to/must have succeeded.
4. You must not/must to talk loudly.
5. He ought/ought to not to talk loudly.
6. He ought to/ought have reached well in time.
7. She ought to/ought have done it earlier.
8. He must not/must to fight with his neighbour.

B. Choose the correct modal verb.

1. I need /needs a good friend.
2. I am in need/needs of a bigger house.
3. She doesn’t need/needs my help.
4. Ram need/needs not go there.
5. She hardly need/needs help from anybody.
6. Need/need he meet you?
7. Does she need/needs to come there?
8. You need/needs not quarrel over such a petty matter.
9. You need/needs not have sold your car.

C. Choose the correct modal verb.

1. He dares/dare me to compete with him.
2. I dare/dares you to compete with me.
3. She dares/dares not to accept my challenge.
4. He dares/dare not to speak before me.
5. I dare/dares not disobey him.
6. She dares/dares not challenge me.
7. I dare/dares not act against your will.
8. How dare/dares you to neglect me!

D. Choose the correct modal verb.

1. We used to/used go there together.
2. I used to/used go in a crowded bus.
3. She used not/use to wear cheap material.
4. I am used to/use an easy-going life.
5. I am not used/use to drive his car.

CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions

CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions

Basic Building Concepts
A chemical reaction is a chemical transformation or change in which one or more substances called the reactants are converted to one or more different substances called the products.

Types of Chemical Reactions
There are four types of chemical reactions:

  1. Combination Reactions: Combination reactions are those reactions in which two or more elements or compounds combine to form a more complex compound.
    CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions 1
  2. Decomposition Reactions: Decomposition reactions are those reactions in which a single compound breaks down into its components or simpler compounds.
    CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions 2
  3. Displacement Reactions: Displacement reactions are those reactions in which more reactive element takes up the place of another element in a compound and sets the less reactive one free.
    CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions 3
    You can also download NCERT Solutions Class 10 Science to help you to revise complete syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.The reactivity of metals depends upon the tendency to lose electrons. The more the tendency of a metal to lose an electron, the more will be its reactivity. Non-metals react by gaining electrons. The more the tendency of a non-metal to gain an electron, the more reactive is the non-metal.
  4. Double Displacement Reactions: In a double displacement reaction, ions of two compounds switch places to form two new compounds. Two reactants yield two products.
    CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions 4

EXPERIMENT 3(a)

Aim  
To perform and observe the action of water on quicklime and classify the reaction.

Materials Required 
Calcium oxide, water, beaker, glass rod, dropper, red litmus paper, test tube, filter paper, funnel.

Theory 
Quicklime reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide. As in this reaction two substances – quicklime and water combine to form a new substance, therefore, this reaction is called combination reaction. This chemical change can be represented by the given chemical equation:
CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions 5
During this chemical change, heat is also released. Therefore, this is also an example of exothermic reaction.

Procedure And Observation Table
The experimental procedure is described in the table:
CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions 6

Result
Two compounds, viz. quicklime and water combine to form calcium hydroxide. Therefore, this reaction is an example of combination reaction.

Precautions 

  1. Quicklime can cause severe burns, therefore, it should be handled with spatula.
  2. As the reaction between quicklime and water is exothermic, water should be poured over quicklime slowly.
  3. The filtrate collected should be clear.

EXPERIMENT 3(b)

Aim 
To perform and observe the action of heat on crystals of ferrous sulphate and classify the reaction.

Material Required 
Ferrous sulphate crystals, test tubes, test tube holder, blue limus paper.

Theory
The crystals of ferrous sulphate are green in colour. When these crystals are heated, following reaction takes place.
CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions 8
In this reaction, a single reactant breaks down to give simple products. Therefore, this is a decomposition reaction.
Ferrous sulphate crystals (FeS04.7H20) lose water when heated and the colour of crystals changes. It then decomposes to ferric oxide(Fe203), sulphur dioxide (S02) and sulphur trioxide (S03). Ferric oxide is solid while S02 and S03 are gases. Both S02 and S03 are acidic and hence, these gases turn the blue litmus red. Sulphur dioxide can reduce an acidified solution of potassium dichromate. This reaction can be utilised to confirm the presence of sulphur dioxide.
CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions 9

Procedure And Observation Table 
The experimental procedure is given in the following table:CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions 10

Resulst
On heating, ferrous sulphate decomposes to give ferric oxide, sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide. This decomposition reaction.

Precautions  

  1. While heating ferrous sulphate, keep the mouth of test tube away from you and your classmates.

EXPERIMENT 3(c)

Aim
To perform and observe the reaction of iron nails kept in copper sulphate solution and classify the reaction.

Materials Required
Iron nails, copper sulphate solution, test tubes, test tube stand, sandpaper and thread.

Theory
When an iron nail is immersed in copper sulphate solution, following reaction takes place:
CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions 12
In the above reaction, iron ions (Fe2+) being more reactive displaces copper ions (Cu2+) and a new compound ferrous sulphate is formed. This type of reactions is called displacement reaction.

Procedure 

  1. Take two iron nails and clean them by rubbing with sandpaper.
  2. Take two test tubes and mark them as ‘A’ and ‘B’.
  3. In each test tube, pour about 10 ml of copper sulphate solution.
  4. Tie one iron nail with a thread and immerse this carefully in the copper sulphate solution in test tube A for about 20 minutes. Keep aside one nail for comparison.
  5. After 20 minutes, take out the iron nail from the copper sulphate solution.
  6. Compare the intensity of blue colour of copper sulphate solutions of both   the  test    tubes ‘A’ and ‘B\
  7. Also, compare the colour of iron nail dipped in copper sulphate solution with one kept aside.
    CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions 13

Observations
The initial colour of copper sulphate solution was blue which after immersing iron nails turns to light green.
The initial colour of iron nail was grey. After immersing the nail into copper sulphate solution, a brown coating developed over it. Because of this coating iron nail appears reddish brown.

Result
On keeping the iron nails in copper sulphate solution, a displacement reaction takes place. In this displacement reaction, iron displaces copper and two new products ferrous sulphate and copper are formed.

Precautions 

  1. The iron nails should be cleaned by rubbing them with a sandpaper.
  2. The test tube containing iron nails and copper sulphate solution should not be disturbed.

EXPERIMENT 3(d)

Aim
To perform and observe the reaction between sodium sulphate and barium chloride solutions and classify the reaction.

Materials Required
Sodium sulphate solution, barium chloride solution, test tubes, beaker.

Theory
When the solutions of sodium sulphate and barium chloride are mixed, a white precipitate of barium sulphate is formed. Chemical equation for this chemical change can be given as follows:
CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions 14
In this reaction, both sodium sulphate and barium chloride exchange ions. Hence, this type of reaction is called double displacement reaction.

Procedure 

  1. Take 5 ml of sodium sulphate solution in a test tube and mark it as ‘A’.
  2. Take 5 ml of barium chloride solution in another test tube and mark it as ‘B’.
  3. Mix the solutions of test tubes ‘A’ and ‘B’ in a beaker.
  4. With the help of a clean glass rod, stir the mixture kept in beaker.
  5. Record your observation.

CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions 15

Observation
On mixing the solutions of sodium sulphate and barium chloride, a white precipitate is formed.

Result
On mixing the solutions of sodium sulphate and barium chloride, a double displacement reaction takes place.
In this reaction sodium sulphate and barium chloride exchange ions and new products barium sulphate (white ppt) and sodium chloride are formed.

Precautions                                                                                                                                   –

  1. Test tubes, beaker and glass rod should be cleaned.
  2. Equal volumes of sodium sulphate and barium chloride solutions should be used.

INTERACTIVE SESSION

 

Question 1:
What is the aim of your experiment?
Answer:
The aim of my experiment is to study the various types of chemical reactions.

Question 2:
How many types of chemical reactions are there?
Answer:
There are basically four types of chemical reactions, Combination reaction, Decomposition reaction, Displacement reaction and Double displacement reaction.

Question 3:
What type of reaction is combustion of hydrogen?
Answer:
It is a combination reaction.

Question 4:
Give the equation involved in the above process.
Answer:
2H2(g) + O2(g)→ 2H2O(l)

Question 5:
Can the above reaction be classified as a redox reaction?
Answer:
Yes, it can be classified as a redox reaction.

Question 6:
If we add Ag to an aqueous solution of CuS04, what happens and why?
Answer:
No change is observed because Ag being less reactive than Cu is unable to displace it from its salt solution.

Question 7:
What would happen if dil. HCl is added to (CH3COO)2Pb (lead acetate)?
Answer:
A white precipitate of PbCl2 will be obtained.

Question 8:
Give the equation involved and identify the type of chemical reaction.
Answer:
The equation involved is
(CH3COO)2Pb(aq) + 2HCl(aq) → 2CH3COOH(aq) + PbCl2(s)
This is a double displacement reaction.

Question 9:
Identify the type of chemical reaction occurring in the forward and backward processes of
CaC03 \(\overset { \Delta  }{ \rightleftharpoons  }\)CaO + C02.
Answer:
The forward reaction is a decomposition reaction while the backward reaction is a combination reaction.

Question 10:
What type of reaction is
Na2C03(aq) + 2HCl(aq)→ 2NaCl(aq) + H20(l) + C02(g)?
Answer:
It is a double displacement reaction.

Question 11:
How is it a double displacement reaction?
Answer:
In this reaction, the \({ CO }_{ 3 }^{ 2- }\) ions and Cl– ions are interchanging their positions, and H2C03 which is formed undergoes decomposition to give H20 and C02 as
H2C03(aq) \(\rightleftharpoons\)H20(aq) + CO2(g)

Question 12:
Why do displacement reactions occur?
Answer:
Displacement reactions occur due to the difference in reactivities of the elements. A more reactive element (metal or non-metal) displaces a less reactive element (metal or non-metal) from its salt solution.

NCERT LAB MANUAL QUESTIONS

Question 1:
Fill in the blanks:
(а) Sodium sulphate and barium chloride are ___________ (ionic/covalent) compounds.
(b) As the white precipitate of barium sulphate is formed___________________ (immediately/some­time after mixing the two solutions), the reaction between____________________ (ionic/covalent)
compounds is   (instantaneous/slow).
Answer:
(a) ionic
(b) immediately, ionic, instantaneous.

Question 2:
Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change when an iron nail is dipped in it?
Answer:
The colour of copper sulphate solution changes when an iron nail is dipped in it because Fe is more reactive than Cu and can displace it from its salt solution.
CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions 16

Practical Based Questions 

Multiple Choice Questions/VSA

1. A student took solid quicklime in a china dish and added a small amount of water. He heard [AI 2010]
(a) a popping sound
(b) a crackling sound
(c) a hissing sound
(d) no sound at all

2. On heating ferrous sulphate crystals, one would get  [CBSE 2012, CBSE Sample Paper 2009]
(a) sweet smell
(b) rotten egg smell
(c) irritating choking smell
(d) none of the above

3. Hydrated ferrous sulphate is commonly known as
(a) blue vitriol
(b) green vitriol
(c)  yellow vitriol
(d) brown  vitriol

4. On passing C02 gas through the product formed by the reaction between CaO and H20, solution becomes
(a)  red
(b) pink
(c)  black
(d) white

5. On heating ferrous sulphate in a test tube it undergoes
(а) combination reaction
(b) decomposition reaction
(c) displacement reaction
(d) double displacement reaction

6. An iron nail is placed in a solution of copper sulphate. The nail is taken out after 10 minutes. The nail will be found to be covered with [CBSE 2012]
(a) brown deposit
(b) black deposit
(c) white deposit
(d) yellow deposit

7. CaO is commonly known as
(a) lime water
(b) slaked lime
(c) quicklime
(d) lemon water

8. The solid residue obtained on heating ferrous sulphate in a glass tube is
(a) ferrous sulphide
(b) ferrous oxide
(c) ferric oxide
(d) ferrous sulphite

9. Which of the following information about the reaction of CaO with water is not true?
(a) CaO reacts with water vigorously.
(b) During the reaction the test tube becomes hot.
(c) CaO reacts with water to form slaked lime.
(d) During the reaction dazzling white is produced.

10. When iron nails are kept in the solution of copper sulphate, the colour of the solution changes from
(a) green to yellow
(b) blue to green
(c) green to blue
(d) yellow to green

11. Precipitate formed on mixing the solutions of barium chloride-and sodium sulphate is of
(a) barium sulphate
(b) sodium chloride
(c) barium sulphite
(d) sodium sulphite

12. In ferrous sulphate, the valency of iron is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

13. Which of the following represents a combination reaction?
(a) Reaction of zinc metal with copper sulphate solution
(b) Heating of lead nitrate
(c) Reaction between silver nitrate and sodium chloride
(d) Burning of magnesium in air.

Short Answer Questions

1. What is the difference between burning of magnesium ribbon in air and heating of ferrous sulphate crystals? Write equations for these reactions.

2. Why does a moist blue litmus paper turn red when it is brought near the mouth of the test tube in which ferrous sulphate crystals are being heated?

3. What happens when:
(a) solutions of sodium sulphate and barium chloride are mixed?
(b) an iron nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution for 20 minutes?

4. What precautions would you take while handling quicklime?

5. What will be the nature of solution formed when calcium oxide is dissolved in water? Name the substance formed when carbon dioxide gas is passed through this solution.

ANSWER KEY

Multiple Choice Questions/VSA

  1. (c)
  2. (c)
  3. (b)
  4. (d)
  5. (b)
  6. (a)
  7. (c)
  8. (c)
  9. (d)
  10. (b)
  11. (a)
  12. (b)
  13. (d)

Short Answer Questions
1.
CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions 17

2. On heating ferrous sulphate crystals (FeS04.7H20) it decomposes to ferric oxide, sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide. Ferric oxide is solid while sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide are gases. Both sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide are acidic and hence these gases turn the moist blue litmus red.

3. (a) When solutions of sodium sulphate and barium chloride are mixed, a white precipitate of barium sulphate is formed.

CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions 18

(b) When an iron nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution, following reaction takes place
CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions 19
In the above reaction, iron ions (Fe2+) being more reactive displaces copper ions (Cu2+) and a new compound ferrous sulphate is formed.

4. (i) Quicklime can cause severe bums, therefore it should be handled with a spatula.
(ii) As reaction between quicklime and water is exothermic, water should be poured over quicklime slowly.

5. On dissolving calcium oxide in water, calcium hydroxide is formed. When a drop of this liquid is put on a red litmus paper, it turns blue. This shows calcium hydroxide is basic in nature. When carbon dioxide gas is passed through calcium hydroxide (lime water), it turns milky due to formation of calcium carbonate.
CBSE Class 10 Science Practical Skills – Types of Reactions 20

Science Practical SkillsScience LabsMath LabsMath Labs with Activity

Omission Exercises for Class 8 CBSE With Answers

In the passages given below, one word has been omitted in each line. Write the word in your answer sheet along with the word that comes before and the word that comes after it, against each line number.

In the following passage, one word has been omitted in each line. Write the missing word along with the word that comes before and the word that comes after it in your answer sheet against the blanks given. The word that forms your answer should be underlined. The first one has been done for you.

Looking for an easy way to Learning of new elementary english grammar and composition for class 8 answers, Solutions. You have to learn basic English Grammar topics like Tenses Verbs, Nouns, etc… In this article, we will review the best English Grammer Topics and compare them against each other.

Omission Exercises for Class 8 CBSE With Answers PDF

Omitting is a stage of the writing process in which a writer fails to include or mention preposition, article, conjunctions, tenses, pronouns, modal verbs, etc. (PPACTS) In other words, Omitting is defined as left out or left undone.

Omission Exercises Solved Example With Answers for Class 8 CBSE

Read the following passage. There is one word missing in each line where a slash (/) has been marked. Write the correct word in the space provided. Omitting (sample)

Man is basically / animal. The instinct of fighting is a. _________
inborn in him. Thirst for power/glory is a part of b. _________
his personality. / times, he behaves like a savage, c. _________
irrational beast. In spite of all claims / the modern d. _________
civilisations, man / even today busy in pilling up and e. _________
preparing terrible weapons/war. f. _________
Answer:
a. an
b. and
c. At
d. of
e. is
f. of

Omission Exercises Practice Example for Class 8 CBSE

Read the following passages. There is one word missing in each line where a slash (/) has been marked. Write the correct word in the space provided.

Question 1.
Directions: Complete the sentence using the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning sentence as a whole.
(i) Andrew ___________ right now. He wants to pass his test tomorrow.
(a) is sleeping
(b) is teaching
(c) is studying
(d) is eating

(ii) Kline ___________ a letter to his parents right now.
(a) is studying
(b) is writing
(c) is speaking
(d) is singing

(iii) Right now, William ___________ dinner for his family.
(a) is reading
(b) is talking
(c) is doing
(d) is cooking

(iv) Teresa and Jon ___________ soccer right now.
(a) are talking
(b) are writing
(c) are playing
(d) are making

(v) Right now, Marion ___________ a new car.
(a) is running
(b) is sleeping
(c) is buying
(d) is watching

(vi) Right now, Natasha and I ___________ The water feels good.
(a) are running
(b) are studying
(c) are helping
(d) are swimming

(vii) Right now, Marcel ___________ with his dog.
(a) is trying
(b) is playing
(c) is making
(d) is having

(viii) Tommy and I ___________ to a party on Saturday.
(a) are dancing
(b) are having
(c) are going
(d) are making

(ix) The baby ___________ right now. Don’t wake her up!
(a) is sleeping
(b) is walking
(c) is speaking
(d) is crying

(x) You ___________ English now.
(a) are drawing
(b) are studying
(c) are eating
(d) are having

Question 2.
Choose the correct option.
(i) Medieval knights were often ___________ for their outstanding chivalry and success in combat, but the truth is most knights only saw action in sparring matches or other competitions.
(a) commended
(b) envied
(c) acknowledged
(d) recognized

(ii) The athlete had been badly injured during play; although a nurse applied a cold press to the affected area, his ankle immediately began to ___________.
(a) swell
(b) cool
(c) diminish
(d) relapse

(iii) In order to ___________ his reign, the king had all of his competitors ___________.
(a) cancel, killed
(b) extend, eliminated
(c) solidify, promoted
(d) maintain, knighted

(iv) The elderly professor was often seen sitting in contemplation ___________. I imagine he was ___________ his long academic career.
(a) reliving
(b) reflecting on
(c) engaging in
(d) defending

(v) Compared to the skyscrapers that are virtually ubiquitous in modern cities, most city dwellings are quite ___________.
(a) diminutive
(b) massive
(c) spacious
(d) variable

Determiners Exercises With Answers for Class 8 CBSE

Determiners Exercises With Answers for Class 8 CBSEDeterminers are words which come before nouns. They contain several classes of words, including pronouns and adjectives. They determine or limit the noun by giving some additional information about it. Determiners show whether a noun refers to is a general or a specific object, person, or place. They indicate which or how many things the noun refers to. Determiners define or limit a noun to the singular or plural. They indicate the amount or quantity. Determiners and nouns together make noun phrases. They make noun phrases with adjectives too. Determiners may precede numerals too.

Looking for an easy way to Learning of new elementary english grammar and composition for class 8 answers, Solutions. You have to learn basic English Grammar topics like Tenses Verbs, Nouns, etc… In this article, we will review the best English Grammer Topics and compare them against each other.

Determiners Exercises With Answers for Class 8 CBSE PDF

A determiner is used to modify a noun. It indicates reference to something specific or something of a particular type. There are nearly five types of determiners.

These include:

  1. Articles
  2. Demonstratives
  3. Possessives
  4. Quantifiers
  5. Numbers
  6. Ordinals

Article Determiners:

As we know, a and an are indefinite articles and the is the definite article. Of the three, a and an are the most common general determiners, whereas the is the most common specific determiner. A and an are used with singular countable nouns while referring to a general class of nouns like a frog, a ship and a biscuit. We do not use alan before uncountable nouns like rice, water or smoke. A is used before words that begin with a consonant sound and an is used before words that begin with a vowel sound.

Remember, a word might begin with a consonant letter but it might begin with a vowel sound or it might begin with a vowel and have a consonant sound.

Examples:

  • an umbrella a uniform an heir a unicorn
  • an honourable man a useful item an M.A. student (M—em sound)

The is used:
1. to refer to a specific noun.
Examples:

  • the letter I received, the thief who stole“;

2. before a noun which we have already mentioned before. The first time we use alan and the second time we use the.
Example:

  • I saw a cat … The cat jumped on me.

3. when there is only one of the thing.
Examples:

  • the sun, the Earth, the Tropic of Cancer, the environment, the internet

4. with the superlative degree.
Examples:

  • one of the greatest footballers, the cutest dog

5. before some adjectives in positive and comparative degree.
Examples:

  • the great king, the smaller shoe

6. before adjectives that act as nouns.
Examples:

  • the poor of this country …, the more the merrier … (poor and more refer to people)

7. before singular nouns to indicate an entire group, class or species.
Example:

  • The cheetah is the fastest land animal. (all cheetahs)

But not before man or woman.
Example:

  • Man is a social being.

8. with some proper nouns like names of lakes, rivers, forests, mountain ranges, famous buildings, names of some countries, etc.
Examples:

  • the Western Ghats, the Indian Ocean, the Sutlej, the Taj Mahal, the USA, the UK, the UAE

9. with the names of holy books.
Examples:

  • the Bible, the Holy Koran, the Bhagwad Gita

10. when both the speaker (writer) and listener (reader) know the person or thing.
Examples:

  • the teachers, the President

11. before only, first, second, last, etc.
Examples:

  • the first floor, the last day of school, the only child.

Demonstrative Determiners:

These are used as pronouns or as adjectives and are specifically used to state the distance from the subject. They are this, these, that and those.
Example:

  • That garden is very big.
  • Those are the stories of bygone days.

Possessive Determiners:

Possessives are words that show ownership or a relationship between people or things. Look at the words in italics in this sentence.

Kumud and her companions were on their way to the Bandipur National Park.

The words her and their determine whose companions and way. The other possessive adjectives like my, our, your, his, her, its, theirs are also determiners.
Example:

  • Suraj’s father sold his car two months ago.

Quantifiers:

Words that show how much or how many (quantity) are called quantifiers. These include many, a little, few, some, a lot of, etc. Some of them are only used with countable and some of them are used only with uncountable nouns. Some others are used with both countable and uncountable nouns.

  • Quantifiers used with countable nouns show how many.
  • Quantifiers used with uncountable nouns show how much.

Number Determiners:-

These determiners are just used to specify the exact count or number in a sentence. They are one, two, fifty, thirty, etc.
Example:

  • There are five mangoes in the basket.
  • Each child got two chocolates.

Ordinal Determiners:-

These are to determine the class or present the position of the subject in the sentence. They are first, second, last, next, etc.
Example:

  • Raman stood first in the long jump.
  • Sushil was the last to receive the prize.

Fill in the following blanks with the suitable determiners.

A. Misers are generally characterised as men without honour or without humanity, who live _______________ to accumulate, and to this passion sacrifice every other happiness. They have been described as mad men _______________ in the midst of abundance, banish _______________ pleasure, and make from imaginary wants realnecessities. But _______________ very few, correspond to the exaggerated pictures; perhaps there is not one in _______________ all these circumstances are found united. Instead of this we find the sober and the industrious branded by the vain and the idle with the odious appellation; men _______________ buy frugality and labour, raise themselves above _______________ equals, and contribute their share of industry to _______________ common stock.

B. Discontentment is _______________ root cause of all unhappiness. Contentment is blissful whereas discontentment is a curse. _______________ more discontented we are, _______________ more unhappy we are. We may have _______________ amounts of money in the bank, we may own vast farms or palaces or factories, we may be monopolists with beautiful sources of income, we will never be happy if we are discontented. A discontented man is always a slave to his desires. He acts as _______________ enemy. He does not care for _______________ position or prestige. He does not care for _______________ mental or physical health. He only wants the satisfaction of _______________ desires. He can act as his _______________ friend if he acquires contentment, but he does not do so. It is in his own hands to be free or to be a slave. If he controls _______________ desires he becomes free, if he is controlled by _______________ desires, he becomes _______________ slave.

C. Books are _______________, delightful company. If you go into _______________ room filled with books even without taking them down from _______________ shelves, they seem to speak to you seem to welcome you seem to tell you that they have something inside _______________ covers that will be good for you and that they are willing to impart it to you. Value them and endeavour to use them well. As to _______________ books which you should read there is _______________ anything definite that can be said.

D. The spirit of sportsmanship is what we lack today. The sports tell us _______________ we should react to defeat or disappointment with _______________ smile. We should not go about insisting on _______________ success in whatever we attempt. It is not possible for _______________ man to succeed in _______________ desire he has. There may be ambition of groups, there may be ambition of individuals which they set before themselves and they must try, if they are disappointed in the carrying out of their ambitions to take _______________ disappointment and _______________ defeat with a smile and to learn from it. What will happen if every individual in the street wishes to go his _______________ particular way without observing the rules of traffic, there will be clashes, there will be accidents. What happens on the streets will also happen in the political and public sphere of the country.

E. Many men and women are so money-minded _______________ they don’t undertake any serious work that does not pay. They believe that it is foolish to exert themselves for such study and brain work as cannot be converted into cash. Hard work only for money and then plenty of play and pleasure: this seems to be _______________ rule of life. They value intellect only as _______________ key to material prosperity and regard personal mental development as _______________ foolish fad. _______________ miserable materialistic psychology is very deeply rooted in _______________ classes of society. Rich and poor _______________ suffer from it. _______________ old working woman complained to me of _______________ son’s habit of occasionally buying some cheap books, and said, “He wastes _______________ money on books. What good are they to _______________? He is _______________ carpenter, not _______________ school master.”

F. _______________ wants to take rest, but _______________ know how to enjoy it. _______________ rich and _______________ poor, _______________ young and the old, _______________ go to bed at night, but _______________ enjoy a restful sleep. Generally people do not know the right manner of taking a rest. This is why they do not feel rejuvenated even _______________ having seven to eight hours sleep at night. Before describing _______________ right manner of taking rest, it must be clearly understood _______________ man’s physical state of health effects _______________ thoughts considerably and vice-versa. It is _______________ well recognised fact that when a man’s stomach is heavy and the food is not properly digested his thoughts wander about _______________ mood becomes restless. But if the stomach is light and body healthy, the man’s thoughts, too, are calm. In a healthy state, _______________ man’s brain is active and the mind cheerful and he does not bother much about the worries of _______________ world.

More about Determiners

Fundamentals:

  1. It’s possible to have no determiner in a sentence. Example: John likes dogs. People breathe air. This is called ‘zero determiners’, and is usually possible with proper nouns (ie names), ‘plural’, ‘countable nouns’ and ‘uncountable nouns’.
  2. All determiners, when present in a sentence, come at the beginning of a noun phrase (before any adjectives): the big black dog /my favorite car
  3. Depending on its position before the noun, a determiner can be:

Pre-determiner – Central Determiner – Post-determiner – Noun
all – the – many – roads

a central determiner, a pre-determiner or a post-determiner.

3. If you have a ‘main determiner”, we can have only one noun. The main determiners are:

  • articles: a/an, the
  • demonstratives: this/that, these/those
  • possessives: my/your/his etc

So if we have an article in a sentence, we cannot also have a demonstrative. If we have a possessive, we cannot have an article. We can have one article or one demonstrative or one possessive. For example, we can say “this dog” or “my dog”, but we cannot say “this my dog”. The table below shows how the main determiners “mutually exclude” each other:

articles demonstratives possessives noun
a dog
the soup
this flower
those birds
my sister
their car

4. Some determiners function as “pre-determiners” — they can come before the main determiner. We can have one pre-determiner: all the right people/half my weight

5. Other determiners function as “post-determiners” — they can come after the main determiner. We can have one or more post-determiners: the next time/my first two jobs

6. If we have more than one determiner, the table below is a guide to the normal order. Remember, this is a guide only. Not every combination is possible.
Determiners Exercises With Answers for Class 8 CBSEPre-determiners / Central Determiners / Post-determiners

There are different types of pre-determiners determiners. The main ones are:

Main Pre-determiners Example Words Example Phrases
multipliers twice, double three times. twice the money
fractions half, one fourth. half an hour
Intensifiers what, such, rather, quite What a mess!
other words both, all both my legs

Main Central determiners include:

Main post-determiners Example Words Example Phrases
cardinal numbers one, two, eighty. the three eagles
ordinal numbers first, second, twenty-third. the first time
general ordinals last, next, previous, latter, subsequent. our next meeting
quantifiers few, several, many. his several successes

Language Tips about Determiners
Some words can be determiners or post-determiners, depending on the number of determiners in a sentence and their place.
Examples:
‘two’ is a determiner in: I need two rackets.
‘two’ is a post-determiner in: I need the two rackets from the garage, (‘two’ is placed after the centra! determiner ‘the’)
‘many’ is a determiner in: We know many uses for these products.
‘many’ is a post-determiner in: We know their many uses, (‘many’ is placed after the central determiner ‘their’)
Usually, we only use one pre-determiner. However, it is possible to use two post determiners, as shown in the examples below.
Examples:

  • his next two projects, the first three days, etc

A. Complete sentences using correct determiners.

1. I make _______________ his salary! (half/all)
2. We brush our teeth _______________ a day. (two/twice)
3. _______________ the customers were satisfied, (all/both)
4. Are you available for the _______________ meeting? (last/next)
5. _______________ my uncles live in Switzerland, (both/twice)
6. _______________ this amount is enough, (all/one third of)
7. _______________ a great invention! (What/How)
8. This is _______________ an amazing story! (so/such)
9. I never want to speak to those _______________ crooks again, (both/two)
10. He explained his _______________ projects, (much/many)

B. Rearrange the words to make sentences and underline the determiners.
1. ate / it / she / half / of
2. proud / many / of / is / achievements / he / his
3. such / is / difficult / a / this / exercise

C. Which is the correct phrase: A, B or both? Tick the correct one.

1. the first two hours 1. the two first hours
2. a such good investment 2. such a good investment
3. several his objectives 3. his several objectives
4. my both ears 4. both my ears
5. two-fifths of the candidates 5. two-fifth candidates
6. twice the money 6. double the money
7. my two eyes 7. both my eyes
8. the all day 8. all the day
9. their few friends 9. few their friends
10. the last four days 10. the four last days
11. double that salary 11. double of that salary
12. four times of the number of people 12. Four times the number of people
13. twice the number 13. twice of the number
14. all the people have problems 14. the people all have problems
15. half this milk is spoiled 15. half of this milk is spoiled

D. Read the sentences underline the words which are determiners.

1. Most days, Manish speaks to Neha at least once a day.
2. He earns twice her salary.
3. Last week, he took her to quite an expensive restaurant.
4. That evening, he spent three times the amount he had anticipated!
5. What a gentleman!

E. Determine whether the following statements are True or False.

1. Usually, we use several pre-determiners. True/False
2. ‘Next’ is a pre-determiner. True/False
3. Some words can be determiners or post-determiners. True/False
4. It is rare to have a pre-determiner, a central determiner, and a post-determiner in one sentence. True/False

F. Match the determiner on the left to its category on the right.

1. all a. pre-determiner
2. second b. central determiner
3. mine c. post-determiner
4. the d. not a determiner

G. Put the words in the correct order.

1. three / first / failed / attempts / he / the
____________________________________
2. difference / their / a / quite / contributions / made
____________________________________
3. our / engineering I both / study / sons / chemical
____________________________________
4. several / we / achievements / admire / his
____________________________________

A Question of Trust Extra Questions and Answers Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet

In this article, we are providing A Question of Trust Extra Questions and Answers PDF Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet CBSE, Extra Questions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet was designed by subject expert teachers.

A Question of Trust Extra Questions and Answers Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet

Extract Based Questions [3 Marks each]

Read the following extracts carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Question 1.
So he robbed a safe every year. Each year he planned carefully just what he would do, stole enough to last for twelve months, and secretly bought the books he loved through an agent.
(a) Who is ‘he’ in the above extract?
(b) Why did ‘he’ rob only one safe every year?
(c) Find the word from the extract that means the opposite of ‘openly’.
(d) What is the present tense of ‘stole’?
Answer:
(a) ‘He’ in the above extract is Horace Danby.
(b) He robbed only one safe every year because he robbed just enough to satisfy his hobby of buying and collecting rare and expensive books. Otherwise, he was just an honest lock-maker.
(c) The word is ‘secretly’.
(d) Its present tense is ‘steal’.

Question 2.
A small dog was lying in the kitchen. It stirred, made a noise, and moved its tail in a friendly way. [CBSE 2014]
(a) What is the name of the dog mentioned in the above extract?
(b) In which house is the kitchen referred to located?
(c) Find a word from the passage that means the same as ‘cordial’.
(d) What is the opposite of ‘friendly’?
Answer:
(a) The name of the dog mentioned in the above extract is Sherry.
(b) The kitchen referred to is located in Shotover Grange.
(c) The word is ‘friendly’.
(d) Its opposite is ‘hostile’.

Question 3.
The voice went on, “You can cure it with a special treatment, you know, if you find out just what plant gives you the disease. I think you’d better see a doctor, if you’re serious about your work.”
(a) Whose voice is referred to in the above extract?
(b) What disease was the voice referring to?
(c) Find a word from the passage that means the same as ‘ailment’.
(d) What part Of speech is the word ‘it’ in the extract?
Answer:
(a) The voice referred to in the above extract is of the young lady who pretended to be a member of the household.
(b) The disease the voice was referring to was hay fever, with which Horace Danby was afflicted.
(c) The word is ‘disease’.
(d) ‘It’ is a pronoun.

Question 4.
She laughed, and he begged, thinking that he had persuaded her, “Look, I have no right to ask you for anything, but I’m desperate.”
(a) Who are ‘she1 and ‘he’ in the above extract?
(b) Why did ‘he’ say that he was desperate?
(c) Find a word in the passage that means the same as ‘convinced1.
(d) What is the opposite of ‘persuaded’?
Answer:
(a) ‘She’ is young lady who Horace met in the house and ‘he’ is Horace Danby.
(b) Horace was desperate because he had been caught stealing and did not want to go to prison.
(c) The word is ‘persuaded’.
(d) Its opposite is ‘dissuaded’

Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks each]

Question 1.
Whom did Horace Danby see in the kitchen? How did they greet each other? What tact did Horace apply there? [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Horace Danby saw the family dog, Sherry, in the kitchen. The dog greeted Horace by stirring, making a noise and wagging its tail in a friendly way. Horace greeted the dog by tactfully calming it down, calling it by its name and showing love to it.

Question 2.
How did Danby prepare for the robbery at Shotover Grange? [CBSE 2011]
or
How did Horace Danby plan his robberies? [CBSE2012]
Answer:
Danby always planned his robberies meticulously. He prepared for the robbery at Shotover Grange by studying the house, the electric wiring, paths and garden. He knew that the family normally lived in the city and knew about the movement of the servants, who had gone out that afternoon. He had kept his tools ready, packed in a bag.

Question 3.
What was the passion of Horace Danby and how did he satisfy it? [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
The passion of Horace Danby was collecting rare and expensive books. To satisfy this passion, he needed money and arranged it by robbing one safe every year and then secretly buying the books through an agent.

Question 4.
Describe the safe at Shotover Grange.
or
Where was the safe at Shotover Grange? What was there inside it? What did Horace expect to get if he sold them one by one? [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
The safe at Shotover Grange was kept in the drawing room behind a poor painting and had jewels worth about 15000 pounds kept in it. It had a poorly built burglar alarm, but could be opened only through a specific code. Horace expected to get 5000 pounds if he sold the jewels one by one.

Question 5.
How can you say that Horace Danby was good and respectable but not completely honest?
Answer:
Horace Danby was good and respectable because he was an expert in his profession of making locks. However, as he loved collecting rare and expensive books, he robbed a safe every year to finance the purchase of these books through an agent. Thus he was not completely honest

Question 6.
How did flowers hinder Horace in his work? [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Flowers hindered Horace in his work because he had hay fever, a disorder affecting the nose and throat, caused by allergy to pollen or dust. Due to this problem, whenever he came close to flowers, he began to sneeze’ and could be caught. He had to cover his face.

Question 7.
Why was Horace Danby sure that his robbery at Shotover Grange woukhbe a successful one? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Horace Danby was sure that his robbery at Shotover Grange would be a successful one because he had studied the house, the drawing room where the safe was kept, the wiring and its garden. He had also studied the movement of the servants, so he had planned well, thus ensuring that nothing could go wrong.

Question 8.
Why does Horace Danby get angry when anyone talks about ‘honour among thieves’?
Answer:
When anyone talks about ‘honour among thieves’, Horace Danby gets angry because the young lady who cheated him was also a thief, yet did not follow this saying.

Question 9.
What are the subtle ways in which the lady manages to deceive Horace Danby into thinking she is the mistress of the house?
Answer:
The subtle ways in which the lady manages to deceive Horace Danby into thinking she is the mistress of the house are her grace, charm, comfort level, knowledge, persistence, way of talking confidently and familiarity with the household. She even threatens to get him arrested, which convinces Horace Danby that she is genuine.

Question 10.
What did Horace Danby wonder about for a moment? What did he think and decide? [CBSE 2010]
Answer:
On seeing the poor painting in front of the safe, Horace Danby wondered for a moment whether to collect pictures instead of books. But then, he thought that books were better in a small house like his, as paintings took up too much room.

Question 11.
What did Horace do every year and why?
Answer:
As Horace was fond of rare, expensive books, he stole a safe every year, to have just enough money to last twelve months for buying such books to his heart’s content.

Question 12.
Whom did Horace meet at Shotover Grange? How did the meeting affect his plans?
Answer:
Horace met a young, pretty woman dressed in red at Shotover Grange. She pretended to be the owner’s wife and deceived him into breaking open the safe to remove the jewels for her. She threatened even to call the police. This meeting adversely affected his plans, as he was not able to get away with the jewels.

Long Answer (Value Based) Type Questions [8 Marks each]

Question 1.
What precautions did Danby take to avoid arrest? What blunder did he commit in his last venture?
Answer:
To avoid arrest, Danby always studied all aspects of the safe he had targeted that year thoroughly, including the habits of the owners and servants, the layout of the house, any burglar alarms etc. He carried a set of select tools to break open safes and always wore gloves, so that he left behind no fingerprints.
In his last venture at Shotover Grange, he committed the blunder of not wearing gloves while cracking open the safe, probably because he was distracted by the young lady threatening to call the police, thus leading to his arrest soon afterwards.

Question 2.
Why was Horace Danby arrested although he failed to profit from the robbery at Shotover Grange?
Answer:
Horace Danby was arrested although he failed to profit from the robbery at Shotover Grange, because he broke open the safe to give the lady in red the jewels, thinking her to be the wife of the owner who had forgotten the number combination to open the safe. Actually he wanted to escape scot-free, as he had been caught red-handed by the lady and wanted to keep her happy. However, his fingerprints were all over the room, as he had forgotten to wear his gloves while opening the safe. Thus he was arrested soon afterwards.

Question 3.
Horace was clever but the lady in red was cleverer. Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement. Horace was clever, as he planned the robbery carefully, studied the target, took the proper tools and also took his gloves, to ensure leaving no fingerprints. But the young lady in red had all the necessary information, and, posing as the mistress of the house, exploited Horace’s fear on being discovered, tricked him into cracking open the safe and handing her the jewels. She even ensured that Horace left his fingerprints at the site, as she distracted him by picking up a cigarette which Horace offered to light after removing his gloves. Thus the lady outwitted him.

Question 4.
Would you do something wrong (i.e. commit a crime) if you thought that the ends justify the means? Do you think that there are certain situations you can be excused for acting dishonestly? [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
Yes, intentions do justify actions. If something wrong is done unintentionally, it may be pardoned. However, it cannot be excused if it is carried out even when knowing it is wrong. As Horace had the intention to rob the safe by breaking it open, his crime is intentional. Although he had good intentions in helping the lady (who he thought was the mistress of the house), his crime cannot be excused. Breaking open the safe cannot be justified at all. There may be certain situations when you can be excused for acting dishonestly, but this is not so in Horace’s case.

Question 5.
Horace was a successful thief because he carefully planned his robberies. Should we call him a successful thief and still appreciate his work? Why or why not? [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Yes, as a thief, Horace is successful because he carefully planned his robberies and completes them well. He was living his life as a good and honest citizen. However, the wealth he gathered due from his successful robberies did not belong to him. By stealing other people’s valuables, he may have become successful but he is actually a criminal. He may be efficient in – conducting his’-crimes so that he is successful, but we still cannot appreciate his work.

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The Making of a Scientist Extra Questions and Answers Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet

In this article, we are providing The Making of a Scientist Extra Questions and Answers PDF Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet CBSE, Extra Questions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet was designed by subject expert teachers.

The Making of a Scientist Extra Questions and Answers Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet

Extract Based Questions [3 Marks each]

Read the following extracts carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Question 1.
So he did, and did he ever! Beginning in kindergarten, Ebright collected butterflies with same determination that has marked all his activities.
(a) What does ‘he did’ in the extract refer to?
(b) What else did he collect other than butterflies?
(c) Find a word from the extract which means ‘resolutenesss’.
(d) What is the opposite of ‘Beginning’?
Answer:
(a) ‘he did’ refers to Richard’s habit of collecting various things.
(b) He collected fossils, coins and rocks other than butterflies.
(c) ‘Determination’ is a word from the extract which means ‘resoluteness’.
(d) Its opposite is ‘Ending’

Question 2.
He would catch a female monarch, take her eggs, and raise them in his basement through their life cycle
(a) Who is ‘he’ in this extract?
(b) Why does he raise butterflies?
(c) Find a synonym for the word ‘rear’ from the extract given above.
(d) What part of speech is ‘them’?
Answer:
(a) Richard Ebright is ‘he’ in this extract.
(b) He raised butterflies to study their migration pattern.
(c) ‘Raise’ is the synonym of‘rear’ from the extract.
(d) It is a pronoun

Question 3.
“It was really a sad feeling to sit there and not get anything while everybody else had won something.”
(a) Who is the speaker of the above lines?
(b) Where was he competing at?
(c) Find a word from the extract which is the opposite of ‘nobody’.
(d) Write a synonym of ‘sad’.
Answer:
(a) Richard Ebright is the speaker of the above lines.
(b) He was competing at a county science fair.
(c) ‘Everybody’ is the opposite of ‘nobody’ from the extract.
(d) Its synonym is ‘Gloomy’.

Question 4.
If the theory proves correct, it will be a big step towards understanding the processes of life. [CBSE 2012]
(a) What is the theory about?
(b) Who proposed the theory?
(c) Which part of speech is ‘life’ as used in the given extract?
(d) Give a synonym of ‘correct’.
Answer:
(a) The theory is about how cells read their DNA.
(b) The theory was proposed by Richard Ebright and his friend James R. Wong.
(c) It is used as a noun.
(d) Its synonym is ‘right’.

Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks each]

Question 1.
What rare achievement did Richard manage at the age of twenty-two?
Answer:
Richard had a rare honour at the age of twenty-two. He wrote an article with his friend about a theory of how cells work. The article was published in the scientific journal ‘Proceedings of the National Academy of Science.’ No one had this achievement at such a young age before him.

Question 2.
Richard became a collector at an early age. How?
Answer:
Richard was the only child of his parents. He had no company at home to play with. So, he started collecting things in his spare time. He would collect coins, fossils, rocks and butterflies as a hobby.

Question 3.
Comment on the role played by Richard’s mother in his success.
Or
How did Ebright’s mother help him in becoming a scientist? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
Richard’s mother made Richard the centre of her life. She would buy microscopes, telescopes and books for him. She arranged trips for him and would also prepare difficult tasks for him. This helped him to learn a lot.

Question 4.
How did ‘The Travels of Monarch X’ prove a turning point in his life?
Answer:
Richard was bored with collecting butterflies. At this time, his mother got the book ‘The Travels of Monarch X’ for him. After reading the book, he studied the migration of butterflies and it opened the world of science to him.

Question 5.
Why did Richard lose interest in tagging butterflies?
Answer:
Richard raised thousands of butterflies, tagged them and released them to study their migration. But soon, he lost interest because only two of his tagged butterflies were returned to him and they had travelled only seventy-five miles.

Question 6.
Which project did Richard undertake in the eighth grade?
Answer:
Richard undertook the project to find the cause of a viral fever that had killed thousands of butterflies. He thought that a beetle might carry the virus although he was not able to prove it.

Question 7.
Richard’s project on the purpose of the twelve tiny gold spots on a monarch pupa was highly valuable in two ways. List the two ways.
Answer:
This project had a huge impact. First, he discovered a hormone that was necessary for the growth of the pupa. Secondly, he got a chance to work at a famous laboratory.

Question 8.
Mentionany two of Ebright’s contributions to the world of science. [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
Ebright discovered a hormone that was necessary for the growth of a butterfly. His other important contribution proved to be his study of how cells read their DNA.

Question 9.
In addition to science, what were the other interests of Richard?
Answer:
A part from science, Richard was a good debater and a public speaker as well as a canoeist and an all-round a outdoors person. He loved photography as well.

Question 10.
Mr. Weiherer pays a glowing tribute to Richard. What did he say?
Answer:
Mr. Weiherer was Ebright’s social studies teacher. He praised him for his brilliant mind, his curiosity and a will to win for the right reason. He also admired Richard for his spirit to do his very best all the time.

Question 11.
Why do viceroy butterflies copy the monarch butterflies?
Answer:
Birds eat viceroy butterflies because they taste good to them, whereas monarch butterflies do not taste good to the birds. So the viceroys try to copy the monarchs to protect themselves from the birds.

Question 12.
Hobbies play a very important role in one’s life; elaborate this with reference to “The Making of a Scientist”. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
Richard Ebright started collecting butterflies as a hobby. This led him to research and discover many things. Hence, hobbies play an important role in one’s life.

Question 13.
What were the factors which contributed in making Ebright a scientist? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Three qualities of Ebright which contributed were a first rate mind, a sense of curiosity and a will to win for the right reason.

Long Answer (Value Based) Type Questions [8 Marks each]

Question 1.
Richard’s mother had a great influence on him. Discuss.
Or
Discuss the role of Ebright’s mother in making him a scientist. [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
Richard’s mother played a huge role in making him a great scientist. She would take him on trips to encourage learning. He was a single child. After his father died, his mother made him the focus of her life. She would buy him all kinds of microscopes, telescopes and other equipment. After dinner, she gave him problems to solve. This helped Richard to learn a lot. She was his only companion for a long time. It was his mother who got him the book ‘The Travels of Monarch X’. This book opened the world of science for Richard. She also wrote to Dr Urquhart to guide her son. The scientist helped Richard and guided him. Thus, his mother actually shaped him into an extraordinary scientist.

Question 2.
Ebright’s study of monarch pupas had a far reaching impact. Elaborate.
Answer:
For a long time the scientific community had regarded the bright spots on a monarch pupa as purely ornamental. But Dr Urquhart did not believe it. Nor did Richard. He started his experiments on the monarch pupa. He built a device with the help of a friend. This led to the discovery of a hormone. Richard proved that the hormone was necessary for the growth of the butterfly. This discovery got him many honours. Also, it led to another important study. He began working on how cells read their DNA. DNA is the carrier of heredity and is called the blueprint of life. His theory could find answers to many cancers and diseases.

Question 3.
Richard Ebright displayed a well-rounded personality. Do you agree? Elucidate in the context of the given text. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
Richard’s genius was obvious by the time he was in his second grade. He managed to collect all twenty-five . species of butterflies around his hometown and classify them. He also loved to collect coins, fossils and rocks. Science was not his only passion. He was an active member of his school’s oratory club and model United Nations club and was an effective debater and a public speaker. He loved photography as well.
He was an enthusiastic canoeist and an all-around outdoors person. Learning was easy for him. So he found it simple to devote time and energy to many other interests. He became a champion in whatever he did. He believed in the spirit of competition to win. But, he did not wish to defeat others just to win. He wanted to win to do his best. Thus, he displayed a well-tounded personality.

Question 4.
Dr Urquhart contributed significantly to Ebright’s growth as a scientist. Explain
Answer:
Richard had become bored with collecting butterflies. His mother got him a book on the migration of butterflies. Richard came in contact with Dr Urquhart through the book. Dr Urquhart directed him to study the migration pattern of butterflies.
When he did not win any prize in the science fair in seventh grade, he again wrote to Dr Urquhart to guide him. The scientist gave him many suggestions for new experiments. Richard performed these experiments throughout his high school and won many prizes. Later, he worked on why bright spots are found on a monarch pupa, motivated by Dr Urquhart. It led to the discovery of a new hormone. The discovery of this new hormone further led to an important theory. The theory was about how cells read their DNA. In this way Dr Urquhart proved to be his true mentor.

Question 5.
What are the values required to become a successful scientist like Richard Ebright? Elaborate with reference to the lesson ‘The Making of a Scientist’.
Answer:
Curiosity to know more and a motivation to find reasons for existence of anything or any phenomena are necessary for becoming a successful scientist. The urge to know more develops the scientific aptitude in a person. At a very young age, Ebright became competitive by participating in various county fairs. He never lost hope and kept on trying to do better. In addition to curiosity and motivation, Ebright displayed the qualities of hard work, sincerity, determination and patience. He also accepted failure and success in the right spirit. Thus, he became a successful scientist.

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